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Chemotherapeutics Flashcards

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1
Q

What are some MDR1 chemotherapeutic agents?

A
  • Doxorubicin
  • Vincristine
  • Mitoxantrone
  • Actinomycin
  • Taxanes
  • Etoposide
  • Dicarbazine
  • Vinblastine
  • Mitomycin

These agents are significant due to their effects and considerations in veterinary oncology.

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2
Q

What does CHOP stand for in chemotherapy?

A
  • Cyclophosphamide
  • Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)
  • Vincristine (Oncovin)
  • Prednisolone

CHOP is a common chemotherapy regimen used in veterinary medicine.

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3
Q

Define alkylating agents.

A

Agents that create cross-links in DNA, causing strand breaks.

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4
Q

What is the mechanism of anti-microtubule agents?

A

Block assembly (vinca alkaloids) or disassembly (paclitaxel) of the mitotic spindle.

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5
Q

What are the classic chemodrug classes?

A
  • Alkylating agents
  • Anti microtubule agents/Mitotic inhibitors
  • Anti tumor agents
  • Anti metabolites
  • Platinum drugs
  • Molecular targeted agents

Each class has distinct mechanisms of action and therapeutic uses.

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6
Q

What is the use of mitoxantrone?

A

Used in TCC, anal sac tumors; substitute for doxorubicin in multicentric intermediate to large cell lymphoma.

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7
Q

What are antimetabolites?

A

Chemotherapy drugs that mimic normal metabolites, interfering with DNA replication.

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8
Q

Fill in the blank: Gemcitabine, cytosine arabinoside, and 5FU are examples of _______.

A

antimetabolites

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9
Q

What is the primary action of Elspar (L Asparaginase)?

A

Depletes asparagine from lymphoblasts.

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10
Q

True or False: Palladia (toceranib phosphate) is used for treating cutaneous mast cell tumors.

A

True

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11
Q

What are some side effects of Palladia?

A
  • GI upset
  • PLN
  • Lameness
  • Dermatopathy
  • Neutropenia
  • Hepatopathy

These side effects highlight the importance of monitoring during treatment.

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12
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Tanovea (rabacfosadine)?

A

Inhibits DNA polymerase alpha, δ, and ε.

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13
Q

What is the significance of rapamycin in veterinary oncology?

A

It exhibits potent antitumor and immunosuppressive effects through mTOR signaling.

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14
Q

Fill in the blank: Stelfonta (tigilanol tiglate) stimulates the immune response to target _______.

A

tumor cells and tumor vasculature

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15
Q

What is the action of Gilvetmab?

A

Binds canine programmed cell death receptor-1, interrupting PD-L1/L2 and PD-1 interaction.

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16
Q

What are the common side effects of Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)?

A
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Low white blood cell count
  • Tissue damage
  • Heart disease

These side effects necessitate careful monitoring during treatment.

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17
Q

What type of drug is Vincristine?

A

Vinca alkaloid and anti microtubule agent.

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18
Q

What is a notable side effect of Vinblastine compared to Vincristine?

A

More myelosuppression.

Vinca alkaloids; MDR1

Bind to B tubulin and blocks microtuble formation, prevents mitotic spindle formation; arrests cells in metaphase; inhib glutamic acid util and prev purine synth, citric acid cycle, and urea formation

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19
Q

What is the primary use of Cyclophosphamide?

A

Treatment of lymphoma, hematopoietic tumors, carcinoma, and sarcomas.

Alkylating agent; 4OHCP metab; interferes w/DNA rep + RNA transcr

Sterile cystitis; diuresis recc during treatment

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20
Q

What is a significant risk associated with Cisplatin?

A

Nephrotoxicity, especially in cats.

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21
Q

Fill in the blank: Procarbazine is classified as an _______ agent.

Study These Flashcards
A

atypical alkylating

22
Q

What are the two main toxicity types associated with Bleomycin?

Study These Flashcards
A
  • Acute toxicity
  • Delayed toxicity

Acute effects may include fever and vomiting, while delayed effects can lead to pulmonary fibrosis.

23
Q

What is the action of Hydroxyurea?

Study These Flashcards
A

Inhibits DNA synthesis.

24
Q

True or False: Methotrexate is primarily used in lymphoma treatment.

25
What is the mechanism of Dactinomycin?
Forms a complex with DNA, inhibiting RNA synthesis.
26
What class of drug is Chlorambucil?
Alkylating agent.
27
What type of cells are most sensitive to treatment?
Proliferating cells such as neoplasms, bone marrow, gastrointestinal tract, and fetal cells.
28
What is Dactinomycin?
An antibiotic antineoplastic agent that forms a complex with DNA, inhibiting RNA synthesis.
29
List two main toxicities associated with Dactinomycin.
* GI toxicity * Myelosuppression
30
What types of cancers can Dactinomycin be used to treat?
* Lymphoma * Bone and soft tissue sarcoma * Carcinoma (limited efficacy)
31
What is Chlorambucil commonly used for?
As an alkylating agent and immunosuppressant.
32
What side effect can occur with Chlorambucil treatment?
Low white blood cell and/or platelet count.
33
How long after starting Chlorambucil do drops in blood counts typically occur?
Several weeks to months.
34
What is the mechanism of action of Chlorambucil?
Primarily cytotoxic due to alkylation of cancer cell DNA resulting in cross-linking and apoptosis.
35
What is Melphalan used to treat?
* Multiple myeloma * Resistant leukemia * Lymphoma
36
What is a significant side effect of Melphalan?
Chronic bone marrow suppression.
37
What type of drug is Lomustine (CCNU)?
An oral antineoplastic. | Mast cell tumors, histiocytic sarcoma, rescue lymphoma ## Footnote Idiosyncratic hepatocellular injury, pulmonary infiltrates or fibrosis; cell cycle phase nonspecific; inhib DNA, RNA protein synth thru alkylation and carbamoylation
38
List two toxicities associated with Lomustine.
* Myelosuppression * Idiosyncratic hepatocellular injury
39
What is Procarbazine used for?
An atypical alkylating agent used in multiagent lymphoma protocols. | Alkylating agent ## Footnote Inhibits protein, RNA, DNA synthesis; auto oxidized into hydrogen peroxide
40
What is the mechanism of action of the Melanoma vaccine?
Targets tyrosinase, inducing immunity based on T cell responses.
41
What type of vaccine is the Osteosarcoma vaccine?
A modified live attenuated strain of listeria.
42
What is the function of bisphosphonates?
Reduce osteoclast activity by causing cell death.
43
What is the mortality rate for post-chemotherapy febrile neutropenia?
Nearly 9%.
44
What is Mensa used for?
Reduces risk of cystitis by ifosfamide or cyclophosphamide.
45
What does Dexrazoxane protect against?
Doxorubicin-associated chronic cardiotoxicosis.
46
What is the most common organism cultured in post-febrile neutropenia?
Staphylococcus.
47
Fill in the blank: The mechanism of action of Lomustine is not fully understood, but it inhibits _______ synthesis through alkylation and carbamoylation.
DNA, RNA, and protein
48
True or False: Vinorelbine is a vinca alkaloid used to treat lung tumors.
True
49
What is a common side effect of chemotherapy associated with doxorubicin?
Extravasation injury.
50
Cytarabine
Parenteral immunosuppressant/antineoplastic used in dogs and cats for lymphoreticular neoplasms and leukemias and meningoencephalomyelitis of unknown origin. converted intracellularly into aracytidine triphosphate, which competes with deoxycytidine triphosphate to inhibit DNA polymerase, resulting in inhibition of DNA synthesis. Cytarabine is specific to the S phase of the cell cycle (DNA synthesis) and blocks cell progress from the G1 phase to the S phase. Incorporation of cytarabine into DNA is responsible for both drug activity and toxicity. most common adverse effects following IV CRI are GI (65%) and hematologic toxicities, with neutropenia (35%) and thrombocytopenia (12%) being the most common.1,17 Myelosuppressive effects (eg, anemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia) are more pronounced with IV versus SC administration. Lower doses in dogs (eg, for inflammatory brain disease) had minimal adverse effects (ie, mild to moderate anemia in less than 1% of patients). Humans experience biphasic leukocyte nadir, first from days 7 to 9 and again at days 15 to 24, with a brief rise in cell count between the nadirs. Platelet decreases begin around day 5, with nadir occurring at ≈days 12 to 15. GI disturbances include anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and oral ulceration. Neurotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, lethargy, and fever may also occur with cytarabine therapy. Increased ALT was noted in 15% of dogs in a study. Alopecia and delayed regrowth of shaven hair have been reported in dogs; breeds with a continuously growing hair coat (eg, poodles, terriers, Afghan hounds, old English sheepdogs) are more likely to experience significant hair loss. Three cases (n = 138) of calcinosis cutis at cytarabine SC injection sites were reported in dogs receiving concurrent prednisolone for treatment of meningoencephalomyelitis of unknown etiology. In addition, there was 1 case report of suspected drug-induced infiltrative lung disease following a 24 hour cytarabine infusion. | S phase specific

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