Chemotherapy Flashcards

Midwestern University PA Pharmacology 560 - Fall 2013 Dr. Korch

1
Q

why is chemotherapy unique?

A
  1. selective toxicity
  2. selects for resistant strains
  3. hypersensitivity and organ directed toxicity = problem
  4. lowers microorganism load
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2
Q

define: selective toxicity

A

need greater toxicity to parasite than host

if more toxic to host, then no benefit

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3
Q

is maintenance of blood levels more important with bacteriostatic agents or bactericidal agents?

A

bacteriostatic

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4
Q

how does chemotherapy select for drug resistant strains?

A
  1. natural/acquired
  2. mechanisms
  3. multiple drug resistance, usu transferred by plasmids
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5
Q

what are the MECHANISMS by which chemotherapy selects for drug resistant strains?

A
  • pathogen/cell fails to absorb drug
  • pathogen/cell inactivates drug
  • pathogen/cell pumps drug out
  • drug target is modified, thus resistant to drug
  • increased production of target molecules
  • altered metabolic pathway bypasses drug target
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6
Q

how is antimicrobial resistance acquired?

A
  1. by a mutation & passed vertically by selection to daughter cells
  2. by horizontal transfer of resistant determinants from donor cell (usu from bacterial species)
    - by transduction
    - by transformation
    - by conjugation
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7
Q

“____________ resistant strains of pneumococci account for 50% + isolates in Europe and is rising in the US.”

A

“PENICILLIN resistant strains of pneumococci account for 50% + isolates in Europe and is rising in the US.”

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8
Q

“The worldwide emergence of Haemophilus & gonococci that produce ____________ is a major therapeutic problem.”

A

“The worldwide emergence of Haemophilus & gonococci that produce BETA LACTAMASE is a major therapeutic problem.”

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9
Q

“____________ is widely distributed among hospitals.”

A

“MRSA is widely distributed among hospitals.”

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10
Q

“There are strains of ________, _________, & ________ that are resistant to all known drugs.”

A

“There are strains of ENTEROCOCCI, PSEUDOMONAS, & ENTEROBACTERS that are resistant to all known drugs.”

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11
Q

“____________ is widely distributed among hospitals.”

A

“MRSA is widely distributed among hospitals.”

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12
Q

“There are strains of ________, _________, & ________ that are resistant to all known drugs.”

A

“There are strains of ENTEROCOCCI, PSEUDOMONAS, & ENTEROBACTERS that are resistant to all known drugs.”

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13
Q

“Epidemics of multiple drug resistant strains of _________ have been reported in the US.”

A

“Epidemics of multiple drug resistant strains of M.TUBERCULOSIS have been reported in the US.”

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14
Q

what are common categories of adverse effects of antimicrobial therapy?

A
  1. overextension of pharmacologic actions
  2. organ directed toxicity
  3. hypersensitivity rxns
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15
Q

what drugs are known for hepatotoxicity?

A
  • tetracyclines
  • isoniazid
  • erythromycin estolate
  • clindamycin
  • sulfonamides
  • amphotericin B
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16
Q

what drugs are known for renal toxicity?

A
  • cephalosporins
  • vancomycin
  • aminoglycosides
  • sulfonamides
  • amphotericin B
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17
Q

what drugs are known for ototoxicity?

A
  • aminoglycosides
  • vancomycin
  • minocycline (vestibular only)
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18
Q

what drugs are known for visual toxicity?

A
  • ethambutol

- isoniazid

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19
Q

what are idiosyncrasies that can occur in response to drugs?

A
  • hemolytic anemia (sulfonamides, nitrofurantoin)

- photosensitivity (tetracyclines, flouroquinolones, sulfonamides)

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20
Q

what are allergies that can occur in response to drugs?

A
  • anaphylactic shock
  • skin rashes
  • immune induced blood dyscrasias
  • immune hemolytic anemias
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21
Q

what are idiosyncrasies that can occur in response to drugs?

A
  • hemolytic anemia (sulfonamides, nitrofurantoin)

- photosensitivity (tetracyclines, flouroquinolones, sulfonamides)

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22
Q

what are microorganisms common to gram (+) cocci?

A
  • strep pneum/viridans/pyogenes/agalactiae
  • staph aureus
  • enterococcus
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23
Q

what are microorganisms common to gram (+) bacilli?

A
  • bacillus species
  • listeria species
  • nocardia species
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24
Q

what are microorganisms common to gram (-) cocci?

A
  • moraxella catarrhalis
  • neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • meningitidis
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25
Q

what are microorganisms common to spirochetes?

A
  • t. pallidum

- B. burgdorferi

26
Q

what are anaerobic organisms for which we need meds?

A
  • clostridia
  • actinomyces
  • c. diff
  • bacteriodes fragillis
27
Q

what are microorganisms common to spirochetes?

A
  • t. pallidum

- B. burgdorferi

28
Q

define: bactericidal

A

cell death

29
Q

define: bacteriostatic

A

growth inhibition

30
Q

define: MIC

A

minimum inhibitory concentration - need certain concentration to do job

31
Q

define: time dependent killing

A

killing not increased w/ increasing concentrations above MCB (beta lactams, vancomycin), but dependent on time of exposure to antibiotic

32
Q

define: concentration dependent killing

A

rate/extent of killing dependent upon drug concentration

aminoglycosides, quinolones

33
Q

define: time dependent killing

A

killing not increased w/ increasing concentrations above MCB (beta lactams, vancomycin), but dependent on time of exposure to antibiotic

34
Q

define: PAE

A

post antibiotic effect = persistent suppression of bacterial growth after limited exposure to antimicrobial agent (amino glycosides, quinolones)
- in vivo longer due to postantibiotic leukocyte enhancement

35
Q

example of synergism mechanism:

enhancement of antimicrobial agent uptake?

A

penicillins increase uptake of amino glycosides & amphotericin B increases uptake of flu cytosine by fungi

36
Q

example of synergism mechanism:

inhibition of enzymatic inactivation?

A

beta-lactamase inhibitors

37
Q

example of synergism mechanism:

enhancement of antimicrobial agent uptake?

A

penicillins increase uptake of amino glycosides & amphotericin B increases uptake of flu cytosine by fungi

38
Q

example for improved therapeutic effects:

enterococcal endocarditis?

A

penicillin + aminoglycoside

39
Q

example for improved therapeutic effects:

Pseudomonas infections

A

penicillin + aminoglycoside

40
Q

example for improved therapeutic effects:

Brucellosis

A

doxycycline + rifampin or aminoglycoside

41
Q

example for improved therapeutic effects:

Helicobacter pylori

A

bismuth + metronidazole + tetracycline

42
Q

example for improved therapeutic effects:

listeria

A

ampillin + aminoglycoside

43
Q

what are the two mechanisms of antagonism?

A
  1. inhibition of bactericidal activity by bacteriostatic agents
  2. induction of enzymatic inactivation (some gram neg bacilli contain inducible beta lactamases)
44
Q

example for improved therapeutic effects:

P. aeruginosa

A

gentamycin + carbenicillin

45
Q

what are the two mechanisms of antagonism?

A
  1. inhibition of bactericidal activity by bacteriostatic agents
  2. induction of enzymatic inactivation (some gram neg bacilli contain inducible beta lactamases)
46
Q

what are common misuses of drugs/failures of therapy?

A
  • attempts to treat untreatable infections
  • therapy of FUO
  • improper dosage
  • improper dosage
  • improper duration
47
Q

how do super infections develop?

A
  • usu w/ broad spectrum antibiotics, usu during chemotherapy of infection (usu evidence of new infection)
48
Q

most common superinfection & characteristics?

A

INTESTINAL CANDIDIASIS:

  • fungal superinfection
  • usu antibiotic therapy continued, fungal superinfection treated w/ oral nystatin or amphotericin B
49
Q

superinfection staphylococcal enterocolitis?

A
  • LIFE THREATENING
  • discontinue antibiotic therapy
  • treat w/ oral vancomycin
50
Q

superinfection pseudomembranous colitis?

A
  • life threatening (first seem after clindamycin)
  • caused by C-diff
  • discontinue therapy, treat w/ oral metronidazole or vancomycin
  • severe cases must be treated for symptoms w/ fluids, electrolytes, corticosteroids
51
Q

when do you use antibacterial prophylaxis?

A

when efficacy has been demonstrated and benefits outweigh risk of prophylaxis

52
Q

antibacterial prophylaxis:

surgical procedures

A

cefazolin (usu drug of choice)

53
Q

antibacterial prophylaxis:

genital herpes

A

acyclovir

54
Q

antibacterial prophylaxis:

group B strep

A

ampicillin or pen G

55
Q

antibacterial prophylaxis:

Haemophilus influenza type B

A

rifampin

56
Q

antibacterial prophylaxis:

malaria

A

chloroquine

57
Q

antibacterial prophylaxis:

meningococcal infection

A

rifampin

58
Q

antibacterial prophylaxis:

pertussis

A

erythromycin

59
Q

antibacterial prophylaxis:

pneumococcemia

A

pen G

60
Q

antibacterial prophylaxis:

pneumocystis carinii

A

trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole

61
Q

antibacterial prophylaxis:

TB

A

isoniazid

62
Q

antibacterial prophylaxis:

UTIs

A

trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole