charts Flashcards
1
Q
A
2
Q
What is Brucella canis?
A
Intracellular, G-, nonspore forming aerobic coccobacillus
Brucella canis is a zoonotic pathogen that can be transmitted venereally, orally, through milk, or aerosol.
3
Q
How does Brucella canis replicate in the host?
A
Replicates in lymph nodes leading to bacteremia in 7-30 days
It survives in macrophages and monocytes, evading the immune response.
4
Q
What are the reproductive signs associated with Brucella canis infection?
A
- Epididymitis
- Orchitis
- Scrotal dermatitis
- Deterioration of semen quality
- Abortion (late-term)
These signs indicate the impact on reproductive health in infected animals.
5
Q
What systemic signs can occur due to Brucella canis?
A
- Uveitis
- Splenitis
- Diskospondylitis
- Lymphadenopathy
- Nephritis
These systemic manifestations can lead to severe health issues.
6
Q
What is the gold standard test for diagnosing Brucella canis?
A
Blood culture
While it’s the gold standard, blood culture can be difficult to perform.
7
Q
How long does it take for serology to become positive in Brucella canis infections?
A
8 to 12 weeks
Positive serology indicates an immune response to the infection.
8
Q
What screening tests are used for Brucella canis?
A
- Rapid slide agglutination test (RSAT)
- Agar gel immunodiffusion (AGID)
Two negative tests are required before introducing animals into a breeding colony.
9
Q
What is the recommended treatment for Brucella canis?
A
Doxycycline (4-8 weeks) plus streptomycin or gentamicin (for the first 1-2 weeks)
This combination provides the best chance for a cure.
10
Q
What is the zoonotic disease caused by Leptospira?
A
Leptospirosis
It affects the liver (Icterohemorrhagic) and kidneys (Canicola).
11
Q
What are the common serovars of Leptospira that cause disease?
A
- Grippo
- Pomona
- Autumnalis
- Bratislava
These serovars are differentiated by LPS O antigen type.
12
Q
What is the incubation period for Leptospirosis?
A
7 days
The peak transmission period is July to December.
13
Q
What are the clinical signs of Leptospirosis?
A
- Fever
- Anorexia
- Vomiting
- Uveitis
- Anemia
- Low platelets
- Azotemia
- Isosthenuria
- Glucosuria
These signs can vary in severity and presentation.
14
Q
What is the diagnostic test for Leptospirosis?
A
MAT serology test with paired titer
The vaccine can cross-react in serology tests.
15
Q
What is the treatment for Leptospirosis?
A
Ampicillin or doxycycline
Doxycycline clears all phases of the disease.
16
Q
What is Bartonella vinsonii spp. Berkhoffi?
A
Gram negative bacteria, fastidious, curved, intracellular
It is transmitted by Rhipicephalus ticks and can cause infective endocarditis.
17
Q
What are the clinical signs associated with Bartonella infections?
A
- Infective endocarditis
- Granulomatous lymphadenopathy
- Hepatic disease
These signs reflect the systemic impact of the infection.
18
Q
What is the treatment for Bartonella infections?
A
Doxycycline, erythromycin, or rifampin for 2 weeks
These antibiotics are used to manage the infection.
19
Q
What is Mycoplasma haemocanis?
A
Non-acid fast, epicellular parasite of RBC
It is associated with extravascular hemolysis.
20
Q
What diagnostic methods are used for Mycoplasma infections?
A
- PCR
- Blood smear
A blood smear may show the organism in 50% of cases.
21
Q
What is Anaplasma phagocytophilum?
A
Gram negative intracellular cocci
It is primarily transmitted by Ixodes ticks.
22
Q
What are the clinical signs of Anaplasma phagocytophilum infection?
A
- Mild to moderate decrease in platelets
- Lethargy
- Fever
Signs can be vague or absent.
23
Q
What is the treatment for Anaplasma phagocytophilum?
A
Doxycycline
Treatment is effective in managing the infection.
24
Q
What is Chlamydia psittaci?
A
Intracellular bacteria that replicates in respiratory tract epithelium
It can cause conjunctivitis and mild respiratory infections.
25
What is Nocardia asteroides?
Aerobic, gram positive and weak acid-fast bacterium
## Footnote
Nocardia can cause pulmonary or cutaneous infections.
26
What is the life cycle of Giardia lamblia?
Cysts are ingested, releasing flagellated tachyzoites into the GI tract
## Footnote
This organism is an enteric protozoan that can cause diarrhea.
27
What are the common clinical signs of Giardia infections?
Small bowel diarrhea
## Footnote
Infection is usually self-limiting.
28
What is the treatment for Giardia infections?
* Fenbendazole
* Metronidazole
## Footnote
These medications are effective in clearing the infection.
29
What is Leishmania donovani infantum?
Protozoal intracellular parasite transmitted by sandflies
## Footnote
It can cause systemic disease with severe symptoms.
30
What are the clinical signs of Leishmania donovani infection?
* Alopecia
* Nonpruritic skin lesions
* Renal failure
## Footnote
These signs can lead to chronic wasting in infected dogs.
31
What is the treatment for Leishmania infections?
* Sodium stibogluconate (Pentostam)
* Allopurinol
## Footnote
Treatment may require combination therapy for effectiveness.
32
What is Trypanosoma cruzi?
Protozoal extracellular parasite transmitted by kissing bugs
## Footnote
It can cause acute myocarditis and lead to dilated cardiomyopathy.
33
What are the diagnostic methods for Trypanosoma cruzi?
* Trypomastigotes on blood smear
* Antibody titers
## Footnote
These methods help confirm infection.
34
What is Cryptosporidium?
Coccidian protozoan that can cause enteritis
## Footnote
It has a zoonotic potential, especially in immunocompromised individuals.
35
What are the clinical signs of Isospora infection?
* Watery diarrhea
* Abdominal pain
## Footnote
Isospora infections are usually self-limiting in healthy animals.
36
What is Toxoplasmosis?
Obligate intracellular coccidian protozoan
## Footnote
Cats are the definitive host, and it can cause various signs in dogs.
37
What are the diagnostic tests for Toxoplasmosis?
* IgM, IgG paired in 3 weeks
* Cytology for tachyzoites
## Footnote
These tests help identify infection.
38
What is Neospora caninum?
Protozoal coccidian affecting dogs and coyotes
## Footnote
It can cause neurological signs in puppies and young dogs.
39
What are bradyzoites?
Bradyzoites are found in tissue, including the placenta.
40
How long does it take for shed oocysts in feces to become infective?
24 hours.
41
What condition is characterized by ascending paralysis and gradual muscle atrophy in puppies and young dogs?
Lower motor neuron (LMN) paralysis.
42
What clinical signs are observed in older dogs infected with Toxoplasma?
Seizures, tremors, polymyositis, and potential organ involvement.
43
What diagnostic test may visualize tachyzoites in the CSF?
CSF cytology.
44
What treatment is often required for Toxoplasma infection?
Clindamycin for over 8 weeks.
45
What is the primary method to confirm the diagnosis of Toxoplasma if tachyzoites are seen?
PCR.
46
What is the common vector for Hepatozoon americanum?
Amblyomma maculatum (gulf coast tick).
47
What is a key characteristic of Cytauxzoon felis infection in cats?
It is fatal.
48
What type of organism is Pneumocystis carinii?
A fungus that acts like a protozoal pathogen.
49
What is the primary treatment for Blastomyces dermatitidis infection?
Itraconazole.
50
What are the clinical signs of Histoplasma capsulatum infection in dogs?
GI signs, weight loss, depression, large bowel diarrhea.
51
What diagnostic test is most sensitive for Babesia infections?
PCR.
52
Fill in the blank: Pythium insidiosum is more like a ______ than a true fungus.
alga.
53
Which dermatophyte is known to be zoonotic, especially to immunocompromised humans?
Microsporum canis.
54
What is the incubation period for dermatophytosis?
1-3 weeks.
55
What clinical sign is characteristic of dermatophytosis?
Alopecia in the center with a hyperemic ring.
56
What is the treatment approach for Cryptococcus neoformans infection in dogs?
Amphotericin B plus Fluconazole.
57
What is the primary diagnostic method for Coccidioides immitis infection?
Paired serology.
58
True or False: Theleria annae is commonly found in the US.
True.
59
What does the presence of piroplasms in RBCs indicate?
Babesia infection.
60
What is the treatment for Hepatozoon canis?
Imidocarb SQ or IM every 2 weeks until no more gamonts are seen.
61
What is the expected response time for treatment of Babesia infections?
Should respond within 1 week.
62
What is the common vector for Hepatozoon canis?
Rhipicephalus (brown dog tick).
63
What is the primary method of diagnosing Sarcocystis neurona infections?
Serology, tissue-PCR, histo, IHC.
64
What are the characteristic lesions associated with Blastomyces dermatitidis?
Granulomatous lesions in the lungs, lymph nodes, eyes, skin, bone, and CNS.
65
What is a common finding in the blood of cats infected with Cytauxzoon felis?
Anemia and DIC.
66
What is the treatment for severe cases of Coccidioides immitis infection?
Fluconazole plus Amphotericin B.
67
What is the incubation period for Histoplasma capsulatum?
12-14 days.
68
What diagnostic test is used for identifying Cryptococcus neoformans?
Capsular antigen titer.
69
What is the treatment for dogs infected with Dermatophytosis?
Topical antifungal therapy and environmental decontamination.
70
What is a common sign of Aspergillus fumigatus infection?
Chronic nasal discharge.
71
What is the prognosis for dogs with systemic Aspergillus infections?
Poor prognosis.
72
What is the primary diagnostic method for Pythium insidiosum?
Histopathology and IHC.
73
What is Microsporum gypseum?
A keratinophilic fungus that can cause dermatophyte infections in animals
## Footnote
It is known for surviving over one year in the environment.
74
How is Microsporum gypseum transmitted?
By direct contact with infected hair, scales, or fomites
75
What is the incubation period for Microsporum gypseum?
1-3 weeks
76
In which type of animals is Microsporum gypseum more common?
Immunocompromised animals, such as those with Cushing's disease
77
What clinical signs are associated with Microsporum gypseum infection?
Alopecia in the center with a hyperemic ring, primarily affecting the face, distal limbs, and tail
78
What is the gold standard for diagnosing Microsporum gypseum?
Fungal culture of 10-12 hairs
79
What treatment is recommended for Microsporum gypseum?
Lime sulfur topical treatment and Itraconazole
80
What is Prototheca zopfi?
A protozoan that can cause systemic disease in dogs
81
What are the clinical signs of Prototheca wickerhamii infection in cats?
Localized cutaneous lesions that are deep
82
What are the signs of systemic disease caused by Prototheca species in dogs?
Hemorrhagic diarrhea, ocular changes, weight loss, and neurological signs
83
What is the main reservoir for the Feline Immunodeficiency Virus (FIV)?
Macrophages
84
What is the mean age for diagnosis of FIV?
5 years
85
What are common clinical signs of FIV infection?
Gingivostomatitis, conjunctivitis, diarrhea, fever, wasting, and lymphoma
86
What test is used to screen for FIV?
ELISA (Antibody test)
87
What is the confirmatory test for FIV?
Western Blot for antibodies
88
What is the treatment for FIV?
AZT/Zidovudine, lactoferrin, and supportive care
89
What is the primary transmission route for Feline Leukemia Virus (FeLV)?
Horizontal transmission through mutual grooming and saliva
90
What is the main clinical sign associated with FeLV subtype C?
Non-regenerative anemia
91
What test is used for early detection of FeLV?
ELISA for soluble p27 core protein antigen
92
What vaccine is available for FIV?
Vaccine is available for subtype A&D, with controversy due to inability to distinguish vaccinated from infected cats
93
What are the clinical signs of Calicivirus infection in cats?
URI, oral ulcers, esophagitis, lameness, and highly virulent forms can cause severe disease
94
What is the treatment for Calicivirus infection?
Supportive care and antibiotics
95
What is the primary clinical sign of Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis (FHV-1)?
Acute cytolysis of respiratory and ocular epithelium
96
What is the treatment for FHV-1?
Antibiotics and lysine
97
What is the prognosis for Feline Infectious Peritonitis (FIP)?
Near 100% fatal with clinical signs
98
What is the primary clinical sign of Canine Influenza?
Cough and potential bronchopneumonia
99
What is the agent responsible for Rabies?
Lyssavirus
100
What are the stages of clinical signs for Rabies?
Prodromal, furious, and paralytic stages
101
What test is used for diagnosing Rabies postmortem?
DFA test of nervous tissue
102
What are the clinical signs of Distemper Virus infection?
Fever, vomiting, diarrhea, CNS signs, and hyperkeratosis
103
What does the Feline Panleukopenia virus primarily affect?
Dividing cells
104
What is the treatment for Feline Panleukopenia?
Hydration and supportive care
105
What is the primary transmission route for Canine Parvovirus?
Fecal-oral
106
What are the clinical signs of Aujeszky’s disease in pigs?
Hypersalivation, dyspnea, fever, vomiting, CNS signs
107
What is Borrelia burgdorferi associated with?
Lyme disease
108
What is the treatment for Lyme disease?
Doxycycline for 4 weeks
109
What is the incubation period for Ehrlichia canis?
1-3 weeks
110
What is the primary clinical sign of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF)?
Fever, lethargy, and vasculitis
111
What is the treatment for Neorickettsia helminthoeca infection?
Doxycycline and praziquantel
112
What is Dirofilaria immitis commonly known as?
Heartworm
113
What is the life cycle of Dirofilaria immitis?
Transmitted by mosquitoes, with an average PPP of 6-7 months
114
What is the primary organism responsible for heartworm disease?
Dirofilaria immitus
## Footnote
Heartworm disease is a serious condition in dogs and cats caused by this parasite.
115
What is the typical life cycle of Dirofilaria immitus?
L1 to L3 in mosquito; PPP 6-7 months
## Footnote
The life cycle involves a mosquito as a vector.
116
What are the primary clinical signs of heartworm disease in dogs?
* Class 1: asymptomatic
* Class 2: cough, exercise intolerance, pulmonary changes
* Class 3: cachexia, syncope, ascites, CHF
## Footnote
Clinical signs vary based on the severity of the disease.
117
What is a common diagnostic test for heartworm disease?
Knott’s test
## Footnote
This test helps identify microfilaria in the blood.
118
What is the treatment for heartworm disease in dogs?
* Adulticide: Melarsomine
* Larvicide: milbemycin, ivermectin
## Footnote
Treatment schedules may vary and can be controversial in cats.
119
What is Wolbachia in relation to heartworms?
Rickettsial bacteria harbored within Dirofilaria
## Footnote
Wolbachia has a symbiotic relationship with heartworms and contributes to inflammation.
120
What is the recommended treatment with doxycycline prior to adulticide treatment for heartworm?
30 days
## Footnote
Doxycycline is used to target Wolbachia before administering adulticide.
121
What is Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?
Feline lungworm
## Footnote
It is a nematode with a life cycle involving snails or slugs as intermediate hosts.
122
What are the clinical signs of Aelurostrongylus abstrusus infection?
* Bronchiolitis
* Pneumonia
* Thick pulmonary arteries
## Footnote
These signs are associated with respiratory distress in cats.
123
What is the treatment for Aelurostrongylus abstrusus?
* Fenbendazole
* Selamectin
## Footnote
Corticosteroids may also be used to manage inflammation.
124
What is the life cycle of Capillaria aerophilia?
Direct life cycle with earthworms as transport hosts
## Footnote
This nematode infects dogs, cats, and foxes.
125
What are common respiratory pathogens in cats?
* Chlamydophila
* Mycoplasma
* Bordatella
## Footnote
These pathogens are often involved in feline respiratory disease.
126
What is the primary cause of botulism?
C. botulinum toxin
## Footnote
This toxin leads to flaccid paralysis by preventing acetylcholine release.
127
What are the clinical signs of cyanide poisoning?
* Apnea
* Seizures
* Death
## Footnote
Cyanide poisoning impairs cellular metabolism.
128
What is the treatment for cyanide poisoning?
* Sodium nitrite
* Sodium thiosulfate
## Footnote
These treatments work by forming methemoglobin and aiding in detoxification.
129
What is the main pathogenic mechanism of tetanus?
Interference with GABA and glycine release
## Footnote
This results in sustained muscle contractions.
130
What are the clinical signs of tick paralysis?
* Flaccid paralysis
* Reflex loss
* CN signs
## Footnote
Tick paralysis is caused by a neurotoxin in tick saliva.
131
What is the primary organism responsible for blastomycosis?
Blastomyces dermatitidis
## Footnote
This fungus is typically found in sandy, acidic soil.
132
What are the common diagnostic methods for histoplasmosis?
* Cytology/histopath
* PCR
* Serology (unreliable)
## Footnote
Histoplasmosis is often diagnosed by examining tissue samples.
133
What is the primary treatment for cryptococcosis?
* Amphotericin B
* Fluconazole
## Footnote
Treatment may vary based on CNS involvement.
134
What is the mechanism of action of polyenes?
Bind ergosterol leading to cell leakage
## Footnote
Polyenes are antifungal agents with a broad spectrum.
135
What is the role of azoles in antifungal therapy?
Inhibit cytochrome P450, affecting ergosterol synthesis
## Footnote
Azoles are commonly used antifungal medications.
136
What is the significance of monitoring liver enzymes in animals treated with azoles?
Potential hepatotoxicity
## Footnote
Monthly monitoring is recommended due to risks associated with these medications.
137
What is the primary antifungal treatment for dermatophytes?
Terbinafine (Lamisil)
## Footnote
This drug concentrates in skin and hair.
138
What is the treatment for whipworm (Trichuris vulpis) infection?
* Fenbendazole
* Praziquantel
## Footnote
Whipworm eggs are resistant to environmental conditions.
139
What type of reactions are associated with Urticarial reactions in animals?
Limited knowledge in animals.
## Footnote
Urticarial reactions are skin reactions that can occur in response to allergens or irritants.
140
What is Flucytosine converted to in fungal cells?
5-FU (DNA damage) in fungal cells only.
## Footnote
Flucytosine is an antimetabolite used primarily against specific fungal infections.
141
Which species are primarily affected by Flucytosine?
Cryptococcus and Candida only.
## Footnote
Cats are particularly sensitive, while dogs can experience severe drug eruption rashes.
142
What is the effect of fatty foods on antifungal absorption?
Fatty Foods improve absorption of anti-fungals.
## Footnote
It is advised not to use antifungals in pregnant animals.
143
What is the sensitivity percentage of Histoplasma antigen detection using ELISA/EIA?
89% sensitivity.
## Footnote
Urine tests are more sensitive than serum for Histoplasma detection.
144
What is the specificity percentage of Histoplasma antigen detection using ELISA/EIA?
100% specificity.
## Footnote
Antigen levels are typically undetectable with therapy.
145
What is the sensitivity percentage of Blastomyces antigen detection during clinical disease?
100% sensitivity (90% serum).
## Footnote
The specificity is 95%.
146
What does the immunodiffusion test detect for Coccidiodes?
Antibodies to the TP (tube precipitin test-IgM) antigen.
## Footnote
These antibodies are typically detectable within 4 weeks of primary infection onset.
147
What are common clinical signs of Canine Distemper?
Listlessness, decreased appetite, fever, and URI.
## Footnote
Systemic signs vary depending on the virulence of the virus strain and host factors.
148
What are the two glycoproteins in the Canine Distemper Virus structure?
Glycoprotein H and Glycoprotein F.
## Footnote
These proteins play roles in attachment and fusion of the virus.
149
How does CDV affect the immune response?
Inhibits IFN and cytokine response of lymphoid cells via P gene expression.
## Footnote
This leads to increased susceptibility to secondary infections.
150
What are the typical clinical signs of severe generalized distemper?
Fever, conjunctivitis, dry cough, depression, anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea.
## Footnote
Severe cases often occur in unvaccinated puppies.
151
What is a common laboratory finding in dogs with CDV?
Absolute lymphopenia and thrombocytopenia/regenerative anemia.
## Footnote
These findings are indicative of lymphoid depletion and immune response suppression.
152
What is the significance of the glycoprotein SLAM in CDV infection?
It is a receptor for morbilliviruses expressed on immune cells.
## Footnote
Virulent CDV binds to SLAM, affecting immune response.
153
What percentage of CDV infections are subclinical?
>50% of CDV infections are subclinical.
## Footnote
Many infections go unnoticed, especially in vaccinated populations.
154
What are the common neurological signs associated with CDV?
Seizures, hyperesthesia, paraparesis, and myoclonus.
## Footnote
These signs often develop 1-3 weeks after recovery from systemic illness.
155
What is the preferred method for diagnosing CDV?
Practical diagnosis is based on clinical suspicion and characteristic history.
## Footnote
Unvaccinated puppies with respiratory signs are often suspected cases.
156
What are the effects of transplacental infection with CDV on puppies?
Abortion, stillborn, or birth of weak puppies.
## Footnote
Infected puppies may also have permanent immunodeficiencies.
157
Actinomyces
Gram-positive filamentous rods, acid-fast-stain negative
158
Bacteroides fragilis
Thin, Gram-negative rods
159
Campylobacer spp
Gram-negative spirochete that has a “gull-wing” shape
160
Clostridium
Gram-negative spirochete that has a “gull-wing” shape
161
Enterobacterales
Gram-negative rods
162
Escherichia coli
Gram-negative rods
163
Listeria
Gram positive rods
164
Mcyobacterium
Acid-fast positive, may stain weakly Gram-positive
165
Nocardia
Gram-positive filamentous rods, partial acid-fast positive
166
Staphylococcus
gram positive cocci
167
streptococcus
Gram-positive cocci, may be in chains
168
Core vaccines Feline
- FPV, FCV, FHV-1 )MLv or inactivated (parenteral), Rabies
-Core when dz prev: Rabies, FeLV
169
Core vaccines canine
- CDV, CPV, CAV, MLV or recombinant, rabies
- Core when dz prev (rabies, lepto)
170
Lepto vaccine (quadrivalent)
Grippotyphosa, Pomona, Bratislava, and/or Australis, Canicola and Icterohaemorrhagiae
171
Lpto vaccine divalent
Canicola and Icterohaemorrhagiae
172
Presence materal antibodies
Dog -8-12wks
kittens 17-20wks
