Chemical Bonding Lecture Flashcards

(117 cards)

1
Q

How much energy required to break covalent bonds?

A

50-100 kcal/mole

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2
Q

Describe the stability of covalent bonds

A

Quite stable under physiological conditions

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3
Q

How much energy required to break non-covalent bonds?

A

5 kcal/mole

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4
Q

Describe stability of non-covalent bonds

A

Break quite easily under physiological conditions but structures held by lots of cooperating non-covalent bonds could be very stable

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5
Q

Non-covalent bonds determine what 2 things?

A
  1. How molecules interact with each other
  2. Shape of large covalently bonded molecules (proteins, nucleic acids)
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6
Q

What does the strength of H bonds depend on?

A

Distance and orientation

e.g. maximum strength when three atoms in a straight line

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7
Q

What does the strength in electrostatic bonds depend on?

A

Distance, not orientation

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8
Q

Non-polar surfaces do not attract each other. They are…

A

Pushed together by the solvent

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9
Q

The strength of a hydrophobic “bond” between 2 non-polar surfaces equals…

A

The strength of additional water-water H bonds that form when nonpolar surfaces are removed from contact with water molecules

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10
Q

List the bonds in descending order of strength

A

Covalent > Hydrogen > Electrostatic > Hydrophobic > Van der Waals (0.5 kcal/mole)

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11
Q

An acid is…

A

A proton donor

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12
Q

A base is…

A

A proton acceptor

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13
Q

Dissociation of an acid always produces what?

A

A conjugate base

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14
Q

Protonation of a base always produces what?

A

A conjugate acid

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15
Q

Strong acids dissociate completely or incompletely?

A

Completely (equilibrium is very far right) e.g. inorganic acids like HCl, H2SO4

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16
Q

Weak acids and bases…

A

Exist in equilibrium with their conjugate species. Carboxylic acids are weak acids, amines are weak bases

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17
Q

[H+] changes __-fold when pH changes by 1 unit

A

10-fold

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18
Q

In the oral cavity, [H+] directly affects what?

A

The balance of mineralization vs. demineralization of the dental enamel

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19
Q

What is Ka a measure of?

A

The position of the equilibrium

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20
Q

What is the Ka eqn?

A

Ka = [H+][A]/[HA]

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21
Q

Ka is the H+ concentration at which exactly _____ of A is protonated

A

Ka is the H+ concentration at which exactly half of A is protonated, i.e. when [H+] = Ka, [A] = [HA]

Ka = [H+][A]/[HA]

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22
Q

What 2 things does the Henderson Hasselbalch Eqn tell you?

A
  1. The fraction of A that is protonated, if you know its pKa and the pH
  2. The pH, if you know pKa and [A]/[HA] ratio of a buffer
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23
Q

How does a buffer work?

A

It reacts with either added H+ or OH- to get rid of some of the added H+/OH- in order to decrease the pH change

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24
Q

What buffering reaction gets rid of added H+?

A

A + H+ –><– AH

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25
What buffering reaction gets rid of added -OH?
AH + -OH --><-- A + H2O
26
Because a buffer reaction is an equilibrium reaction, is all of the added H+ or -OH removed?
No
27
Buffers work well when the pH is near what?
Their pKa
28
What is the most important physiological buffer?
Bicarbonate (HCO3-)
29
Where is gaseous CO2 from lungs and tissues dissolved?
Blood plasma CO2 (g) --><-- CO2 (d) CO2 (d) + H2O --><-- H2CO3 (catalyzed by carbonic anhydrase) H2CO3 --><-- H+ + HCO3-
30
Give the eqn and equilibrium constant for the ionization of H2CO3 in equilibrium with dissolved CO2
Koverall = [H+][HCO3-]/[CO2(d)] Koverall = 4.91 x 10^-7, pK = 6.31
31
IF the pH of blood (7.4) is more than 1 pH unit away from bicarbonate's pK, why is the bicarbonate system an effective buffer?
Even though [CO2(d)] is about 10% of [HCO3-], the bicarbonate buffer system is an OPEN system. So there is natural presence of CO2 gas at pp 40 mm Hg in lungs and the equilibrium CO2 (g) --><-- CO2 (d) maintains the CO2 (d) at fairly constant level
32
Metabolism generates ____ in the body
acidity
33
The bicarbonate buffer system allows the body to convert __ from metabolic acids into a ______ that can be exhaled from the lungs
The bicarbonate buffer system allows the body to convert H+ from metabolic acids into a gaseous form (CO2) that can be exhaled from the lungs. Doing so, it evaporates the acidity
34
List the 6 non-polar aliphatic amino acids
Glycine Alanine Proline Valine Leucine Isoleucine
35
List the properties of non-polar amino acids
Have methyl/ene side chains that cannot H bond Avoid water and are found in center of protein structures Abundant components of protein Glycine has only H atom side chain Alanine only has methyl group side chain
36
List the 4 polar uncharged amino acids
Asparagine Glutamine Serine Threonine
37
List the properties of the polar uncharged amino acids
Interact well with water through H bonding Often found at surface of proteins
38
List the 3 aromatic amino acids
Phenylalanine Tyrosine Tryptophan
39
Lis the properties of the aromatic amino acids
Usually hydrophobic Often buried within protein structures Their side chains sometimes stack with nucleobases in active sites Tyr and Trp can H bond and aren't always buried Trp is least abundant AA in protein
40
List the 2 sulfur-containing amino acids
Methionine Cysteine
41
List the properties of the sulfur-containing amino acids
Sulfur in Cys reactive to oxidation and can form disulfide bridges Extracellular proteins like trypsin, insulin, & blood clotting factors held together in part by disulfides
42
List the 2 negative acidic charged amino acids
Aspartate Glutamate
43
List the 3 positive basic charged amino acids
Arginine Lysine Histidine
44
The charged AAs have side chains that are _____ or _____
acidic; basic
45
What is Asp and Glu's pKa roughly at?
4
46
Which positively charged basic AA has a high pKa?
Arginine
47
What is the pKa of Lys?
9-10
48
What is the pKa of His?
6
49
List the properties of the charged AAs
Often protrude at surface of proteins Often found making electrostatic interactions with other residues
50
What is a Zwitterion?
A molecule with a positively charged amino group and a negatively charged carboxyl group
51
What is the isoelectric point (pI)?
pH at which a molecule has no net charge. It's the average of the pK's of the amino and carboxyl groups.
52
Which amino acids predominate in their protonated form at physiological pH of 7.4?
Cysteine Tyrosine Lysine Arginine
53
Which amino acids predominate in their deprotonated form at physiological pH of 7.4?
Aspartate Glutamate Histidine
54
Due to electronic resonance, peptide bonds have partial double bond character, which makes them...
Planar and rigid
55
Insulin is made as a precursor of how many AAs?
80
56
Insulin's precursor is cleaved how many times to make its 2-chain active form?
4
57
How many disulfides in insulin?
3 (6 original cysteines, now 3 cysteines)
58
What is the most stable protein structure if it needs to be in solution?
Secondary
59
What reaction happens in secondary structure?
Carboxyl oxygen accepts H from peptide hydrogen 4 residues later in the sequence. This stabilizes the alpha helix in which R groups protrude at regular intervals.
60
Helices can be...
amphipathic
61
Beta strands can form which bonds?
Regular H bonds with neighbouring beta strands to make beta sheets in which adjacent R groups can also interact. Beta turns can be formed with stabilizing H bonds
62
Which polypeptides can form triple helices?
Polypeptides with glycine residues at every 3rd position because H of alpha carbon sticks into middle of triple helix and no other AA R group can fit
63
Why does collagen form a cable-like structure of great strength?
Bc collagen chains associate into triple helixes
64
What kind of bonds hold primary structure together?
Covalent bonds
65
What kinds of bonds hold together the secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures of folded proteins inside the cell?
Noncovalent bonds
66
Secondary structures are held together by what bonds between C=O and N-H atoms of peptide bonds?
H bonds
67
What determines which segments of a polypeptide chain can form stable alpha helix or beta sheet?
The side chains of the amino acids
68
Hemoglobin is composed of...
2 alpha and 2 beta subunits
69
LDH has...
4 copies of a single subunit type
70
Globins are largely what?
Alpha-helical
71
Why are globins a bit unusual?
They have all helix connected by turns
72
What don't globins have?
beta structure
73
What structures does myoglobin not have?
Quaternary
74
What structure does hemoglobin not have?
It has all structures
75
We could say that the folded structure of protein is encoded in the ____ _____ ______
amino acid sequence
76
Why is the quaternary structure important?
It facilitates more complex protein behaviour It is the basis of many important anatomical structures
77
The single subunit of myoglobin binds oxygen ____ _____, in a simple ______ ______ reaction that depends on the _____ _____ ______
The single subunit of myoglobin binds oxygen fairly strongly, in a simple reversible equilibrium reaction that depends on the free oxygen concentration
78
How does hemoglobin's quaternary structure benefit it?
4 subunits bind and release O2 in a concerted fashion, giving a sigmoid binding curve with a threshhold of binding
79
When Keq is very large, a _____ amount of reactant is present at equilibrium
tiny Sometimes say reaction is "irreversible"
80
What 2 things do Keq and G tell us?
1. Relative proportion of reactants and products that will be present at equilibrium 2. How much useful work can be obtained from a reaction, under standard conditions when [products] = [reactants] = 1 M
81
If Keq > 1 (G < 0), equilibrium favors ______, and the reaction will ______ energy
products; yield
82
G = 0 means that...
The reaction is at equilibrium
83
If Keq <1 (G > 0), equilibrium favors _______, and the reaction will _____ energy
reactants; absorb
84
Keq and G tell us nothing about what?
How fast a reaction will occur
85
Kinetically favoured means...
it forms the fastest in a reaction
86
Thermodynamically favoured means...
it is the most stable
87
ATP is thermodynamically ______
unstable
88
ATP is kinetically ______
Stable
89
Catalysts...
lower energy of activation and increase the rate at which reaction goes to equilibrium
90
Keq and G depend on what?
Initial and final states
91
Are Keq and G altered by presence of a catalyst?
No
92
An enzyme increases the rates of the forward and reverse reactions....
by exactly the same factor
93
Enzyme kinetics are...
a quantitative description of enzyme activity as a function of substrate conc
94
In uncatalyzed reactions, the reaction rate depends on what?
The conc of reactants in a simple linear fashion (law of mass action)
95
In catalyzed rxns, the reaction rate levels out when?
At high substrate conc
96
Vmax is a measure of what?
The max capacity of the enzyme
97
What does Vmax depend on?
How much of enzyme is present
98
Km is a measure of what?
The affinity of the enzyme for the substrate. It tells us how a given amount of that enzyme will respond to changes in substrate conc
99
What is Km independent of?
Amount of enzyme present
100
Km is the substrate conc at which the activity of the enzyme is ___ ___ ___
half of Vmax (half-maximal)
101
Removal of the inhibitor results in ____ ____ of enzyme activity
rapid recovery
101
Enzyme inhibition usually refers to what?
Reversible inhibition
102
Give 2 examples of reversible enzyme inhibitors
Physiological enzyme inhibitors; many drugs
103
Enzyme inactivation refers to what?
Irreversible effects
104
Give 2 examples of irreversible inactivators
Some drugs like aspirin and many toxic substances (esp toxic metals)
105
Name 2 reversible inhibitors
Competitive and non-competitive inhibitors
106
With competitive inhibitors, inhibition can be overcome with what?
High [S]
107
What are an important class of competitive inhibitors?
Enzymatic reaction products
108
Can non-competitive inhibitors be overcome with high [S]?
No
109
What happens to the Vmax and Km with competitive inhibition?
Vmax stays the same Km increases
110
What happens to the Vmax and Km with non-competitive inhibition?
Vmax decreases Km stays the same
111
Aspirin is a suicide substrate for...
Cyclooxygenase
112
Acetoaminophen and ibuprofen are _____ inhibitors of cyclooxygenase
Reversible Bind but don't react at active site
113
Lead and mercury react with which groups?
-SH groups
114
Lead and mercury act as _____ ____ of many enzymes
irreversible inactivators
115
Mercury is a controversial component of _____ ____
dental amalgam
116
Mercury is extremely ___ ___ in ____. The rate of release is _____ ____.
Mercury is extremely tightly bound in amalgam. The rate of release is extremely slow.