Chapters 4 - 12 Flashcards
(159 cards)
1
Q
the pancreas is located in what abdominal region?
a. right lumbar
b. left iliac
c. epigastric
d. hypogastric
A
C
2
Q
which plane passes through the neck of the pancreas and hilum of the kidneys?
a. subcostal
b. intertubercular
c. midinguinal
d. transpyloric
A
D.
3
Q
the membrane that covers an internal organ is known as the
a. mesothelium
b. visceral peritoneum
c. greater omentum
d. parietal peritoneum
A
B.
4
Q
the epiploic foramen is the opening between the:
A. right and left crus
B. greater and lesser curvature
C.g right margin of greater and lesser sac
D. inferior and superior inguinal canal
A
C
5
Q
the clinical significance of peritoneal recesses is:
A. fluid and infection may accumulate in the recesses
B. organs may be displaced into the recesses
C.gallstones may collect in the recesses
D. hydronephrosis may accumulate
A
A.
6
Q
which muscle is not related to the anterior abdominal wall
A. rectus abdominis
B. external oblique
C. quadratus lumborum
D. transversus
A
C.
7
Q
all of the following muscles make up the muscular “sling” in the inferior boundary of the true pelvis except the:
A. coccygeus
B. puborectalis
C. Levator Ani
D.iliacus
A
D.
8
Q
the space between the right lobe of the liver and the anterior right kidney and colic flexure is:
A. pouch of douglas
B. Morison’s pouch
C.periotoneal recess
D. rectouterine space
A
B
9
Q
Vital signs, which are medical measurements to ascertain how the body is functioning, may include all of the following except:
A. blood pressure.
B. pulse.
C. pulmonary function tests.
D.temperature.
A
C.
10
Q
Which one of the following structures divides the pelvic peritoneal space into the anterior and posterior pouches?
a. Bladder
b. Rectum
c. Uterus
d. Ovaries
A
C.
11
Q
Which of the following lies superior to the level of the caudate lobe on the transverse plane?
A
Splenic Artery
12
Q
Choose the definition of a sagittal plane.
A
A lengthwise plane running from front to back dividing the body or any of its parts into right and left sides, or two equal halves.
13
Q
Both the sagittal and coronal planes divide the body lengthwise. How does the coronal plane divide the body?
A
Front to back
14
Q
Computed tomography (CT) and ultrasound share terminology describing the body planes. Identify the plane that divides the body into upper and lower sections.
A
Transverse
15
Q
An image dividing the right kidney into anterior and posterior sections describes the:
A
Coronal plane
16
Q
Morison’s pouch is anterior to which organ?
A
Right kidney & posterior to the inferior right lobe of liver
17
Q
Where does the transverse plane divide the body into upper and lower sections.
A
On a horizontal plane
18
Q
The splenic artery , splenic vein & falciform ligament lie superior to the level of what
A
Caudate lobe
19
Q
choose the structure that divides at the level of aortic bifurcation
A
Common iliac arteries
20
Q
Morrison’s pouch is anterior to which organ?
A
Right kidney
21
Q
which of the following lies superior to the level of the caudate lobe on the transverse plane?
A
Splenic artery
22
Q
which of the following lies inferior to the level of the caudate lobe and the celiac axis of the transverse plane?
A
Renal arteries
23
Q
when imaging on the longitudinal plane at the level of the liver, inferior vena cava, pancreas and the gastroduodenal artery which of the following enters the left lobe of the liver?
A
Portal vein
24
Q
an image dividing the right kidney into anterior and posterior sections describes the:
A
Coronal plane
25
an echofree structure is described as:
a. echogenic.
b. sonolucent.
c. heterogeneous.
d. homogeneous.
B
26
Select the term that describes a diffuse disease process or metastatic disease.
a. Echogenic
b. Infiltrating
c. Homogeneous
d. Shadowing
B
27
Which of the following terms describes a simple cyst?
a. Echogenic
b. Isoechoic
c. Anechoic
d. Homogeneous
C
28
A dirty shadow is likely the result of:
a. air in the duodenum.
b. cholelithiasis.
c. nephrolithiasis.
d. reverberation artifact.
A
29
Increased brightness posterior to an anechoic structure is termed:
a. shadowing.
b. reverberation.
c. enhancement.
d. refraction.
C
30
Which of the following is the opposite of echogenic?
a. Isoechoic
b. Hypoechoic
c. Hyperechoic
d. Sonolucent
D
31
```
Heterogeneous describes this type of mass.
A. Normal thyroid
B. Gallstone
C. Simple cyst
D. Complex mass
```
D
32
Another term for sonolucent is:
a. Anechoic
b. Isoechoic
c. Hypoechoic
d. Homogeneous
A
33
The portal confluence is formed by the splenic vein and the ________________.
a. Inferior mesenteric vein
b. Portal vein
c. Hepatic vein
d. Superior mesenteric vein
D
34
. Which artery courses along the anterolateral border of the head of the pancreas?
a. Hepatic
b. Splenic
c. Cystic
d. Gastroduodenal
D
35
The transducer typically selected for an ultrasound examination of the thyroid is:
a. 8 to 12 MHz linear
b. 5 to 7 MHz curvilinear
c. 2.5 to 5 MHz curvilinear
d. 2.5 to 5 MHz linear
A
36
Which one of the following patient preparations is required before an abdominal ultrasound examination?
a. Drink 12 ounces of water 1 hour before the examination.
b. No preparation is needed.
c. Take nothing by mouth for 6 to 8 hours before the examination.
d. Take nothing by mouth for 4 to 6 hours before the examination.
C
37
Flow toward the transducer is ____
Positive and above baseline
38
Flow away from transducer is
Negative and below baseline
39
Specific indications for a pancreas ultrasound examination include all of the following except:
a. Abdominal pain
b. Abnormal laboratory values
c. Cholecystitis
d. Nephrolithiasis
D.
40
Which one of the following patient positions is best for imaging the spleen?
a. Prone
b. Right lateral decubitus
c. Semi-erect
d. Supine
B.
41
The texture of the spleen should be compared with that of the _____________.
a. Pancreas
b. Renal cortex
c. Liver
d. Renal hilum
C
42
In a transverse image of the lower pole of the kidney, the psoas muscle lies:
a. Medial
b. Lateral
c. Inferior
d. Anterior
A
43
In a traverse supine scans are oriented w/ the liver on left of monitor which means ___
Sonographie will view the body from feet up to head .
44
Axial and lateral resolutions are artifactual because:
a. Echoes originate only from the center of the beam.
b. Ultrasound pulse has a definite length and width in the scan plane.
c. Failure to resolve means a loss of detail.
d. Beam width is parallel to the scan plane.
C
45
The artifact that shows structures that exist on one side of a strong reflector as being present on the other side as well is known as:
a. Range ambiguity
b. Mirror image
c. Refraction
d. Speed error
B.
46
The reduction in echo amplitude from reflectors that lie behind a strongly reflecting or attenuating structure is:
a. Enhancement
b. Resonance
c. Comet tail
d. Shadowing
D
47
The strengthening of echoes from reflectors that lie behind a weak attenuating structure is:
a. Aliasing
b. Multiple reflection
c. Resonance
d. Enhancement
D
48
The improper representation of information that has been insufficiently sampled is known as:
a. Multiple reflection
b. Resonance
c. Aliasing
d. Enhancement
C.
49
The upper limit to the Doppler shift that can be properly detected by pulsed instruments is called:
a. Aliasing
b. Nyquist limit
c. Shadowing
d. Speed error
B
50
Artifacts caused by sonographic technique include all of the following except:
a. Noise
b. Banding
c. Side lobes
d. Breathing
C
51
The best example of a mirror image artifact is seen with the:
a. Gallbladder and cystic duct
b. Pancreas and duodenum
c. Uterus and fallopian tube
d. Diaphragm and liver
D
52
Which one of the following will reduce or eliminate aliasing?
a. Decreasing the Doppler angle
b. Decreasing the transducer frequency
c. Increasing the depth of the sample volume
d. Decreasing the pulse repetition frequency.
B
53
Refraction can cause a reflector that is:
a. Missing
b. Not real
c. Misplaced
d. Of improper brightness
C
54
Echoes resulting from grating lobes may be imaged if they fall within a(n) _________ region.
a. Complex
b. Anechoic
c. Echogenic
d. Hypoechoic
B
55
Which one of the following structures is most likely to demonstrate strong posterior shadowing?
a. Cyst
b. Air
c. Bone
d. Blood vessel
C
56
Increased intensity in the focal region of the sound beam is called focal ___________________.
a. Zones
b. Intensity
c. Banding
d. Intensity
C
57
. Shadowing is reduced with using:
a. Harmonics imaging
b. Pixel interpolation
c. Three-dimensional imaging
d. Spatial compounding
D
58
Which artifact is most commonly encountered in Doppler ultrasound?
a. Noise
b. Aliasing
c. Mirror image
d. Range ambiguity
B
59
Which one of the following eliminates aliasing using the “cut and paste” technique?
a. Shifting the baseline
b. Decreasing the Doppler angle
c. Increasing the transducer frequency
d. Increasing the pulse repetition frequency
A
60
. Which of the following solutions are common and convenient to aliasing?
a. Shifting the baseline and decreasing the pulse repetition frequency
b. Decreasing the pulse repetition frequency and increasing the depth of the sample gate
c. Shifting the baseline and increasing the pulse repetition frequency
d. Increasing the pulse repetition frequency and decreasing the depth of the sample gate
C
61
To decrease internally generated electronic noise in the Doppler signal, the sonographer should decrease the:
a. Doppler gain
b. Overall gain
c. Imaging depth
d. Transducer frequency
A
62
Reverberation artifact displays structures that are:
a. Not real
b. Misplaced
c. Improper in shape
d. Improper in brightness
A
63
Increasing the pulse repetition frequency increases the chances of displaying which one of the following artifacts?
a. Speckle
b. Aliasing
c. Mirror image
d. Range ambiguity
D
64
Cross-talk can produce which one of the following artifacts?
a. Noise
b. Aliasing
c. Mirror image
C
65
Refraction of the sound beam at a boundary may result in false sonographic ________________.
a. Brightness
b. Duplication
c. Shadowing
d. Enhancement
C
66
The portal veins carry blood from the ______________ to the liver.
a. Hepatic artery
b. Intestinal tract
c. Splenic artery
d. Peripheral venous system
B
67
The arterial supply to the gallbladder is via the:
a. Hepatic artery
b. Superior mesenteric artery
c. Cystic artery
d. Gastroduodenal artery
C
68
The portal venous system receives blood from all of the following except the:
a. Gallbladder
b. Pancreas
c. Spleen
d. Kidneys
D
69
What vessel passes anterior to the third part of the duodenum and posterior to the neck of the pancreas?
a. Superior mesenteric artery
b. Superior mesenteric vein
c. Inferior mesenteric vein
B
70
Which one of the following vessels passes anterior to the uncinate process of the pancreas?
a. Hepatic artery
b. Portal vein
c. Left renal vein
d. Superior mesenteric artery
D
71
The distribution of the superior mesenteric artery is to the:
a. Distal half of colon and the liver
b. Proximal half of colon and the small intestines
c. Small intestine and the proximal half of colon
d. Large intestine and the distal half of colon
B
72
Which one of the following veins begins at the hilum of the spleen and is joined by the short gastric and left gastroepiploic vein?
a. Pancreatic
b. Portal
c. Superior mesenteric
d. Splenic
D
73
The normal diameter of the aorta is less than ____millimeters (mm).
a. 2
b. 4
c. 10
d. 23
D
74
The inferior mesenteric artery distributes blood to the:
a. Left transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid, and rectum
b. Ascending colon, sigmoid, and rectum
c. Descending colon
d. Ascending colon and rectum
A
75
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
a. The portal vein enters the lesser omentum.
b. The portal vein is formed anterior to the pancreas.
c. The portal vein drains blood out of the gastrointestinal tract.
d. The portal vein has an anastomosis with the esophageal veins, rectal venous plexus, and superficial abdominal veins.
B
76
. Which one of the following vascular structures courses between the aorta and SMA?
a. Left renal vein
b. Celiac trunk
c. Gastroduodenal artery
A
77
The IVC courses anteriorly to enter the:
a. Right ventricle
b. Left atrium
c. Right coronary sinus
d. Right atrium
D
78
Which vascular structure is used as a landmark in locating the celiac trunk?
a. Common bile duct
b. Common hepatic artery
c. Superior mesenteric artery
d. Gastroduodenal artery
C
79
Which one of the following vascular structures relates to the medial and posterior borders or to the pancreatic body and tail?
a. Splenic artery
b. Hepatic artery
c. Superior mesenteric artery
d. Splenic vein
D
80
The most common cause of abdominal aneurysms is:
a. Cystic medial necrosis
b. Syphilis
c. Atheroma
d. Arteriosclerosis
D
81
Which one of the following statements is false for a patient with renal vein thrombosis?
a. Direct visualization of thrombi in the renal vein and IVC is possible.
b. Loss of normal renal structure occurs.
c. Renal size increases in the acute phase.
d. Doppler flow increases.
D
82
The clinical signs of leg edema, low back pain, pelvic pain, gastrointestinal complaints, and renal and liver problems may represent:
a. Abdominal rupture
b. Superior mesenteric thrombus
c. Retroperitoneal tumor
d. IVC thrombosis
D
83
The most common tumor to fill the IVC is:
a. Islet cell carcinoma
b. Renal cell carcinoma
c. Venous angioma
d. Nephroma
B
84
1. The liver is suspended from the diaphragm and anterior abdominal wall by the:
a. Ligamentum teres
b. Falciform ligament
c. Round ligament
d. Triangular ligament
B
85
Patients who have hepatocellular carcinoma are likely to have had:
a. Hemochromatosis
b. Adenosis
c. Cirrhosis
d. Carcinosis
C
86
The most common form of neoplastic involvement of the liver is:
a. Metastases
b. Hepatocellular carcinoma
c. Hepatoma
d. Hamartoma
A
87
. The fossae of the right portal vein (RPV) and gallbladder are found in the:
a. Main lobar fissure
b. Left intersegmental fissure
c. Right intersegmental fissure
d. Left lobar fissure
A
88
In severe hepatocellular destruction, the aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels are:
a. High
b. Moderately high
c. Moderate
d. Mild
A
89
Elevation of alkaline phosphatase is associated with:
a. Biliary obstruction
b. Cavernous hemangioma
c. Fatty infiltration
d. Simple hepatic cysts
A
90
. Diminished vascular structures within the liver parenchyma most likely represent:
a. Obstructive portal disease
b. Cirrhosis
c. Budd-Chiari syndrome
d. Acute viral hepatitis
B
91
The falciform ligament extends from the umbilicus to the diaphragm in a parasagittal plane containing the:
a. Ligamentum venosum
b. Ligamentum teres
c. Quadratus ligamentum
d. Ligamentum falciforme
B
92
Elevation of serum bilirubin results in:
a. Hepatocellular disease
b. Ascites
c. Jaundice
d. Hemolysis
C
93
Typical symptoms a patient may have with an abscess formation include all of the following except:
a. Fever
b. Decreased white blood count
c. Pain
d. Increased white blood count
B
94
Which one of the following tumors consists of large blood-filled spaces?
a. Adenoma
b. Hamartoma
c. Ewing angioma
d. Cavernous hemangioma
D
95
Dilated intrahepatic bile ducts may be seen with all of the following except:
a. Intrahepatic mass in the area of the porta hepatis
b. Gallstones in the fundus of the gallbladder
c. Obstructive stone in the cystic duct
d. Lymphadenopathy in the porta hepatis
B
96
Hepatocellular disease can be defined as a process that affects the:
a. Spherocytes and interferes with liver function
b. Phagocytes and does not interfere with liver function
c. Phagocytes and interferes with liver function
d. Hepatocytes and interferes with liver function
D
97
In glycogen storage disease, type I is the most common and is also known as __________ disease
a. von Gierke
b. von Gussel
c. von Gerpe
d. von Slurpie
A
98
All of the following describe normal portal venous flow except:
a. Low-flow velocity
b. Hepatofugal flow
c. Spontaneous flow
d. Phasic flow
B
99
Which one of the following is noted in type I glycogen storage disease?
a. Small liver and hypoechoic parenchyma
b. Hyperechoic liver and hepatomegaly
c. Normal texture and hepatomegaly
d. Normal texture and prominent intrahepatic biliary ducts
B
100
The most common site for echinococcal virus growth is in the:
a. Lungs
b. Bones
c. Liver
d. Brain
C
101
What benign liver tumor is located near the free edge of the liver, solitary, well-circumscribed, and a nonencapsulated multinodular mass?
a. Adenoma
b. Cavernous hemangioma
c. Focal nodular hyperplasia (FHN)
d. Lipoma
C
102
. Common malignancies affecting the pediatric population include all of the following except:
a. Neuroblastoma
b. Wilms tumor
c. Leukemia
d. Hepatoblastoma
D
103
The hepatic duct is joined by the ___________ to form the ___________ .
a. Pancreatic duct; cystic duct
b. Cystic duct; common bile duct
c. Common bile duct; cystic duct
d. Right hepatic duct; common bile duct
C
104
The right and left hepatic ducts emerge from the right lobe of the liver in the porta hepatis and unite to form the:
a. Common hepatic duct
b. Cystic duct
c. Common bile duct
A
105
The diameter of the common hepatic duct is approximately ________ millimeters (mm).
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
C
106
In a 60-year-old adult, the normal common bile duct should not measure more than _____ mm.
a. 5
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
B
107
The distal duct lies ___________ with the anterior wall of the inferior vena cava (IVC).
a. Parallel
b. Perpendicular
c. Lateral
d. Horizontal
A
108
A Phrygian cap of the gallbladder is:
a. Partial septation
b. Calcification of the gallbladder wall
c. Septations within the organ
d. Folding of the fundus
D
109
Which one of the following is a function of the gallbladder?
a. Storage for extra cholesterol
b. Storage for enzymes
c. Reservoir for bile
d. Reservoir for biliary salts
C
110
. A gallbladder that folds near the area of the neck is called:
a. Murphy pouch
b. Phyrgian cap
c. Hartmann pouch
d. Murphy sign
C
111
Gas-forming bacteria in the gallbladder appear on ultrasound as:
a. Dilated round shape
b. Nonshadowing echogenic mass
c. Localized dilation
d. Bright echo with a comet tail artifact
D
112
A positive Murphy sign is a clinical finding associated with:
a. Cholelithiasis
b. Cholecystitis
c. Porcelain gallbladder
d. Adenomyomatosis
B
113
. Classic symptoms of gallbladder disease include all of the following except:
a. Hematuria
b. Right upper quadrant pain
c. Right shoulder pain
d. Nausea and vomiting
A
114
Thickening of the gallbladder wall may be caused by all of the following except:
a. Hepatitis
b. Pancreatitis
c. Adenomyomatosis
d. Cholecystitis
B
115
Which one of the following describes the most common sonographic appearance of gallbladder carcinoma?
a. “Comet tail” shadowing posterior to a hypoechoic focus
b. Irregular echogenic mass projecting from the gallbladder wall
c. Shadowing posterior to mobile echogenic mass
d. Comet tail shadowing posterior to a hyperechoic focus
B
116
The common bile duct is joined by the main pancreatic duct. Together they open through the _____ into the duodenal wall.
a. Ampulla of Oddi
b. Ampulla of Water
c. Ampulla of Vater
d. Ampulla of Santorini
C
117
. Inflammation of the gallbladder is:
a. Cholecystitis
b. Choledocholithiasis
c. Cholesterosis
d. Adenomyomatosis
A
118
. A condition causing RUQ pain in which small polypoid masses arise from the gallbladder wall is:
a. Choledocholithiasis
b. Cholesterosis
c. Adenomyomatosis
d. Pruritus
C
119
The sonographic appearance of cholelithiasis is best described as:
a. Nonshadowing mobile hyperechoic focus
b. Mobile, hyperechoic focus demonstrating posterior shadowing
c. Immobile, echogenic focus demonstrating a comet tail artifact
d. Mobile, hypoechoic focus demonstrating posterior shadowing.
B
120
. All of the following sonographic appearances are found in cases of gallbladder carcinoma except:
a. Sludge
b. Wall thickening
c. Cholelithiasis
d. Intraluminal wall mass
A
121
The physiologic effect of a fatty meal includes all of the following except:
a. Stimulation of cholecystokinin (CCK)
b. Contraction of the gallbladder
c. Decrease bile flow to the liver
d. Relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi
C
122
Air within the biliary tree, secondary to common bile duct stents, is called:
a. Pneumobilia
b. Hemobilia
c. Pneumothorax
d. Cholangitis
A
123
The most common tumor sites that can spread carcinoma to the biliary tree include all of the following except the:
a. Colon
b. Breast
c. Melanoma
d. Kidney
D
124
Which one of the following statements about the spleen is false?
a. The spleen lies inferior to the diaphragm.
b. The normal adult spleen measures approximately 7 cm in width.
c. The spleen is located within the retroperitoneum.
d. The spleen lies in the posterior to the hypochondrium.
C
125
Lymph nodes emerge from the splenic hilum and course along the:
a. Renal vein
b. Splenic artery
c. Renal artery
d. Splenic vein
B
126
Splenomegaly may result from all of the following except:
a. Trauma
b. Congestion
c. Subphrenic abscess
d. Collagen vascular disease
C
127
An abnormal decrease in platelets may be the result of a(n):
a. Infection
b. Bone marrow disorder
c. Internal hemorrhage
d. Allergic reaction
C
128
In the early stages of sickle cell anemia, the spleen generally appears:
a. Atrophied
b. Heterogeneous
c. Enlarged
d. Hyperechoic
C
129
Which one of the following statements describes the correct anatomic location of structures adjacent to the spleen?
a. The diaphragm is anterior, lateral, and inferior to the spleen.
b. The fundus of the stomach and lesser sac are medial and posterior to the splenic hilum.
c. The left kidney lies inferior and medial to the spleen.
d. The right adrenal and kidney lie superior to the spleen.
C
130
The spleen is variable in size and is considered to be all of the following except:
a. Tetrahedral
b. Pentagonal
c. Triangular
d. Orange segment
B
131
When accessory spleens are present, they are usually located:
a. At the inferior margin of the spleen
b. On the posterior aspect of the spleen
c. Near the hilum of the spleen
d. Near the kidney
C
132
The spleen has two components joined at the hilum; they are the ______________ and ______________ components.
a. Anterior; posterior
b. Superomedial; inferolateral
c. Superior; inferior
d. Superolateral; inferomedial
B
133
. Primary tumors that may metastasize to the spleen originate from all of the following structures except:
a. Kidney
b. Ovary
c. Stomach
d. Brain
D
134
. The best patient position to evaluate the spleen is:
a. Supine
b. Left lateral decubitus
c. Left posterior oblique
d. Right decubitus
D
135
Other areas that should be examined when ruling out a splenic rupture include all of the following except:
a. Liver and lesser sac
b. Pericardium
c. Pelvis
d. Renal gutter
B
136
What sonographic signs are present in the patient with histoplasmosis?
a. Atrophy
b. Cystic masses
c. Adenomas
d. Bright echoes
D
137
Which one of the following symptoms is the most symptom in patients with a splenic hamartoma?
a. Asymptomatic
b. Epigastric pain
c. Abdominal pain
d. Right upper quadrant pain.
A
138
A spleen that has migrated from its normal location is termed:
a. Accessory spleen
b. Wandering spleen
c. Ectopic spleen
d. Splenomegaly
B
139
Atrophy of the spleen may be found in all of the following except:
a. Normal individuals
b. Wasting diseases
c. Sickle cell anemia
d. Cirrhosis
D
140
Massive splenomegaly is most likely the result of:
a. Infection
b. Leukemia
c. Myelofibrosis
d. Portal hypertension
C
141
1. The majority of the pancreas lies within which abdominal cavity?
a. Perineum
b. Intraperitoneum
c. Retroperitoneum
d. Pericardium
C
142
Which one of the following statements is false?
a. The head of the pancreas is anterior to the inferior vena cava (IVC).
b. The head of the pancreas is superior to the caudate lobe.
c. The uncinate process is posterior to the superior mesenteric vessels.
d. The gastroduodenal artery is the anterolateral border of the head.
B
143
5. The head of the pancreas is inferior to the _____________ of the liver:
a. Right lobe
b. Caudate lobe
c. Right lateral fissure
d. Left lateral fissure
B
144
6. The ___________ passes through a groove posterior to the pancreatic head.
a. Common bile duct
b. Gastroduodenal artery
c. Hepatic duct
d. Superior mesenteric vein
A
145
7. Which one of the following structures is located in the anterolateral border of the pancreas?
a. Common bile duct
b. Gastroduodenal artery
c. Hepatic duct
d. Superior mesenteric vein
B
146
The primary pancreatic duct is the duct of ______________.
a. Santorini
b. Ampulla
c. Vater
d. Wirsung
D
147
An older man with a history of alcoholism is recently diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. His hematocrit and hypotension levels are decreased. Your differential diagnosis includes:
a. Hemorrhagic pancreatitis
b. Cholecystitis
c. Pseudocyst
d. Chronic pancreatitis
A
148
Which one of the following veins courses in a sagittal plane and passes posterior to the neck of the pancreas?
a. Splenic
b. Superior mesenteric
c. Inferior mesenteric
d. Main portal
B
149
A patient with painless jaundice, weight loss, and a decrease in appetite should be evaluated for:
a. Cholecystitis
b. Adenocarcinoma of the pancreas
c. Pancreatitis
d. Pancreatic pseudocyst
B
150
The normal dimension of the pancreatic head is usually less than ___________.
a. 3 mm
b. 2 cm
c. 2.4 cm
d. 1 cm
B
151
A serum _____ level of twice normal usually indicates acute pancreatitis.
a. lipase
b. amylase
c. alkaline phosphatase
d. aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
D
152
The splenic vein courses along the ____________________ of the pancreas.
a. Anterior border
b. Along the superior border
c. Posteromedial border
d. Inferior posterior borde
C
153
The main pancreatic duct joins the __________ before entering the second part of the duodenum.
a. Common bile duct
b. Duct of Santolina
c. Cystic duct
d. Accessory duct
A
154
Clinical signs and symptoms in acute pancreatitis include all of the following except:
a. Severe abdominal pain radiating to the back
b. Severe abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder
c. Elevated amylase
d. Nausea and vomiting
B
155
A most common cause of acute pancreatitis in the United States is:
a. Colitis
b. Alcohol intake
c. Biliary tract disease
d. Pancreatic malignanc
C
156
The persistence of the dorsal and ventral pancreas with the head encircling the duodenum is called:
a. Hypoplasia
b. Cystic fibrosis
c. Agenesis
d. Annular pancreas
D
157
Gallstones are present in 40% to 60% of patients with:
a. Chronic pancreatitis
b. Annular pancreas
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Acute pancreatitis
D
158
A common course of enzyme destruction via the pancreas is the accumulation in the:
a. Greater omentum
b. Lesser omentum
c. Lesser sac
C
159
In cases of acute pancreatitis, the parenchyma of the pancreas generally appears:
a. Homogeneous
b. Echogenic
c. Calcified
d. Hypoechoic
D
