Chem Path 6 - Metabolic Disorders and Screening 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Why is it difficult to get an ammonia sample?

A

You need a free flowing sample, which needs to be put in ice and rushed to the laboratory

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2
Q

What is the main role of the urea cycle?

A

Taking ammonia and producing urea

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3
Q

Name three other diseases that count as urea cycle defects.

A

Lysinuric protein intolerance

Hyperornithaemia-hyperammonaemia-homocitrullinuria

Citrullinaemia type II

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4
Q

What do all urea cycle disorders result in?

A

High ammonia

NOTE: this is toxic

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5
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of all of these urea cycle defects?

A

Autosomal recessive

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6
Q

What is an exception to this?

A

Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency (X-linked)

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7
Q

How does the body get rid of excess ammonia?

A

An ammonium group is attached to glutamate to make glutamine

So, plasma glutamine in hyperammonaemic conditions will be high

NOTE: the amino acids within the urea cycle will be high or absent. You can also measure urine orotic acid

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8
Q

What is the treatment of urea cycle disorders?

A

Remove ammonia (using sodium benzoate, sodium phenylacetate or dialysis) Reduce ammonia production (low protein diet)

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9
Q

Why might patients with urea cycle disorders have a slight build?

A

Patients may subconsciously avoid protein because they know it makes them feel ill

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10
Q

List the key features of urea cycle disorders.

A

Vomiting without diarrhoea

Respiratory alkalosis

Hyperammonaemia

Encephalopathy

Avoidance or change in diet

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11
Q

What tends to cause hyperammonaemia with metabolic acidosis and a high anion gap?

A

Organic acidurias

Also caused by defects in the complex metabolism of branched chain amino acids

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12
Q

List three branched chain amino acids

A

Leucine

Isoleucine

Valine

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13
Q

Describe the breakdown of leucine.

A

An ammonia group will be broken off using by a transaminase and a high energy protein group will be added

This produces a breakdown product called isovaleryl CoA

This is then converted by isovaleryl CoA dehydrogenase

Molecules with high energy groups cannot traverse the cell membrane, so they need to be converted to other molecules:

· Export from cell as: isovaleryl carnitine

· Excrete as: 3OH-isovaleric acid (cheesy smell) and isovaleryl glycine

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14
Q

Describe the presenting features of organic acidurias in neonates.

A

Unusual odour

Lethargy

Feeding problems

Truncal hypotonia/limb hypertonia

Myoclonic jerks

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15
Q

Describe the chronic intermittent form of organic acidurias.

A

Recurrent episodes of ketoacidotic coma

Cerebral abnormalities

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16
Q

What is Reye syndrome?

A

Rapidly progressive encephalopathy that can be triggered by aspirin use in children (also triggered by antiemetics and valproate)

17
Q

Describe the features of Reye syndrome.

A

Vomiting

Lethargy

Increased confusion

Seizures

Decerebration

Respiratory arrest

18
Q

What would constitute the metabolic screen for Reye syndrome?

A

Plasma ammonia

Plasma/urine amino acid

Urine organic acids

Plasma glucose and lactate

Blood spot carnitine profile (stays abnormal in remission)

NOTE: the top 4 need to be measured during an acute episode because the abnormal metabolites will disappear after a few days

19
Q

What do defects in mitochondrial fatty acid beta oxidation cause?

A

Hypoketotic hypoglycaemia

20
Q

Which investigations are useful for defects in mitochondrial fatty acid beta oxidation?

A

Blood ketones

Urine organic acids

Blood spot acylcarnitine profile

21
Q

What is galactosaemia?

A

A disorder of galactose metabolism resulting in high levels of galactose in the blood

22
Q

What is the most severe and most common form of galactosaemia?

A

Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase (Gal-1-PUT) deficiency

NOTE: high galactose-1-phosphate results in liver and kidney disease

23
Q

Describe the presentation of galactosaemia.

A

Vomiting

Diarrhoea

Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

Hepatomegaly

Hypoglycaemia

Sepsis (galactose-1-phosphate inhibits the immune response)

24
Q

What is a long-term complication of galactosaemia if it is not detected in the neonatal period?

A

Bilateral cataracts

High concentration of galactose-1-phosphate end up being a substrate for aldolase which is found in the lens of the eye

25
Q

List some investigations for galactosaemia.

A

Urine reducing substances (high levels of galactose)

Red cell Gal-1-PUT

26
Q

What is the treatment for galactosaemia?

A

Avoid galactose (e.g. milk)

27
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Glycogen storage disease type I.

A

Whenever glycogen is broken down, it produces glucose-1-phosphate and glucose-6-phosphate and then the phosphate groups must be removed because it cannot cross the cell membrane with those phosphate groups

A lack of phosphatase means that G1P and G6P cannot be exported

This means that your muscles and liver build up a lot of glycogen that cannot be liberated leading to hypoglycaemia

NOTE: also known as von Gierke disease

28
Q

What are the clinical features of Glycogen storage disease type I?

A

Hepatomegaly

Nephromegaly

Hypoglycaemia

Lactic acidosis

Neutropaenia

29
Q

What does ‘heteroplasmy’ mean, with regards to mitochondrial DNA?

A

Once you reach a certain load of abnormal mitochondrial DNA you will start to develop symptoms

30
Q

Which organs tend to be affected by mitochondrial disorders?

A

Defective ATP production leads to issue in organs with a high energy demand (e.g. brain, muscle, kidney, retina, endocrine organs)

31
Q

List three examples of mitochondrial diseases and outline their manifestations.

A

Barth syndrome – cardiomyopathy, neutropaenia and myopathy starting at birth

MELAS – mitochondrial encephalopathy, lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes

Kearns-Sayre syndrome – chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia, retinopathy, deafness and ataxia

32
Q

List some investigations for mitochondrial diseases.

A

High lactate (alanine) – especially after periods of fasting (NOTE: in normal people, lactate should go down when fasting)

CSF lactate/pyruvate

CSF protein (elevated in Kearns-Sayre)

CK

Muscle biopsy

Mitochondrial DNA analysis

33
Q

What is the characteristic appearance of mitochondrial myopathy on a muscle biopsy?

A

Ragged red fibres

34
Q

What are congenital disorders of glycosylation? Give an example.

A

A defect of post-translational protein glycosylation

It is a multisystem disorder associated with cardiomyopathy, osteopaenia and hepatomegaly

Example: CDG type 1a – abnormal subcutaneous adipose tissue distribution with fat pads and nipple retraction