Chapters 1-4 Flashcards

1
Q

New proteins destined for the plasma membrane or points beyond are synthesized in the ______ and are physically assembled in the _______.

A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)
Golgi apparatus (p. 6)

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2
Q

Intracellular organelles that contain degradative enzymes that permit the digestion of a wide range of macromolecules.

A

Lysosomes (p. 6)

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3
Q

The ability of cells to adopt a particular shape, maintain polarity, organize the relationship of intracellular organelles, and move about depends on the ________.

A

Cytoskeleton (p. 10)

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4
Q

The components of the extracellular matrix fall into three groups of proteins. List and describe these groups.

A
  1. Fibrous structural proteins- such as collagens and elastins that confer tensile strength and recoil.
  2. Water-hydrated gels- such as proteoglycans and hyaluronan that permit compressive resistance and lubrication.
  3. Adhesive glycoproteins- connect ECM elemts to one another and to cells (p. 21-23)
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5
Q

What are the two important properites characterized by stem cells?

A
  1. Self renewal- which permits stem cells to maintain their numbers
  2. Asymmetric division- one daughter cell enters a differentiation pathway and gives rise to mature cells, while the other remains undifferentiated and retains its self-renewal capacity (p. 26)
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6
Q

What are the two varieties of stem cells?

A
  1. Embryonic stem cells are the most undifferentiated. They have virtually limitless cell renewal capacity and can give rise to every cell in the body (totipotent).
  2. Tissue stem cells (adult stem cells) have a limited repertoire of differentiated cells that they can generate. (p. 27)
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7
Q

Which cell organelle is the cell’s supplier of ATP and also a critical player in cell injury and death?

A

Mitochondria (p. 15)

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8
Q

Define the terms atrophy, hypertrophy, hyperplasia, and metaplasia.

A

Hyperplasia – an increase in cell number
Hypertrophy – an increase in cell size
Atrophy – a reduced size of an organ or tissue resulting from a decrease in cell size and number Metaplasia – an alteration of cell differentiation (p. 34-37)

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9
Q

An insoluble pigment also known as wear-and-tear pigment whose importance lies in its being a telltale sign of free radical injury and lipid peroxidation.

A

Lipofuscin (p. 64)

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10
Q

Define the terms metaplasia and dysplasia.

A

Metaplasia is a reversible change in which one adult cell type (epithelial or mesenchymal) is replaced by another cell type.
Dysplasia literally means disordered growth. Changes include a loss in the uniformity of the individual cells as well as a loss in their architectural orientation.
(p. 37, p. 271)

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11
Q

Name and define the two principal patterns of cell death.

A

Necrosis – cell death when a pathologic process damages the membrane so severely that enzymes enter the cytoplasm and digest the cell.
Apoptosis – cell death through activation of internally controlled suicide program. (p. 39)

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12
Q

Define hypoxia and ischemia.

A

Ischemia - reduced blood flow from impeded arterial flow or reduced venous drainage in a tissue.

Hypoxia - a deficiency of oxygen which causes cell injury or death by reducing aerobic oxidative respiration either by reduced blood flow (ischemia), inadequate oxygenation (cardiorespiratory failure) or decreased oxygen carrying capacity of the blood (anemia). (p. 39)

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13
Q

What is the first known manifestation of almost all forms of injury to individual cells?

A

Cellular swelling (p. 41)

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14
Q

Define the terms pyknosis, karyolysis, and karyorrhexis.

A

Pyknosis is characterized by nuclear shrinkage and increased basophilia.
Karyolysis is a change that presumably reflects loss of DNA in which the basophilia of the chromatin may fade
Karyorrhexis is when the pyknotic or partially pyknotic nucleus undergoes fragmentation. (p. 42)

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15
Q

Define coagulation necrosis and liquefactive necrosis and give an example where each can be encountered.

A

Coagulative necrosis – denaturation is the primary pattern. It implies preservation of the basic outline of the coagulated cell for a span of at least some days. The affected tissues exhibit a firm texture. The injury denatures not only structural proteins but also enzymes and blocks the proteolysis of the cell. Example – myocardial infarction.
Liquefactive necrosis – dominant enzyme digestion. Characteristic of focal bacterial or fungal infections. Liquefaction completely digests the dead cells. The end result is transformation of the tissue into a liquid, viscous mass. Example – Central nervous system hypoxic cell death (p. 43)

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16
Q

What is fat necrosis, and in what organ is it most frequently seen?

A

Fat destruction due to release of lipases, often seen in the pancreas (p. 43-44)

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17
Q

Caseous necrosis is most frequently associated with what type of infection?

A

Tuberculosis (p. 43)

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18
Q

What stains would be used to differentiate glycogen from fat?

A

GLYCOGEN – Best Carmine or periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) with and without diastase FAT – Sudan Black B or Oil-Red-O (p. 63, p. 151)

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19
Q

Define hemosiderosis and hemochromatosis.

A

Hemosiderosis – a condition in which hemosiderin is deposited in many organs and tissues, usually without parenchymal damage or impaired organ functions; systemic overload of iron. Hemochromatosis – an extreme accumulation of iron associated with liver and pancreatic damage, resulting in liver fibrosis, heart failure, and diabetes mellitus. (p. 65, p. 847)

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20
Q

Define dystrophic calcification and metastatic calcification.

A

Dystrophic calcification – calcium deposition occurs locally in nonviable or dying tissues. It occurs despite normal serum levels of calcium and in the absence of derangements in calcium metabolism. Metastatic calcification – deposition of calcium salts in vital tissues, almost always reflects some isturbance in calcium metabolism, leading to hypercalcemia. (p. 65)

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21
Q

. Define transudate and exudate.

A

Exudate – inflammatory, extravascular fluid that has a high protein concentration, much cellular debris, and a high specific gravity. It implies significant alteration in the normal permeability of small blood vessels in the area of injury.
Transudate – a fluid with low protein content (most of which is albumin) and a low specific gravity. It is an ultrafiltrate of blood plasma and results from hydrostatic imbalance across the vascular endothelium. (p. 73)

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22
Q

Describe the stages of leukocyte extravasation.

A
  1. In the lumen: margination, rolling, and adhesion to endothelium
  2. Migration across the endothelium and vessel wall
  3. Migration in the tissues toward a chemotactic stimulus (p. 75)
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23
Q

Name the three major components of acute inflammation:

A
  1. Alteration in vascular caliber that leads to an increase in blood flow.
  2. Structural changes in the microvasculature that permit the plasma proteins and leukocytes to leave the circulation.
  3. Emigration of the leukocytes from the microcirculation and their accumulation in the focus of injury. (p. 73)
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24
Q

Name the five clinical signs associated within inflammation.

A

Redness, swelling, heat, pain, loss of function (p. 71)

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25
Q

Name the particular cells of the reticuloendothelial system that are responsible for: 1) acute inflammatory response and 2) chronic inflammatory response.

A

Acute inflammatory response – leukocytes – mainly neutrophils
Chronic inflammatory response – mononuclear cells, including macrophages and lymphocytes (p. 71)

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26
Q

Define a serous inflammation

A

marked by the outpouring of a thin fluid that, depending on the size of the injury, is derived from either the blood serum or the secretions of mesothelial cells lining the peritoneal, pleural, and pericardial cavities.

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27
Q

Fibrinous inflammation

A

develops when the vascular leaks are large enough to allow fibrin to pass through the vascular barrier, or there is a procoagulant stimulus. Characteristic of inflammation in body cavities, such as the pericardium and pleura.

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28
Q

Purulent inflammation

A

characterized by the production of large amounts of pus or purulent exudates consisting of neutrophils, necrotic cells, and edema fluid. (p. 90-91)

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29
Q

The histologic hallmarks of chronic inflammation include_______.

A

Infiltration with mononuclear cells, tissue destruction, healing by connective tissue replacement of damaged tissue (angiogenesis, fibrosis). (p. 93-94)

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30
Q

A microscopic aggregation of macrophages that are transformed into epithelium-like cells surrounded by a collar of mononuclear leukocytes, principally lymphocytes and occasionally plasma cells is known as a _________.

A

Granuloma (p. 98)

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31
Q

Define leukocytosis

A

Leukocytosis – common feature of inflammatory reactions, especially those induced by bacterial infection. The leukocyte count usually climbs to 15,000 or 20,000 cells/microliter.

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32
Q

Define leukopenia

A

decreased number of circulating white cells. Encountered in infections such as typhoid fever and rickettsiae (p. 99

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33
Q

Define leukemoid reaction.

A

leukocyte count of 40,000 to 100,000 cells/microliter. These extreme elevations are similar to the white cell counts obtained in leukemia.

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34
Q

Define the following types of inflammatory reactions: a)abscess b)ulcer.

A

Abscess – focal localized collections of purulent inflammatory tissue caused by suppuration buried in a tissue, an organ, or a confined space.

Ulcer – a local defect or excavation of the surface of an organ or tissue that is produced by the sloughing of inflammatory necrotic tissue. (p. 91)

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34
Q

Granulation tissue is composed of what histologic components?

A

Fibroblasts with deposition of loose connective tissue, together with vessels and interspersed leukocytes (p. 103)

35
Q

The cells of the body have been divided into three groups based upon their proliferative capacity. These include ______, _______, and _________.

A

Continuously dividing cells (labile cells)
Quiescent cells (stabile cells)
Non-dividing cells (permanent cells) (p. 101)

36
Q

A severe generalized edema with widespread subcutaneous tissue swelling is dangerous because:

A

It signals potential underlying cardiac or renal disease; however, when significant, it can also impair wound healing or the clearance of infections. (p. 115)

37
Q

Edema may be caused by what 5 things:

A

Increased hydrostatic pressure
Decreased colloid osmotic pressure caused by reduced plasma albumin Lymphatic obstruction
Sodium and water retention
Increased vascular permeability (e.g., inflammation) (p. 115)

38
Q

Define dependent edema and pitting edema.

A

When the edema distribution is influenced by gravity it is termed dependent edema
When finger pressure over substantially edematous subcutaneous tissue displaces the interstitial fluid and leaves a depression, it is termed pitting edema. (p. 115)

39
Q

Define hyperemia and congestion.

A

Hyperemia is an active process resulting from augmented tissue inflow because of arteriolar dilation, as in skeletal muscle during exercise, or at sites of inflammation.
Congestion is a passive process resulting from impaired outflow, as in cardiac failure, or localized venous obstruction. (p. 115)

40
Q

A “nutmeg liver” results from_______ _______ congestion of the liver.

A

Chronic passive (p. 116)

41
Q

Define petechia

A

Petechia – minute 1-2 mm hemorrhages into skin, mucous membranes, or serosal surfaces.

42
Q

define purpura

A

Purpura – slightly larger > or = to 3 mm hemorrhages

43
Q

define ecchymoses.

A

Ecchymoses – larger >1 to 2 cm subcutaneous hematomas (bruises) (p. 121-122)

44
Q

What are the three components of Virchow’s triad?

A

1) Endothelial injury
2) Stasis or turbulence of blood flow
3) Blood hypercoagulability (p. 122)

45
Q

A detached intravascular solid, liquid, or gaseous mass that is carried by the blood to a site distant from its point of origin is known as an_________.

A

Embolus (p. 127)

46
Q

Within thrombi, pale platelet and fibrin deposits alternating with darker red cell-rich layers are known as ________ and signify a thrombus that has formed in flowing blood.

A

Lines of Zahn (p. 125)

47
Q

Define and characterize arterial and venous thrombi.

A

Arterial thrombi are frequently occlusive and typically consist of a friable meshwork of platelets, fibrin, red cells, and degenerating leukocytes.
Venous thrombi are almost always occlusive; the thrombus often creates a long cast of the vein lumen. They contain more enmeshed erythrocytes and are known as red, or stasis thrombi. (p. 125)

48
Q

Describe the morphology of a post mortem clot.

A

Gelatinous with a dark red dependent portion where red cells have settled by gravity and a yellow “chicken fat” upper portion; they are usually not attached to the underlying wall. (p. 125)

49
Q

Name the four pathways by which a thrombus can evolve after initially forming.

A

Propagation
Embolization
Dissolution
Organization and recanalization (p. 125-126)

50
Q

The most common distant source of pulmonary emboli are ________.

A

Deep leg vein thrombosis (p. 126)

51
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation also known as ___________is characterized by_______.

A

Consumption coagulopathy
Sudden or insidious onset of widespread fibrin thrombi in the microcirculation (p. 127)

52
Q

Embolic occlusion at the bifurcation of the main pulmonary artery is known as a______________.

A

Saddle embolus (p. 127)

53
Q

Emboli in the arterial circulation which most commonly arise from intracardiac mural thrombi are known as:

A

Systemic emboli (p. 127)

54
Q

A chronic form of decompression sickness in which persisting gas emboli in the skeletal system lead to multiple foci of ischemic necrosis is known as_____________.

A

Caisson disease (p. 128)

55
Q

Following severe trauma or major orthopedic procedures, if a fat embolism is suspected, a portion of the affected organs should be_________ in order to allow to stain for ____.

A

Frozen
Fat (p. 128)

56
Q

Define infarct

A

An infarct is an area of ischemic necrosis caused by occlusion of either the arterial supply or the venous drainage in a particular tissue.

57
Q

discuss the two different types of infarcts.

A

Red (hemorrhagic) infarcts occur with venous occlusions, in loose tissues which allow blood to collect in the infarcted zone, in tissues with dual circulation, in tissues that were previously congested because of sluggish venous outflow, or when flow is reestablished to a site of previous arterial occlusion and necrosis.

White (anemic) infarcts occur with arterial occlusions or in solid organs where the solidity of the tissue limits the amount of hemorrhage that can seep into the area of ischemic necrosis from adjoining capillary beds. (p. 129-130)

58
Q

Vascular infarcts are least common in the _______ and _______ due to their dual blood supplies.

A

Lungs and liver (p. 130)

59
Q

Define the three general categories of shock.

A

Cardiogenic shock – results from myocardial pump failure
Hypovolemic shock – results from low cardiac output due to low blood volume
Shock associated with systemic inflammation- featured by a massive outpouring of inflammatory mediators from innate and adaptive immune cells that produce arterial vasodilation, vascular leakage and venous blood pooling. (p. 131)

60
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a major class of functional non-protein coding sequences found in the human genome?

A. Promotors B. Exons
C. Enhancers D. Telomeres

A

B. exons

61
Q

This cell organelle is the site of synthesis of all transmembrane proteins:
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Golgi apparatus C. Mitochondria
D. Proteasomes

A

A. Endoplasmic reticulum

62
Q

This cell organelle is the site of cellular waste disposal:
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Mitochondria
D. Proteasomes

A

D. Proteasomes

63
Q

These proteins drive the progression of the cell cycle:
A. Integrins
B. Cyclins
C. Cytokines
D. Glycoproteins

A

B. Cyclins

64
Q

These stem cells have limitless renewal capacity and can give rise to any cell type in the body:
A. Pluripotent stem cells
B. Multipotent stem cells
C. Totipotent stem
D. Tissue stem cells

A

C. Totipotent stem

65
Q

Which of the following is an example of pathologic hyperplasia?
A. Proliferation of glandular epithelium of the female breast during pregnancy
B. Proliferation of liver cells in individuals who donate one lobe for transplantation until the organ grows back to the original size.
C. Rapid proliferation of bone marrow in response to a deficiency of terminally differentiated blood
D. Benign prostatic proliferation in response to hormonal stimulation by androgens

A

D. Benign prostatic proliferation in response to hormonal stimulation by androgens

66
Q

Which of the following is not a cause of pathologic atrophy?
A. Diminished blood supply
B. Inadequate nutrition
C. Increased workload
D. Increased compression

A

C. Increased workload

67
Q

These two features of reversible cell injury can be recognized under the light microscope:
A. Cellular swelling and fatty change
B. Cellular shrinkage and increased eosinophilia
C. Cellular swelling and increased eosinophilia
D. Cellular shrinkage and fatty change

A

A. Cellular swelling and fatty change

68
Q

This pattern of necrosis preserves the architecture of the dead tissue for a span of at least some days resulting in a firm texture.
A. Fibrinoid necrosis
B. Caseous necrosis
C. Coagulative necrosis
D. Fat necrosis

A

C. Coagulative necrosis

69
Q

The presence of calcium deposition within areas of necrosis is known as:
A. Metastatic calcification
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Dystrophic calcification
D. Hyperplastic calcification

A

C. Dystrophic calcification

70
Q

Of the three major components of acute inflammation, the last to take place is:
A. Alterations in vascular caliber that lead to an increase in blood flow
B. Infiltration of mononuclear cells
C. Connective tissue replacement of damaged tissues
D. The accumulation of leukocytes at the focus of injury

A

D. The accumulation of leukocytes at the focus of injury

71
Q

This vasoactive peptide increases vascular permeability, causes contraction of smooth muscle, dilation of blood vessels and pain when injected into the skin.
A. Leukotriene B. Serotonin C. Bradykinin D. Histamine

A

C. Bradykinin

72
Q

This defect can be found of the surface of an organ or tissue and is produced by the sloughing of inflamed necrotic tissue.
A. Abscess
B. Granuloma
C. Keloid
D. Ulcer

A

D. Ulcer

73
Q

This special form of chronic inflammation is characterized by collections of activated macrophages, often with T lymphocytes, and sometimes associated with central necrosis.
A. Granulomatous inflammation
B. Serous inflammation
C. Fibrous inflammation
D. Suppurative Inflammation

A

A. Granulomatous inflammation

74
Q

In tissue repair, inadequate formation of granulation tissue or formation of a scar can lead to two types of complications: ____________ and ulceration.
A. Exuberant granulation
B. Keloid
C. Contraction
D. Wound dehiscence

A

D. Wound dehiscence

75
Q

Accumulations of fluid in body cavities due to disorders that perturb cardiovascular, renal or haptic function is known as:
A. Edema B. Effusion C. Exudate D. Embolism

A

B. Effusion

76
Q

Platelet adhesion to the endothelium is mediated largely via interactions with what molecule?
A. Prothrombin.B. Coagulation factor V
C. Von Willebrand factor D. Fibrinogen

A

C. Von Willebrand factor

77
Q

All of the following are primary abnormalities that lead to thrombosis EXCEPT:
A. Stasis or turbulent blood flow
B. Hypercoagulability of the blood
C. Endothelial injury
D. Increased hydrostatic pressure

A

D. Increased hydrostatic pressure

78
Q

Most systemic emboli arise from__________.
A. Aortic aneurysms
B. Intracardiac mural thrombi
C. Atherosclerotic plaques
D. Venous thrombi

A

B. Intracardiac mural thrombi

79
Q

__________ is the underlying cause of a vast majority of infarctions.
A. Hemorrhage into an atheromatous plaque
B. Vasospasm
C. Extrinsic vessel compression
D. Arterial thrombosis

A

D. Arterial thrombosis

80
Q

Which of the following is not a transmission pattern of single-gene disorders?
A. Autosomal recessive disorders
B. Autosomal dominant disorders
C. X-linked disorders
D. Non-disjunction disorders

A

D. Non-disjunction disorders

81
Q

This syndrome(s) results from an inherited defect in the extracellular glycoprotein, fibrillin, and is manifested principally by changes in the skeleton, eyes and cardiovascular system.
A. Achondroplasia
B. Ehlers-Danlos syndromes
C. Marfan syndrome
D. Alkaptonuria

A

C. Marfan syndrome

82
Q

This lysosomal storage disease is caused by a defect in cholesterol transport and resultant accumulation of cholesterol and gangliosides in the nervous system. Affected children most commonly exhibit ataxia, dysarthria and psychomotor regression.
A. Niemann-Pick Disease type C B. Tay-Sachs Disease
C. Niemann-Pick Disease type B D. Gaucher Disease

A

A. Niemann-Pick Disease type

83
Q

In ____________ , there are two or more X chromosomes with one Y chromosome as a result of nondisjunction of sex chromosomes.
A. Klinefelter syndrome B. Turner syndrome
C. Fragile X syndrome D. Edwards syndrome

A

A. Klinefelter syndrome

84
Q

This form of molecular analysis uses DNA probes that recognize sequences specific to particular chromosomal regions:
A. Fluorescence in Situ Hybridization
B. Southern Blotting
C. SNP Genotyping Arrays
D. Cytogenomic Array Technology

A

A. Fluorescence in Situ Hybridization