Chemotherapy Flashcards

(80 cards)

1
Q

approximately what % of cancer patients will be chemotherapy

A

60-70%

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2
Q

how does chemotherapy exert an anti-cancer action

A

Most target DNA directly or indirectly

preferentially toxic towards actively proliferating cells

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3
Q

what are chemotherapeutic agents preferentially toxic towards

A

actively proliferating cells

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4
Q

which tumours normally act best to chemotherapy

A

those that divide rapidly with short doubling times

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5
Q

what is neoadjuvant chemotherapy

A

Pre-operative treatment of an operable tumour before definitive surgical intervention

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6
Q

what are the aims of neoadjuvant chemotherapy

A

to make the tumour smaller to allow less radical surgery and can also treat occult micro metastases

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7
Q

what is primary chemotherapy

A

initial chemotherapy for a tumour that is inoperable/unsure if operable, reduction of the tumour via chemo may make surgery with curative intent more feasible.
treatment which increases future cure rates

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8
Q

what is adjuvant chemotherapy

A

chemotherapy following a complete macroscopic clearance at surgery. Treats occult microscopic metastases which can cause relapse after surgery

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9
Q

what is palliative chemotherapy

A

treatment to alleviate symptoms and sometimes to prolong life in patients who cannot be cured.
carefully balanced decision so that the patients QoL doesnt get worse
can be given 2/3rd line chemo if disease remains chemo sensitive

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10
Q

what is curative chemotherapy

A

in some cancers there is a chance of cure even if there are distant metastases at presentation. justifies a more intensive treatment with greater toxicity

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11
Q

what cancers can be cured by chemo even with metastatic disease at presentation

A

Germ cell tumours
Hodgkins disease
Non-Hodgkins lymphoma
many childhood cancers

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12
Q

what is prophylactic chemotherapy

A

when hormonal treatments are given before obvious malignancy appears.
eg Tamoxifen may be used for in-situ breast cancer before invasive carcinoma is recognised

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13
Q

3 reasons why chemotherapy is usually given as a combination of drugs

A
  1. cancer drugs can act synergistically to kill more cancer cells together than they would do alone
  2. less chance of drug-resistant malignant cells emerging
  3. when drugs with different sites of toxicity are combined , dose can be maintained for each drug
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14
Q

when is single agent chemotherapy often used

A

in a palliative setting

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15
Q

why is chemo given cyclically

A

to allow normal cells to recover

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16
Q

which cells are usually affected at standard doses of chemotherapy

A

haematopoietic stem cells - low blood counts (mylesuppression)
lining of GI tract - mucositis

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17
Q

what is mucositis

A

Painful inflammation and ulceration of the mucous membranes lining the digestive tract, usually as an adverse effect of chemotherapy and radiotherapy

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18
Q

what is a conventional dose of chemo drug

A

doses of drugs known to be effect against the particular malignancy and where the side effects are tolerable in most patients

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19
Q

what support is required for patients having high dose treatments

A

bone marrow support

growth factors

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20
Q

under what circumstances/cancers are high dose treatments used

A

only when long term survival or cure are possible

cancers: Hodgkins disease and Ewings sarcoma

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21
Q

what is the advantage of oral chemotherapy

A

patient doesnt have to be in hospital attached to a drip

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22
Q

what is the disadvantage of oral chemotherapy

A

variable levels of drug in circulation based on whether and when the drug was taken

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23
Q

which chemo drugs are available orally

A

cyclophosphamide
Etoposide
Capecitabine
Tamoxifen

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24
Q

what is intravesical chemotherapy

A

chemo given straight in to the bladder - for bladder cancer

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25
what are the advantages of intravesical cancer
produces high doses at the site of the tumour little systemic absorption minimal toxicity
26
what is intraperitoneal chemotherapy
chemo directly in to the peritoneal cavity
27
when would intraperitoneal chemo be given
for tumours that spread trans-coelomically (eg ovarian cancer)
28
what type of tumours are most suited to intra-arterial chemo
those with a well-defined blood supply
29
an example of intra-arterial chemo
hepatic artery infusion for liver metastases
30
what are the advantages of intra-arterial chemotherapy
higher doses to be delivered to the involved site | reduced systemic toxicity
31
how is the dose of routine chemo drugs calculated
on body surface area of the patient
32
How is the dose of the chemo drug carboplatin calculated
directly according to renal function
33
which cancer have a cure of advanced disease from chemo in >50% of cases
``` Hodgkin's disease Testicular cancer Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia Choriocarcinoma Paediatric cancers: leukaemias, lymphomas and sarcomas ```
34
which cancers have <50% cure of advanced disease from chemo
Non hodgkins lymphoma Ovarian cancer Paediatric neuroblastoma Adult osteosarcoma, Ewing's sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcomas
35
which cancers have an increased cure rathe in high risk loco regional disease
``` Breast Colorectal Non-small cell lung cancer Oesophageal and gastric cancer Bladder cancer ```
36
what does remission mean in terms of cancer
areas of the cancer shrink, | with reduction in symptoms and frequently disease control for several months once treatment course is completed.
37
what are 3 cancers considered curable
Breast cancer Small cell lung cancer Ovarian
38
which cancers are considered to have a prolonged survival with chemo but there are few cures in advanced disease
``` Non small cell lung cancer Colorectal cancer Gastric Breast Bladder Prostate ```
39
which cancers often have palliation of symptoms with chemo but limited responses
``` Renal cancer Melanoma head and neck cancer Pancreatic cancer Biliary tract cancers ```
40
what are the main aims for the use of combination chemotherapy regimens
max cell kill min toxicity to non-tumour cells min development of resistance
41
How many tumour cells are usually killed per cycle of chemo
2 log reduciton (eg from 10^9 to 10^7)
42
in chemo combination regimes how is toxicity minimized
avoid giving 2 or more drugs with the similar adverse effects as this may cause intolerable toxicity. Agents with distinct organs of toxicity allow dose to be kept high
43
how does giving multiple drugs in chemo minimise drug resistance
more tumour cells are killed when more drugs given | so increases probability of killing the initial population
44
what procedure is necessary to deal with high dose regimes of chemotherapy
bone marrow transplant | peripheral Haematopoietic progenitor (stem cells) now more commonly used
45
what class of drug is most commonly used to treat nausea and vomiting from chemo
5-HT antagonists (eg Ondansetron)
46
How is myelosuppression caused in chemo
Chemo causes bone marrow suppression by killing haematopoietic progenitor cells
47
at what after the chemo is the leuopenia and thrombocytopenia
10-14 days from the beginning of each cycle
48
what is the lowest point of the drop in leukocytes and neurophils called
the nadir
49
what count of neutrophils is generally not associated with infection
>1x10^9/1
50
what what level of neurophils is there significant risk of infection
0.5x10^9/1
51
how long does haematopoietic recovery usually take
3-4 weeks (usually the length of cycles)
52
what are the common GI side effects of chemo
oral mucositis diarrhoea constipation - dehydration, reduced oral intake, adverse effects of medications eg opiates and 5-HT antagonists
53
what causes the side effect of alopecia associated with chemo
the effects of the cytotoxic drugs on the rapidly dividing cell population at the hair follicle.
54
what can sometimes be used to try and minimise the alopecia
a cold cap - reduces the blood flow to the scalp
55
what are the 4 types of neurological toxicity associated with chemo
Peripheral neuropathy Autonomic neuropathy Central neurological toxicity Ototoxicity
56
what chemo drugs causes peripheral neuropathies
Platinum drugs: cisplatin, taxanes and vinca alkaloids
57
which chemo drug is associated with hearing loss
cisplatin - due to cochlear damage
58
what is the effect of cisplatin on hearing
can cause permanent high tone hearing loss
59
which s chemo drug is nephrotoxic
platinum agents - mostly cisplatin and ifosfamide (alkylating agent)
60
which chemo drugs have bladder toxicity
Cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide
61
what can the drugs causing bladder toxicity cause
haemorrhagic cystitis (in a dose dependent manner)
62
which chemo drug can cause coronary artery spasm
5-FU
63
what skin/soft tissue side effects can be caused by chemo drugs
Extravasation Palmar and plantar erythema Photosensitivity Pigmentation
64
what is extravasation
when a chemo drug leaks in to the surrounding tissue (of the cannula)
65
what is hand-foot syndrome
palmar and plantar erythema
66
what chemo drug causes pigmentation
bleomycin causes skin and nail pigmentation
67
what chemo drug is associated with the side effects of myalgia and arthralgia?
paclitaxel
68
which are the most carcinogenic anti-cancer drugs
alkylating agents and procarbazine
69
which long term side effect is increasing with more people surviving cancer
Secondary malignancies (from anti-cancer drugs)
70
which chemo drugs can cause pulmonary fibrosis in the long term
bleomycin | busulphan
71
when does the nadir on myelosuppression normally occur?
about 10-12 days after chemo
72
what can cause pancytopenia
bone marrow replacement by malignant infiltration
73
what type of cancers is pancytopenia more common in
haematlogical malignancies breast lung prostate cancer
74
what type of anaemia can be caused by repeated chemo
macrocytic anaemia
75
What Hb level do oncology pts require a blood transfusion
Hb <10 gldl
76
what are 4 clinical signs of thrombocytopenia
petechial haemorrhage spontaneous nosebleeds corneal haemorrhage haematuria
77
If thrombocytopenia is prolonged, what sort of transfusion is required
platelet
78
what level of platelets requires urgent platelet transfusion
<10 x10^9/L
79
what is the most frequent cause of morbidity and mortality associated with myelosuppression
neutropenic infection
80
what is the criteria for immediate in-patient broad spectrum antibiotics for neutropenic infection
FEVER | total white cell counts <1 x10^9/L