Chemotherapy Flashcards

Midwestern University PA Pharmacology 560 - Fall 2013 Dr. Korch (62 cards)

1
Q

why is chemotherapy unique?

A
  1. selective toxicity
  2. selects for resistant strains
  3. hypersensitivity and organ directed toxicity = problem
  4. lowers microorganism load
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2
Q

define: selective toxicity

A

need greater toxicity to parasite than host

if more toxic to host, then no benefit

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3
Q

is maintenance of blood levels more important with bacteriostatic agents or bactericidal agents?

A

bacteriostatic

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4
Q

how does chemotherapy select for drug resistant strains?

A
  1. natural/acquired
  2. mechanisms
  3. multiple drug resistance, usu transferred by plasmids
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5
Q

what are the MECHANISMS by which chemotherapy selects for drug resistant strains?

A
  • pathogen/cell fails to absorb drug
  • pathogen/cell inactivates drug
  • pathogen/cell pumps drug out
  • drug target is modified, thus resistant to drug
  • increased production of target molecules
  • altered metabolic pathway bypasses drug target
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6
Q

how is antimicrobial resistance acquired?

A
  1. by a mutation & passed vertically by selection to daughter cells
  2. by horizontal transfer of resistant determinants from donor cell (usu from bacterial species)
    - by transduction
    - by transformation
    - by conjugation
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7
Q

“____________ resistant strains of pneumococci account for 50% + isolates in Europe and is rising in the US.”

A

“PENICILLIN resistant strains of pneumococci account for 50% + isolates in Europe and is rising in the US.”

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8
Q

“The worldwide emergence of Haemophilus & gonococci that produce ____________ is a major therapeutic problem.”

A

“The worldwide emergence of Haemophilus & gonococci that produce BETA LACTAMASE is a major therapeutic problem.”

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9
Q

“____________ is widely distributed among hospitals.”

A

“MRSA is widely distributed among hospitals.”

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10
Q

“There are strains of ________, _________, & ________ that are resistant to all known drugs.”

A

“There are strains of ENTEROCOCCI, PSEUDOMONAS, & ENTEROBACTERS that are resistant to all known drugs.”

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11
Q

“____________ is widely distributed among hospitals.”

A

“MRSA is widely distributed among hospitals.”

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12
Q

“There are strains of ________, _________, & ________ that are resistant to all known drugs.”

A

“There are strains of ENTEROCOCCI, PSEUDOMONAS, & ENTEROBACTERS that are resistant to all known drugs.”

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13
Q

“Epidemics of multiple drug resistant strains of _________ have been reported in the US.”

A

“Epidemics of multiple drug resistant strains of M.TUBERCULOSIS have been reported in the US.”

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14
Q

what are common categories of adverse effects of antimicrobial therapy?

A
  1. overextension of pharmacologic actions
  2. organ directed toxicity
  3. hypersensitivity rxns
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15
Q

what drugs are known for hepatotoxicity?

A
  • tetracyclines
  • isoniazid
  • erythromycin estolate
  • clindamycin
  • sulfonamides
  • amphotericin B
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16
Q

what drugs are known for renal toxicity?

A
  • cephalosporins
  • vancomycin
  • aminoglycosides
  • sulfonamides
  • amphotericin B
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17
Q

what drugs are known for ototoxicity?

A
  • aminoglycosides
  • vancomycin
  • minocycline (vestibular only)
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18
Q

what drugs are known for visual toxicity?

A
  • ethambutol

- isoniazid

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19
Q

what are idiosyncrasies that can occur in response to drugs?

A
  • hemolytic anemia (sulfonamides, nitrofurantoin)

- photosensitivity (tetracyclines, flouroquinolones, sulfonamides)

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20
Q

what are allergies that can occur in response to drugs?

A
  • anaphylactic shock
  • skin rashes
  • immune induced blood dyscrasias
  • immune hemolytic anemias
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21
Q

what are idiosyncrasies that can occur in response to drugs?

A
  • hemolytic anemia (sulfonamides, nitrofurantoin)

- photosensitivity (tetracyclines, flouroquinolones, sulfonamides)

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22
Q

what are microorganisms common to gram (+) cocci?

A
  • strep pneum/viridans/pyogenes/agalactiae
  • staph aureus
  • enterococcus
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23
Q

what are microorganisms common to gram (+) bacilli?

A
  • bacillus species
  • listeria species
  • nocardia species
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24
Q

what are microorganisms common to gram (-) cocci?

A
  • moraxella catarrhalis
  • neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • meningitidis
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25
what are microorganisms common to spirochetes?
- t. pallidum | - B. burgdorferi
26
what are anaerobic organisms for which we need meds?
- clostridia - actinomyces - c. diff - bacteriodes fragillis
27
what are microorganisms common to spirochetes?
- t. pallidum | - B. burgdorferi
28
define: bactericidal
cell death
29
define: bacteriostatic
growth inhibition
30
define: MIC
minimum inhibitory concentration - need certain concentration to do job
31
define: time dependent killing
killing not increased w/ increasing concentrations above MCB (beta lactams, vancomycin), but dependent on time of exposure to antibiotic
32
define: concentration dependent killing
rate/extent of killing dependent upon drug concentration | aminoglycosides, quinolones
33
define: time dependent killing
killing not increased w/ increasing concentrations above MCB (beta lactams, vancomycin), but dependent on time of exposure to antibiotic
34
define: PAE
post antibiotic effect = persistent suppression of bacterial growth after limited exposure to antimicrobial agent (amino glycosides, quinolones) - in vivo longer due to postantibiotic leukocyte enhancement
35
example of synergism mechanism: | enhancement of antimicrobial agent uptake?
penicillins increase uptake of amino glycosides & amphotericin B increases uptake of flu cytosine by fungi
36
example of synergism mechanism: | inhibition of enzymatic inactivation?
beta-lactamase inhibitors
37
example of synergism mechanism: | enhancement of antimicrobial agent uptake?
penicillins increase uptake of amino glycosides & amphotericin B increases uptake of flu cytosine by fungi
38
example for improved therapeutic effects: | enterococcal endocarditis?
penicillin + aminoglycoside
39
example for improved therapeutic effects: | Pseudomonas infections
penicillin + aminoglycoside
40
example for improved therapeutic effects: | Brucellosis
doxycycline + rifampin or aminoglycoside
41
example for improved therapeutic effects: | Helicobacter pylori
bismuth + metronidazole + tetracycline
42
example for improved therapeutic effects: | listeria
ampillin + aminoglycoside
43
what are the two mechanisms of antagonism?
1. inhibition of bactericidal activity by bacteriostatic agents 2. induction of enzymatic inactivation (some gram neg bacilli contain inducible beta lactamases)
44
example for improved therapeutic effects: | P. aeruginosa
gentamycin + carbenicillin
45
what are the two mechanisms of antagonism?
1. inhibition of bactericidal activity by bacteriostatic agents 2. induction of enzymatic inactivation (some gram neg bacilli contain inducible beta lactamases)
46
what are common misuses of drugs/failures of therapy?
- attempts to treat untreatable infections - therapy of FUO - improper dosage - improper dosage - improper duration
47
how do super infections develop?
- usu w/ broad spectrum antibiotics, usu during chemotherapy of infection (usu evidence of new infection)
48
most common superinfection & characteristics?
INTESTINAL CANDIDIASIS: - fungal superinfection - usu antibiotic therapy continued, fungal superinfection treated w/ oral nystatin or amphotericin B
49
superinfection staphylococcal enterocolitis?
- LIFE THREATENING - discontinue antibiotic therapy - treat w/ oral vancomycin
50
superinfection pseudomembranous colitis?
- life threatening (first seem after clindamycin) - caused by C-diff - discontinue therapy, treat w/ oral metronidazole or vancomycin - severe cases must be treated for symptoms w/ fluids, electrolytes, corticosteroids
51
when do you use antibacterial prophylaxis?
when efficacy has been demonstrated and benefits outweigh risk of prophylaxis
52
antibacterial prophylaxis: | surgical procedures
cefazolin (usu drug of choice)
53
antibacterial prophylaxis: | genital herpes
acyclovir
54
antibacterial prophylaxis: | group B strep
ampicillin or pen G
55
antibacterial prophylaxis: | Haemophilus influenza type B
rifampin
56
antibacterial prophylaxis: | malaria
chloroquine
57
antibacterial prophylaxis: | meningococcal infection
rifampin
58
antibacterial prophylaxis: | pertussis
erythromycin
59
antibacterial prophylaxis: | pneumococcemia
pen G
60
antibacterial prophylaxis: | pneumocystis carinii
trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole
61
antibacterial prophylaxis: | TB
isoniazid
62
antibacterial prophylaxis: | UTIs
trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole