CHEMPATH: EMQs on enzymes and chemistry Flashcards

(32 cards)

1
Q

Which one is increased in a patient with Paget’s disease of the bone?

A

C - alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and osteocalcin

Increased due to increased activity of both osteoblasts (causes raised osteocalcin) and osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

List 3 features of Paget’s disease.

A
  • Asymptomatic
  • Bowed tibia (it will also be warm)
  • High risk of fracture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which one is increased in a patient with osteomalacia?

A

PTH

Lack of vitamin D –> 2nd HPT –> high PTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which one is increased in a patient following an acute myocardial infarction?

A

Answer: troponins, CK (MB), AST, LDH

(AST is important in gluconeogenesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is raised in Addison’s disease?

A

potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is most raised in jaundice caused by a gallstone?

A

ALP - consider liver zonation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which one is most increased in a patient with jaundice caused by viral hepatitis?

A

ALT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which one is most increased in a patient with jaundice caused by chronic alcoholic cirrhosis?

A

AST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which one is most increased in a patient with prostatic carcinoma?

A

Acid phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which scan would you use to look for bony mets?

A

Bone scan Tc bisphosphonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What investigations are useful to make the diagnosis of Paget’s disease?

A

Bone scan with Tc bisphosphonate - used to see bone turnover in cancer patients to look for bony metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name another technetium 99 scan.

A

Technetium 99m (pertechnetate) scan for iodine uptake by thyroids:

  • Diffuse uptake = diffuse goitre / Graves’ disease
  • Unilateral uptake / hot nodule = adenoma

Tc99m-sestamibi for parathyroids - absorbed faster by a hyperfunctioning parathyroid gland than by a normal parathyroid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What nuclear scan is used to look for abdominal metastases in oncology? What marker is used?

A

FDG-PET Scans – looks at glucose uptake​

Marker = FDG (fluorodeoxyglucose)

  • Non-specific marker as glucose is taken up by ANY active cell
  • Cancer cells are more active so they will take up more FDG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What feature of a scan will indicate that you are looking at a Gallium 68 DOTATATE scan using somatostatin analogues?

A

Spleen will appear hot - because it has a lot of somatostatin receptors.

  • Kidneys, pancreas, cysts in kidneys, and adrenals will also appear hot.
  • Gallium 68 stuck onto a somatostatin analogue will go to tissues that have smatostatin receptors i.e. any neuroendocrine cells.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which scan would you use to visualise primary neuroendocrine tumours?

A

Neuroendocrine tumours (insulinomas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which radionucleotide scan would you use to identify phaechromocytomas?

A

MIBG (Meta-Iodobenzylguanidine) Scan

+ Gallium dotatate - picks up any neuroendocrine tumour (includes phaeochromocytoma and insulinomas)

17
Q

Which radionucleotide scan can you use to look at the parathyroids?

A

Sestamibi / Sesta MIBI (scintigraphy)

  • Tc99m-sestamibi is absorbed faster by a hyperfunctioning parathyroid gland than by a normal parathyroid gland
18
Q

How would the myocardium appear on Sestamibi scan during MI?

A

There would be an area of lack of uptake

20
Q

Label these parts of the portal triad.

21
Q

Which liver zone is damaged in obstructive jaundice causing a rise in ALP?

A

Zone 1 - around the bile duct in the portal triad

22
Q

What is raised in someone with primary HPT?

23
Q

What is low in primary HPT?

24
Q

What rises the most in acute renal failure?

A

Urea - if caused by dehydration

25
What rises the most in chronic renal failure?
creatinine - because there is a fall in GFR
26
What is a marker of glucose control over last 3 months?
HbA1c
27
What is a marker of glucose control over last 3 weeks?
fructosamine Used in pregnancy where you cannot wait 3 months to assess HbA1c. Glucose control becomes very important later in pregnancy as more insulin resistance may develop.
28
When will AST rise after MI and how long will it remain elevated?
* Goes up ~3 days after an MI * Remains for around 14 days (3-14 days) Enzymes that increase following MI: * **_Troponins_** (B, D) * CK MB (C) * Myoglobin (A) * AST * LDH
29
Why does rhabdomyolysis cause acute kidney injury?
Myoglobin is very nephrotoxic Very high CK (from muscle breakdown) will lead to renal failure
30
How can you prevent renal failure after rhabdomyolysis?
IV bicarbonate - allows excretion of extra CK
31
What is the ratio of AST to ALT in differrent conditions?
**ALT\> AST -** in patients with viral hepatitis **AST to ALT of 2:1** - in patients with chronic alcoholic cirrhosis
32
What are the main 5 indications for dialysis?
* Indications for Dialysis: * Refractory hyperkalaemia * Refractory fluid overload * Metabolic acidosis * Uraemic symptoms (encephalopathy, nausea, pruritis, malaise, pericarditis) * CKD stage 5 (GFR \<15mL/min)