Chemical Engineering Principles - Theo Flashcards

(230 cards)

1
Q

An example of a collector for flotation of metallic sulphides and native metal is

A. Xanthates
B. sodium silicate
C. sodium sulphide
D. sphalerite

A

A. Xanthates

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2
Q

Which of the following ratios describes Reynolds number?

A. inertial forces/ vicious forces
B. buoyant forces/ inertial forces
C. drag forces/ buoyant forces
D. vicious forces/ drag forces

A

A. inertial forces/ vicious forces

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3
Q

Which product is produced commercially by the Haber process?

A. sulphuric acid
B. ammonia
C. propane
D. calcium

A

B. ammonia

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4
Q

Silicone rubbers are

A. polysiloxanes
B. polyethylene
C. polypropylene
D. elastomer

A

A. polysiloxanes

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5
Q

It is the enrichment of water with nutrients.

A. putrefaction
B. eutrophication
C. thermal stratification
D. decomposition

A

B. eutrophication

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6
Q

Third aspect in plant design.

A. environment
B. education
C. religion
D. morality

A

A. environment

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7
Q

It is a wet, partially decomposed organic matter.
A. Lignite
B. peat
C. charcoal
D. asphalt

A

B. peat

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8
Q

Shale oil has a potential to replace some of the petroleum, it contains the oil called

A. kerogen
B. coke
C. fuel oil
D. crude oil

A

A. kerogen

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9
Q

It is the most abundant metal of the earth’s crust.

A. iron
B. aluminum
C. lithium
D. sodium

A

B. aluminum

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10
Q

Which of the following metals react violently with water?

A. sodium
B. calcium
C. diamond
D. aluminum

A

A. sodium

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11
Q

A frequency response measure of how well the system response to variations in the output signal.

A. feedback
B. control system
C. continuous time
D. bandwidth

A

D. bandwidth

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12
Q

It is used to convert one signal or energy form into another.

A. transducer
B. amplifier
C. detector
D. resistor

A

A. transducer

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13
Q

A sensor usually made of a semiconductor that utilizes the effect of temperature on the resistance to current is called a

A. thermocouple
B. thermistor
C. resistor
D. capacitor

A

B. thermistor

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14
Q

It pertains to the production and use of extreme cold at temperature below -100OC.

A. cryogenics
B. air conditioning
C. refrigeration
D. low temperature industry

A

A. cryogenics

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15
Q

From what mineral is radium obtained?

A. limestone
B. rutile
C. pitch blend
D. permatis

A

C. pitch blend

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16
Q

An apparatus used to measure the heat absorbed or released by a reaction.

A. centrifuge
B. barometer
C. balance
D. calorimeter

A

D. calorimeter

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17
Q

An apparatus used to measure atmospheric pressure.

A. centrifuge
B. barometer
C. balance
D. calorimeter

A

B. barometer

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18
Q

An apparatus used to measure weight.

A. centrifuge
B. barometer
C. balance
D. calorimeter

A

C. balance

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19
Q

An apparatus used to sediment particles in suspension.

A. centrifuge
B. barometer
C. balance
D. calorimeter

A

A. centrifuge

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20
Q

Calcium carbonate is also known as

A. Chalk
B. charcoal
C. feldspar
D. silica

A

A. Chalk

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21
Q

To increase the life of an incandescent lamp it is

A. Filled with neon gas
B. filled with argon gas
C. filled with CO2 gas
D. evacuated

A

B. filled with argon gas

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22
Q

It refers to waste or scrap glass, usually ground

A.Bullet
B. feldspar
C. fluorospar
D. gloss float

A

CULLET

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23
Q

The balanced equation for a reaction between nitric acid and hydrogen sulphide is 2HNO3 + 3H2S –> 2NO + 4H2O + 3S.

What is oxidized?
A. H
B. S
C. O
D. N

A

B. S

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24
Q

The balanced equation for a reaction between nitric acid and hydrogen sulphide is 2HNO3 + 3H2S –> 2NO + 4H2O + 3S.

What is reduced?
A. N
B. H
C. O
D. S

A

A. N

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25
The balanced equation for a reaction between nitric acid and hydrogen sulphide is 2HNO3 + 3H2S --> 2NO + 4H2O + 3S. What is the reducing agent? A. HNO3 B. H2S C. NO D. H2O
B. H2S
26
The coal analysis which is based on the volatilization characteristic of the fuel is A. proximate B. modified C. ultimate D. elemental
A. proximate
27
The heating value measured when water formed from combustion is in the liquid state is A. gross calorific value B. net calorific value C. heat of combustion D. latent heat of condensation
A. gross calorific value
28
In the combustion of solid fuels, the element between the feed and the refuse is the A. coked coal B. moisture C. VCM D. ash
D. ash
29
The empirical relation which allows one to compute for the net hydrogen in a given solid fuel.is the A. Calderwood equation B. Dulong’s Formula C. Theoretical Oxygen Equation D. Oxygen Unaccounted for equation
B. Dulong’s Formula
30
The type of combustible present in the coal when the ratio of the VCM over FC in the coal is equal to the ratio of VCM over FC in the refuse is A. uncoked coal B. partially cooked coal C. coked coal D. combination of coked an\d uncoked coal
A. uncoked coal
31
It is a portion of the coal which when heated in the absence of air under prescribe condition is liberated as gases or vapors: A. fixed carbon B. volatile matter C. total carbon D. net hydrogen
B. volatile matter
32
_____________ is normally used to determine the quality of combustion gases A. Stoichiometry B. Gravimetric analysis C. Orsat analysis D. Material balance
C. Orsat analysis
33
Hydrogen in fuel which needs oxygen from air for its combustion is known as A. Moisture hydrogen B. Net hydrogen C. Total hydrogen D. Combined hydrogen
B. Net hydrogen
34
Refers to the outgoing stream of noncombustible matter (ash), which separates from the materials that can be gasified. A. Tar B. Cinder C. Gangue D. Refuse
D. Refuse
34
Which of the following is true if the resulting combustible lost in refuse is coked coal? A. Has lost only its moisture content B. Has lost both moisture and VCM content C. Has FC and VCM as its main constituent D. The FC/VCM in green coal is equal to FC/VCM in refuse
B. Has lost both moisture and VCM content
35
When the ratio of the FC to VCM is greater in the residue than in the fuel, this means the residue A. Is completely burnt B. Contains pure coke C. Contains unburnt coal D. Contains a partially burnt coal
D. Contains a partially burnt coal
36
A gas which contains saturated paraffin hydrocarbons. A. Secondary fuel gas B. Biogas C. Natural gas D. Marsh gas
C. Natural gas
37
Liquid fuel compositions are normally given in A. Mole % B. Weight % C. Volume % D. Mole fraction
B. Weight %
37
Combined water is equal to A. The hydrogen in the fuel B. Moisture in the fuel C. Oxygen in the fuel D. Net hydrogen
C. Oxygen in the fuel
38
Burning coke in a limited supply of oxygen can result in the formation of A. CO B. CO2 C. CH4 D. H2S
A. CO
39
When water in the products of combustion is in the vapor state, the heating value is A. Lower heating value B. Gross calorific value C. Higher heating value D. Average heating value
A. Lower heating value
40
It refers to the internal heat from the Earth. A. Geothermal B. Thermal Energy C. Molten heat D. Tectonic heat
A. Geothermal
41
The VCM of a solid fuel contains the following except A. C B. H C. S D. Ash
D. Ash
41
Liquid fuels may be divided into two main classes, based on how they will be used: light oils or spirits and heavy oils. Light oils are suitable for use with internal combustion engines and jet engines. Which of the following is not a light oil? A. Benzole B. Alcogas C. Furnace oils D. Alcohols
C. Furnace oils
41
Solid residue from the carbonization of wood which involves heating wood strongly in the absence of oxygen. A. Peat B. Wood charcoal C. Lignites D. Coal
B. Wood charcoal
42
The gas from sludge digestion tanks is mainly composed of A. Nitrogen B. Hydrogen sulfide C. Carbon dioxide D. Methane
D. Methane
43
Incomplete combustion of a fuel is characterized by A. Smoke formation B. High percentage of oxygen in flue gas C. High gas temperature D. High carbon monoxide content in flue gas
D. High carbon monoxide content in flue gas
43
Preheating of gaseous fuel results in increased A. Flame length B. Quantum of flue gas C. Flame temperature D. Ignition temperature
C. Flame temperature
43
In flue gas analysis by Orsat’s apparatus, carbon monoxide is absorbed by A. Cuprous chloride B. Alkaline pyrogallol solution C. Potassium hydroxide D. None of these
A. Cuprous chloride
44
A gaseous fuel in order to develop luminosity on burning, must contain: A. Carbon monoxide B. Hydrocarbons C. Hydrogen D. Oxygen
B. Hydrocarbons
44
Oxygen percentage (by weight) in atmospheric air is: A. 19 B. 21 C. 23 D. 29
C. 23
45
Combustion of pulverized coal as compared to that of lump coal A. Develops a non-luminous flame B. Can be done with less excess air C. Develops a low temperature flame D. Provides a lower rate of heat release
B. Can be done with less excess air
45
Which of the following is the most important deterrents to an extended use of pulverized coal in boiler firing? A. Ash disposal problem B. High power consumption in its transportation C. Excessive fly-ash discharge from the stack D. Erosion of induced draft fan blades
A. Ash disposal problem
45
The terms “sweet” and “sour” in natural gas terminology, are used to denote the absence or presence of __________. A. CO B. Methane C. H2S D. Glucose
C. H2S
46
It is the solid, cellular, infusible material remaining after the carbonization of coal, pitch, petroleum residue and certain other carbonaceous materials. A. Coke B. Char C. Wood D. Peat
A. Coke
46
The gas generated by blasting a deep, hot bed of coal or coke continuously with a mixture or air and steam. A. LNG B. Producer gas C. LPG D. Re-formed gas
B. Producer gas
46
It is the portion of the coal which when heated in the absence of air under prescribed conditions is liberated as gases or vapors. A. Fixed carbon B. Volatile matter C. Total carbon D. Net hydrogen
B. Volatile matter
47
It is a partially decomposed plant matter that has accumulated underwater or in a water-saturated environment. A. Oil shale B. Tar sands C. Peat D. Biomass
C. Peat
47
Incomplete combustion of hydrocarbons in carbonaceous fuel is usually indicated by the presence in the combustion gases of A. Carbon monoxide B. Nitrogen C. Carbon dioxide D. Water vapor
A. Carbon monoxide
47
The inorganic residue that remains after the coal has been burned under specified conditions and it is composed largely of silicon, aluminum, iron and calcium and of minor amounts of compounds of magnesium, sodium, potassium and titanium. A. Refuse B. Ash C. Cinder D. Fixed carbon
B. Ash
48
It is the most abundant metal of the Earth’s crust. A. Iron B. Aluminum C. Lithium D. Sodium
B. Aluminum
48
Which of the following is an ore of mercury? A. Bauxite B. Galena C. Sphalerite D. Cinnabar
D. Cinnabar
48
Which of the following is the present process for the manufacture of soda ash (NA2CO3)? A. LeBlanc process B. Solvay process C. Deacon process D. Weldon process
B. Solvay process
48
Which of the following metals reacts violently with water? A. Sodium B. Calcium C. Diamond D. Aluminum
A. Sodium
49
A mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide, produced by the reaction of water and carbon (coke), that is used as the starting point in the synthesis of methanol and other organic chemicals. A. Producer gas B. Synthesis gas C. Marsh gas D. Laughing gas
B. Synthesis gas
49
A process used in paper production in which sulfur dioxide is added to a mildly acidic digestion liquor to yield hydrogen sulfite ions. A. Sulfite process B. Mechanical pulp process C. Sulfate process D. Solvay process
A. Sulfite process
50
A process used in paper production in which sodium sulfate is added to a basic digestion liquor. A. Sulfite process B. Mechanical pulp process C. Sulfate process D. Solvay process
C. Sulfate process
51
A process for the production of sodium carbonate from sodium chloride and calcium carbonate, giving calcium chloride as a byproduct and using ammonia as an intermediate. A. Haber process B. Solvay process C. Hagreaves process D. Frasch process
B. Solvay process
51
Which of the following is present in the process for the manufacture of soda ash (Na2CO3)? A. LeBlanc process B. Solvay process C. Deacon process D. Weldon process
B. Solvay process
51
An early method for the production of sodium carbonate from sodium chloride, calcium carbonate, and sulfuric acid. A. Frasch process B. Leblanc process C. Solvay process D. Raschig process
B. Leblanc process
51
The ejections of electrons from a metal surface by beam of light. The energy of electrons depends upon the wavelength of the light. A. Tyndall effect B. Photoelectric effect C. Greenhouse effect D. Electrometric effect
B. Photoelectric effect
52
An early process for the production of sulfuric acid, in which SO2 is oxidized to SO3 by nitrogen oxides in lead-lined chambers. A. Solvay process B. Downs process C. Lead chamber process D. Hall-Heroult process
C. Lead chamber process
53
A process for the production of aluminum through electrolysis of a solution of bauxite in molten cryolite A. Solvay process B. Downs process C. Lead chamber process D. Hall-Heroult process
D. Hall-Heroult process
53
A process in which sulfur is recovered from underground deposits by melting it with superheated water and forcing it to the surface. A. Haber-Bosch process B. Frasch process C. Bayer process D. Bessemer process
B. Frasch process
53
An industrial process for the manufacture of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen with a catalyst at elevated temperature and pressure. A. Haber-Bosch process B. Hall-Heroult process C. Solvay process D. Leblanc process
B. Hall-Heroult process
54
An industrial process for the production of sulfuric acid that is based on the oxidation of sulfur to sulfur trioxide on a vanadium oxide catalyst, followed by reaction with water in fuming sulfuric acid. A. Bayer process B. Leblanc process C. Lead chamber process D. Contact process
D. Contact process
54
An industrial electrochemical process for obtaining sodium from molten sodium chloride. A. Frasch process B. Bayer process C. Bessemer process D. Downs process
D. Downs process
55
A multistep cyclic process in which pyruvate ions are broken down to carbon dioxide and water, with production of ATP, NADH, and FADH2 molecules that store free energy in the cells of organisms. A. Born-Haber cycle B. Citric acid cycle C. Calvin cycle D. Carnot cycle
B. Citric acid cycle
56
A multistep cyclic process in which glucose is synthesized from carbon dioxide and water. A. Nitrogen cycle B. Citric acid cycle C. Calvin cycle D. Carnot cycle
C. Calvin cycle
57
A disproportionation reaction of two aldehyde molecules to give an alcohol and a carboxylic acid. A. Friedel-Crafts reaction B. Cannizzaro reaction C. Shift reaction D. Dehydration reaction
B. Cannizzaro reaction
57
A process for the conversion of iron to steel that consists of forcing air through molten pig iron. A. Bessemer process B. Bayer process C. Contact process D. Frasch process
A. Bessemer process
58
An industrial process for the purification of aluminum (III) oxide through its selective dissolution in a strongly basic solution. A. Bessemer process B. Bayer process C. Contact process D. Frasch process
B. Bayer process
59
If the pressure recovery experienced by the liquid in the valve is enough to raise the pressure above the vapor pressure of the liquid, then the vapor bubbles start collapsing, or imploding. This implosion is called A. Fisher control B. Viscosity correction C. Cavitation D. Crowding condition
C. Cavitation
60
A type of reciprocating stem valve used mainly as a block valve for fully open or fully closed services. A. Globe valve B. Gate valve C. Split-body valve D. Sliding stem valve
B. Gate valve
61
Common microorganism used for penicillin manufacture is A. Mold B. Bacteria C. Protozoa D. Algae
A. Mold
61
The chemical most commonly used to speed sedimentation of sewage is A. Sulfuric acid B. Copper sulfate C. Lime D. Methylene blue
C. Lime
62
It is produced by the decay of vegetable matter, was early identified as combustible “swamp gas.” A. Producer gas B. Furnace gas C. Hydrogen D. Methane
D. Methane
63
The gas from sludge digestion tanks is mainly composed of A. Nitrogen B. Hydrogen sulfide C. Carbon dioxide D. Methane
D. Methane
63
It is a wet, partially decomposed organic matter. A. Lignite B. Peat C. Charcoal D. Asphalt
B. Peat
63
An amorphous carbon that has been treated with steam and heat until it has a very great affinity for adsorbing many materials. A. Lampblack B. Carbon black C. Activated carbon D. Graphite
C. Activated carbon
64
It is the enrichment of water with nutrients. A. Putrefaction B. Eutrophication C. Thermal stratification D. Decomposition
B. Eutrophication
65
It converts solar energy into electricity directly. A. Electrolytic cell B. Electrochemical cell C. Photovoltaic cell D. Fuel cell
C. Photovoltaic cell
65
It is usually applied to cooling below ambient temperature. A. Air conditioning B. Refrigeration C. Thermal conduction D. Heat transfer
B. Refrigeration
66
It is a by-product of the destructive distillation or pyrolysis of coal which is a mixture of many chemical compounds, mostly aromatic, which vary widely in composition. A. Gasoline B. Coke C. Coal tar D. Light oil
C. Coal tar
67
Carbonate, or temporary hardness, is caused by bicarbonates of __________. A. Calcium and potassium B. Iron and manganese C. Sodium and magnesium D. Calcium and magnesium
D. Calcium and magnesium
67
It is the term applied to processes which remove or reduce the hardness of water. A. Purification B. Clarification C. Softening D. Sedimentation
C. Softening
68
It is a linear polymer which may be reversibly softened by heat and solidified by cooling. A. Thermosets B. Thermoplastic C. Polymer D. Copolymer
B. Thermoplastic
68
It is commonly applied to any process used to effect partial or complete demineralization of highly saline waters such as seawater (35,000 ppm of dissolved salts) or brackish waters. A. Purification B. Desalting C. Deaeration D. Electrodialysis
B. Desalting
69
A relation stating that when two reactions are added to give a third reaction, the corresponding enthalpies of reaction must also be added. A. Henry’s law B. Hess’ law C. Hauy’s law D. Hunds’ rule
B. Hess’ law
69
The statement that when electrons are added to orbitals of equal energy, a single electron will enter each orbital before a second one enters any one orbital, with the spins remaining parallel is possible. A. Pauli exclusion principle B. Le Chatelier’s principle C. Hunds rule D. Lewis-Randall rule
C. Hund's rule
70
The time for s system to respond to a step input and attain a response equal to the magnitude of the input. A. Response time B. Equalization time C. Rise time D. Equilibrium time
C. Rise time
70
The device that causes the process to provide the output. A. Sensor B. Transmitter C. Adaptor D. Actuator
D. Actuator
71
An unwanted input signal that affects the system’s output signal. A. Disturbance signal B. Error signal C. Controlled variable signal D. Sensor signal
A. Disturbance signal
72
The amount the system output response proceeds beyond the desired response. A. Offset B. Overshoot C. Gain D. Offshoot
B. Overshoot
72
The output signal is fed back so that it adds to the input signal. A. Positive feedback B. Negative feedback C. Comparator gain D. Forward feedback
A. Positive feedback
72
The system that uses a measurement of the output and compares it with the desired output. A. Feed-forward control system B. Adaptive control system C. Closed-loop feedback control system D. Inferential control system
C. Closed-loop feedback control system
72
A system that exhibits the desired performance in the presence of significant plant uncertainty. A. Stable control B. Reliable control C. Automatic control D. Robust control
D. Robust control
72
A type of reciprocating stem valve used mainly as a block valve for fully open or fully closed services. A. Globe valve B. Gate valve C. Split-body valve D. Sliding stem valve
B. Gate valve
72
If the pressure recovery experienced by the liquid in the valve is enough to raise the pressure above the vapor pressure of the liquid, then the vapor bubbles start collapsing, or imploding. This implosion is called A. Fisher control B. Viscosity correction C. Cavitation D. Crowding condition
C. Cavitation
73
Ratio of the maximum controllable flow to the minimum controllable flow. A. Rangeability B. Hysteresis C. Zero-span ratio D. Installed flow characteristics
A. Rangeability
73
A temperature sensor with the following advantages: no physical contact, wide range and fast response, and measures small target or average value over large size. A. Resistance thermometer B. Thermistor C. Radiation pyrometer D. Filled thermal elements thermometer
C. Radiation pyrometer
73
Not a flow-measuring device. A. Orifice meter B. Magnetic flowmeter C. Turbine meter D. Diaphragm meter
D. Diaphragm meter
74
A special case of proportional control with a very high controller gain. A. On-off control B. Big-bang control C. Single-position control D. Inferential control
A. On-off control
74
An inherent disadvantage of this control system is that it results in continuous cycling of the controlled variable and thus produces excessive wear in the final control element. A. On-off control B. P-only control C. PI-only control D. PID control
A. On-off control
75
The proportional action repeat-rate is known from this control parameter. A. Derivative time B. Integral time C. Controller bias D. Controller gain
B. Integral time
75
It establishes the functional relationship between the controlled output and the primary feedback signal. A. Control signal B. Measurement C. Reference input D. Controlled output
B. Measurement
76
It is an external signal applied to the feedback control system usually at the first summing point, in order to command a specified action of the plant. It usually represents ideal (or desired) plant output behavior. A. Controlled signal B. Reference input C. Feedback element D. Controlled output
B. Reference input
76
Type of control mode which does not provide zero offset but reduces the error and speeds the dynamic response of the system; it may cause instability if tuned improperly. A. Proportional B. Integral C. Derivative D. Proportional-integral
A. Proportional
76
Type of control mode which achieves zero offset and adjusts the manipulated variable in a slower manner, thus giving poor dynamic performance, and can cause instability if tuned improperly. A. Proportional B. Integral C. Derivative D. Proportional-integral
B. Integral
77
The stimulus, excitation or command applied to a control system, typically from an external energy source, usually to produce a specified response from the control system. A. Process control B. Set C. Input D. Control system
C. Input
77
Type of control mode which does not influence the final steady-state value of the error: provides rapid correction based on the rate of change of the error. A. Proportional B. Integral C. Derivative D. Proportional-integral
C. Derivative
77
An arrangement of physical components connected or related in such a manner as to command , direct or regulate itself or another system is a: A. Stimulus B. Unit process C. Control system D. Unit operation
C. Control system
78
The simplest mode of control which is characteristic of a two-position control commonly utilized in a thermostat for controlling the temperature of heaters, air-conditioners, refrigerators, etc. A. Proportional control B. Derivative control C. On-off control D. Programmable logic control
C. On-off control
78
It is the actual response obtained from the control system. It may or may not be equal to the specified response implied by the input. A. Input B. Output C. Answer D. Result
B. Output
78
It is a control system in which the control action is independent of the output. A. Closed-loop system B. Feedback control system C. Open-loop system D. Feedforward control system
C. Open-loop system
79
It is an arrangement of physical components connected or related in such a manner as to form and/or act as an entire unit. A. Process control B. Set C. System D. Input
C. System
80
A control structure with two feedback controllers with the output of the primary controller changing the set point of the secondary controller whose output goes to the final controller. A. Feedforward control B. Ratio control C. Cascade control D. Override control
C. Cascade control
81
It is the lowest temperature at which the material will ignite from an open flame. A. Flash point B. Flame traps C. Flammability limit D. Auto-ignition temperature
A. Flash point
81
It is a sudden, catastrophic, release of energy, causing a pressure wave (blast wave). A. Ignition B. Deflagration C. Detonation D. Explosion
D. Explosion
81
A device used for the classification of particles in size ranges below 10 micrometer. A. Thickeners B. Hydraulic jigs C. Centrifuge D. Tables
C. Centrifuge
82
A principal type of gas-solids separator employing centrifugal force. A. Cyclones B. Gravity settlers C. Air filters D. Impingement separator
A. Cyclones
82
The ultimate strength divided by the allowable stress is: A. Yield point B. Working stress C. Factor of safety D. Percentage of elongation
C. Factor of safety
83
The unit lateral deformation of a body under stress divided by the unit longitudinal deformation is known as: A. Poisson’s ratio B. Hooke’s law C. Euler’s ratio D. Mohr’s modulus
A. Poisson’s ratio
84
A type of screening equipment operated with a shaking motion, a long stroke at low frequency. A. Vibrating screens B. Oscillating screens C. Reciprocating screens D. Revolving screens
C. Reciprocating screens
85
It is an alloy containing copper and zinc. A. Bronze B. Brass C. Amalgam D. Cast iron
B. Brass
86
It is the fraction of raw material recovered as the main product. A. Yield B. Conversion C. Recovery D. Production
A. Yield
87
Small- scale units designed to allow experiments that obtain design data for larger plants and sometimes to produce significant quantities of a new product to permit user evaluation of it. A. Benchmark B. Pilot plants C. Model D. Replica
B. Pilot plants
88
It is a grant of exclusive right to the inventor to his invention for limited period of time. A. Invention B. Copyright C. Marketable product D. Patent
D. Patent
89
When pipe joints have to be broken down from time to time for maintenance work, the joints used are: A. Nipples B. Welded joints C. Couplings D. Ranges
D. Ranges
90
The best lining for a vessel containing sulfuric acid is: A. Steel B. Copper C. Silver D. Lead
D. Lead
91
Which of the following filter media can trapped particles of size 0.005 micrometer? A. Woven wire B. Membranes C. Woven cloth D. Cellulose
B. Membranes
92
A type of filter which is consist of an endless reinforced rubber belt, with drainage hole along its center, which supports the filter medium. A. Rotary drum filter B. Disc filter C. Belt filter D. Plate and frame press
C. Belt filter
92
Also known as flash dryers. A. Spray dryers B. Pneumatic dryers C. Rotary dryers D. Tray dryers
B. Pneumatic dryers
93
An evaporator used in the sugar industry which is also known as callandria evaporators. A. Long-tube evaporators B. Agitated thin-film evaporators C. Forced-circulation evaporators D. Short-tube evaporators
D. Short-tube evaporators
94
An equipment used to separate liquids where there is a sufficient differences in density between the liquids for the droplets to settle readily. A. Decanters B. Hydro-cyclones C. Coalescers D. Centrifuge
A. Decanters
95
A principal type of gas-solids separator employing centrifugal force. A. Cyclones B. Gravity settlers C. Air filters D. Impingement separator
A. Cyclones
96
A type of reactor which is consist of a tank fitted with a mechanical agitator and a cooling jacket or coils. A. Stirred tank reactors B. Tubular reactor C. Packed bed reactors D. Fluidized bed
A. Stirred tank reactors
97
It is a type of pressure-relief device commonly used in which it is consist of pneumatically or electrically operated valves which are activated by pressure sensing instruments. A. Directly actuated valves B. Indirectly actuated valves C. Bursting discs D. Over-pressure
B. Indirectly actuated valves
98
A pipe has a 2-inch inlet and has a 4-inch outlet, the mass flow ratio of the inlet is __________ to that of the outlet. A. Less than B. Greater than C. Equal D. Not equal
C. Equal
99
The weight of the flow per unit area of cross section perpendicular to the direction of flow is called: A. Mass flow rate B. Mean mass velocity C. Volumetric flow rate D. Molal flux
B. Mean mass velocity
100
When a fluid flows through a reducer in a piping system, the velocity at the outlet end is __________ the velocity of the inlet. A. Less than B. More than C. The same as D. One half
B. More than
101
A device used to measure differential pressure in terms of height of a column of fluid. A. Manometer B. Pitot tube C. Venturi meter D. Flowmeters
A. Manometer
102
Point velocities can be measured using a: A. Venturi meter B. Orifice meter C. Pitot tube D. Rotameter
C. Pitot tube
103
If one end of the manometer opens to the air, what do you call this manometer? A. Continuous manometer B. Open manometer C. Free end manometer D. Differential manometer
B. Open manometer
104
An instrument used to measure small pressure: A. Venturi B. Orifice C. Aneroid D. Manometer
D. Manometer
105
The pressure drop through a gate valve is lowest when it is: A. Fully open B. ½ open C. ¾ open D. ¼ open
A. Fully open
106
The equation that relates friction factor and Reynolds number, f=64/Re, holds for: A. Smooth pipes B. Laminar flow only C. Turbulent flow only D. Laminar and turbulent flow
B. Laminar flow only
107
The dimensionless term proportional to the shear stress of the pipe wall expressed as a number of velocity heads used to determine fluid friction in conduits is: A. Bingham number B. Fanning friction factor C. Prandtl velocity ratio D. Reynold’s number
B. Fanning friction factor
108
A machine or device for moving incompressible fluid is commonly known as: A. Compressor B. Motor C. Pump D. Turbine
C. Pump
109
What do you call the input power delivered by the motor to the pump? A. Nameplate power B. Brake horsepower C. Hydraulic power D. Effective
B. Brake horsepower
110
A device in which the kinetic energy of one fluid (primary fluid) is used to pump another fluid (secondary fluid). A. Pumps B. Compressors C. Ejectors D. Nozzle
C. Ejectors
111
If a heat transfer equipment, dirt or scale may be accounted by introducing a resistance called: A. Factor of safety B. X-factor C. Fouling factors D. Max factor
C. Fouling factors
112
The transfer of heat through and by means of matter, without an obvious motion of matter is called: A. Radiation B. Convection C. Conduction D. Diffusion
C. Conduction
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