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CHN > Chn 3rd year > Flashcards

Chn 3rd year Flashcards

1
Q
  1. After teaching a group of nursing students about the similarities and differences between public
    health and community health, which of the following statements by a nursing student would
    indicate knowledge of the similarities and differences between public health and community
    health?
    A) “Community health nursing is defined as nursing care that is provided in a community
    setting, rather than an institutional setting.”
    B) “Public health nursing is defined as nursing care that is provided in an institutional
    setting.”
    C) “Public health nursing is focused on the health of individuals.”
    D) “Community health nursing can shape the quality of community health services and
    improve the health of the general public.”
A

D) “Community health nursing can shape the quality of community health services and
improve the health of the general public.”

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2
Q

Which of the following statements would best describe the difference between public health
nursing and community health nursing?
A) Public health nursing is focused on the private aspects of health, and community health
nursing is focused on the public aspects of health.
B) In our textbook, the term community health practice refers to a focus on specific,
designated communities and is a part of the larger public health effort.
C) Public health nursing and community health nursing relate to the very same types of
services and perspectives.
D) Both public health nursing and community health nursing are practiced exclusively within
institutions.

A

B) In our textbook, the term community health practice refers to a focus on specific,
designated communities and is a part of the larger public health effort.

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3
Q

Which of the following is most accurate about the concept of community?
A) A community is a collection of people who share some important features of their lives.
B) Community members live in the same geographic location.
C) Community members are biologically related.
D) A community is made up of people who do not necessarily interact with one another and
do not necessarily share a sense of belonging to that group.

A

A) A community is a collection of people who share some important features of their lives.

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4
Q

A group of students are reviewing material for a test on populations, communities, and
aggregates. Which of the following indicates that the students understand these concepts?
A) Members of a population share a sense of belonging.
B) Communities and populations are types of aggregates.
C) Individuals of a community are loosely connected.
D) Members of an aggregate share a strong bond.

A

B) Communities and populations are types of aggregates.

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5
Q

Which of the following would a community health nurse identify as a community of common
interest?
A) The global community
B) Small rural town in a northern state
C) National professional organization
D) Counties addressing water pollution

A

C) National professional organization

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6
Q

The nurse is working with a community of solution. Which of the following would the nurse
expect to find?
A) A health problem affecting the group
B) Common goal binding members together
C) Sharing of a similar goal
D) Locational boundaries

A

A) A health problem affecting the group

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7
Q

Which one of the following statements made by a student would the nurse educator recognize as
evidence that a student understands the health continuum?
A) The distinction between health and illness is well demarcated.
B) Illness refers to a state of being relatively unhealthy.
C) The term health is limited to reflect an individual’s state.
D) Treatment of acute conditions reflects the current focus of health care

A

B) Illness refers to a state of being relatively unhealthy.

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8
Q

When discussing the concept of the health continuum with a class, the nurse educator would be
certain to include which statement in the description?
A) Wellness is a relative concept, not an absolute, and illness is a state of being relatively
unhealthy.
B) A client’s placement on the health continuum is static throughout time.
C) Health is best described as cyclic.
D) The health continuum can only be applied to individuals.

A

A) Wellness is a relative concept, not an absolute, and illness is a state of being relatively
unhealthy.

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9
Q

After discussing the leading health indicators with a class, which condition if stated by the class
as one of these indicators suggests that the class has understood the information?
A) Cardiac disease
B) Mental health
C) Sedentary lifestyle
D) Maternal health care

A

B) Mental health

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10
Q

Which of the following statements about health promotion and disease prevention is the most
accurate?
A) Health promotion and disease prevention include all efforts that seek to move people
closer to optimal well-being or higher levels of wellness.
B) Disease prevention differs from health promotion in that disease prevention is targeted
toward a specific disease or diseases.
C) Health promotion can be described in terms of primary, secondary, and tertiary
prevention.
D) The goal of disease prevention is to raise levels of wellness for individuals, families,
populations, and communities

A

B) Disease prevention differs from health promotion in that disease prevention is targeted

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11
Q

A group of community health nursing students design a health education program for a group of
pregnant teens that includes teaching nutrition during pregnancy, demonstrating helpful
exercises, and discussing their concerns. This is an example of which of the following?
A) Health promotion
B) Treatment of disorders
C) Rehabilitation
D) Evaluation

A

A) Health promotion

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12
Q

The community health nurse is developing a plan of primary prevention activities. Which of the
following might the nurse include? Select all that apply.
A) Teaching about safe-sex practices to high school students
B) Encouraging older adults to install safety devices in the bathroom
C) Providing regular immunization programs for communicable diseases
D) Participating in cholesterol screening programs at health fairs
E) Providing skin testing for tuberculosis for children over 1 year of age
F) Working with a group testing water samples for contamination

A

A) Teaching about safe-sex practices to high school students
B) Encouraging older adults to install safety devices in the bathroom
C) Providing regular immunization programs for communicable diseases

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13
Q

A community health nurse is preparing a presentation for a group of nursing students about
community health nursing. Which of the following descriptions about community health nursing
would the nurse most likely include in the presentation?
A) Focusing on addressing continuous needs
B) Working with the client as an equal partner
C) Engaging in tertiary prevention as the priority
D) Encouraging clients to reach out to the nurse

A

B) Working with the client as an equal partner

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14
Q

A community health nurse is working with other members of a team that will be implementing a
citywide immunization program. The nurse is coordinating the services and addressing the needs
of the population groups to ensure which of the following?
A) Involvement of the community
B) Client participation
C) Continuity of service
D) Plan for follow-up

A

C) Continuity of service

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15
Q

Which is the primary goal of community health nursing?

A. To support and supplement the efforts of the medical profession in the promotion of health and prevention of

B. To enhance the capacity of individuals, families and communities to cope with their health needs

C. To increase the productivity of the people by providing them with services that will increase their level of health

D. To contribute to national development through promotion of family welfare, focusing particularly on mothers and children

A

B. To enhance the capacity of individuals, families and communities to cope with their health needs

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16
Q

CHN is a community-based practice. Which best explains this statement?

A. The service is provided in the natural environment of people

B. The nurse has to conduct community diagnosis to determine nursing needs and problems

C. The service are based on the available resources within the community

D. Priority setting is based on the magnitude of the health problems identified

A

B. The nurse has to conduct community diagnosis to determine nursing needs and problems

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17
Q

Population- focused nursing practice requires which of the following processes?

A. Community organizing

B. Nursing, process

C. Community diagnosis

D. Epidemiologic process

A

C. Community diagnosis

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18
Q

RA 1054 is also known as the Occupational Health Act. Aside from the number of employees, what other factor must be considered in determining the occupational health privileges to which the workers will be entitled?

A. Type of occupation,: agriculture, commercial, industrial

B. Location of the workplace in relation to health facilities

C. Classification of the business enterprise based on net profit

D. Sex and age composition of employees

A

B. Location of the workplace in relation to health facilities

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19
Q

A business firm must employ an occupational health nurse when it has at least how many employees.
A. 21
B. 101
C. 201
D. 301

A

B. 101

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20
Q

When the occupational health nurse employs ergonomic principles, she is performing which of her roles?

A. Health care provider
B. Health educator
C. Health care coordinator
D. Environment manager

A

D. Environment manager

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21
Q

A garment factory does not have an occupational nurse. Who shall provide the occupational health needs of the factory workers?

A. Occupational health nurse at the Provincial Health Office

B. Physician employed by the factory

C. Public Health nurse of the RHU of their municipality

D. Rural Sanitary inspector of the RHU in their municipality

A

C. Public Health nurse of the RHU of their municipality

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22
Q

“Public health services are given free of charge”. Is this statement true or false?

A. The statement is true; it is the responsibility of government to provide haste services

B. The statement is false; people pay indirectly for public health services

C. The statement may be true or false; depending on the Specific service required

D. The statement may be true or false; depending on policies of the government concerned.

A

B. The statement is false; people pay indirectly for public health services

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23
Q

According to C.E. Winslow, which of the following is the goal of Public Health?

A. For people to attain their birthrights and longevity

B. For promotion of health and prevention and diseases

C. For people to have access to basic health services

D. For people to be organized in their health efforts

A

A. For people to attain their birthrights and longevity

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24
Q

We say that a Filipino has attained longevity when he is able to reach the average life span of Filipinos. What other statistic may be used to determine attainment of longevity?

A. Age-specific mortality rate

B. Proportionate mortality rate

C. Swaroop’s index

D. Case fatality rate

A

C. Swaroop’s index

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25
Q

Which of the following is the most prominent feature of public health nursing?

A. It involves providing home care to sick people who are not confined in the hospital

B. Services are provided free of charge to people within the catchment area

C. The public health nurse functions as part of a team providing a public health nursing service

D. Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not curative services

A

D. Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not curative services

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26
Q

According to Margaret Shetland, the philosophy of public health nursing is based on which of the following?

A. Health and longevity as birthrights

B. The mandate of the state to protect the birthrights of its citizens

C. Public health nursing as a specialized field of nursing

D. The worth and dignity of man

A

D. The worth and dignity of man

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27
Q

Which of the following is the mission of the Department of Health?

A. Health for all Filipinos

B. Ensure the accessibility and quality of health

C. Improve the general health status of the population

D. Health in the hands of the Filipino people by the year 2020

A

B. Ensure the accessibility and quality of health

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28
Q

Region IV Hospital is classified as what level of facility?
A. Primary

B. Secondary

C. Intermediate

D. Tertiary

A

D. Tertiary

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29
Q

What is true of primary facilities?

A. They are usually government-run

B. Their services are provided on an out-patient basis

C. They are training facilities for health professionals

D. A community hospital is an example of this level of health facilities

A

B. Their services are provided on an out-patient basis

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30
Q

Which is an example of the school nurse’s health care provider function?

A. Requesting for BCG from the RHU for school entrance immunization

B. Conducting random classroom inspection during measles epidemic

C. Taking remedial action on an accident hazard in the school playground

D. Observing places in the school where pupils spend their free times

A

B. Conducting random classroom inspection during measles epidemic

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31
Q

When the nurse determines whether resources were maximized in implementing Ligtas Tigdas, she is evaluating:

A. Effectiveness
B. Efficiency
C. Adequacy
D. Appropriateness

A

B. Efficiency

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32
Q

You are a new B.S.N. graduate. You want to become a Public Health Nurse. Where will you apply?

A. Department of Health
B. Provincial Health Office
C. Regional Health Office
D. Rural Health Unit

A

D. Rural Health Unit

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33
Q

RA 7160 mandates devolution of basic services from the national government to local government units. Which of the following is the major goal of devolution?

A. To strengthen local government units

B. To allow greater autonomy to local government units.

C. To empower the people and promote their self-reliance

D. To make basic services more accessible to the people

A

C. To empower the people and promote their self-reliance

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34
Q

Who is the Chairman of the Municipal Health Board?

A. Mayor

B. Municipal Health Officer

C. Public Health Nurse

D. Any qualified physician

A

A. Mayor

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35
Q

Which level of health facility is the usual point of entry of a client into the health care delivery system?

A. Primary

B. Secondary

C. Intermediate

D. Tertiary

A

A. Primary

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36
Q

The public health nurse is the supervisor of rural health midwives. Which of the following is a supervisory function of the pubic health nurse?

A. Referring cases or patients to the midwife
B. Providing technical guidance to the midwife
C. Proving nursing care to cases referred by the midwife
D. Formulating and implementing training programs for midwives

A

B. Providing technical guidance to the midwife

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37
Q

One of the participants in a hilot training class asked you to whom she should refer a patient in labor who develops a complication. You will answer, to the;

A. Public health nurse
B. Rural health midwife
C. Municipal health officer
D. Any of these health professionals

A

C. Municipal health officer

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38
Q

You are the public health nurse in a municipality with a total population of about 20,000. There are 3 health midwives among the RHU personnel. How many more midwife items will the RHU need?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

A. 1

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39
Q

If the RHU needs additional midwife items, you will submit the request for additional midwife items for approval to the:
A. Rural Health Unit
B. District Health Office
C. Provincial Health Office
D. Municipal Health Board

A

D. Municipal Health Board

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40
Q

As an epidemiologist, the nurse is responsible for reporting cases or notifiable diseases. What law mandates reporting cases of notifiable diseases?

A. Act 3573
B. RA.3753
C. RA 1054
D. RA 1082

A

A. Act 3573

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41
Q

According to Freeman and Heinrich, community health nursing is a developmental service. Which of the following best illustrates this statement?

A. The community health nurse continuously develops himself personally and professionally

B. Health education and community organizing are necessary in providing community health services

C. Community health nursing in intended primarily for health promotion and prevention and treatment of disease.

D. The goal of community health nursing is to provide nursing services to people in their own place of .residence

A

B. Health education and community organizing are necessary in providing community health services

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42
Q

Which disease was declared through Presidential Proclamation No. 4 as a target for, eradication in the Philippines?

A. Pioliomyelitis
B. Measles
C. Rabies
D. Neonatal Tetanus

A

B. Measles

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43
Q

Which step in community organizing involves training of potential leaders in the community?

A. Integration
B. Community organization
C. Community study
D. Core group formation

A

D. Core group formation

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44
Q

In which step are plans formulated for solving community problems?

A. Mobilization
B. Community organization
C. Follow-up/extension
D. Core group formation

A

B. Community organization

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45
Q

The public health nurse takes an active role in community participation. What is the primary goal of community organizing?

A. To educate the people regarding community health problems
B. To mobilize the people to resolve community health problems
C. To maximize the community’s resources in dealing with health problems

A

C. To maximize the community’s resources in dealing with health problems

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46
Q

An indicator of success in community organizing is when people are able to:

A. Participate in community activities for the solution of a community problem

B. Implement activities for the solution of the community problem

C. Plan activities for the solution of the community problem

D. Identify the health problem as a common concern

A

A. Participate in community activities for the solution of a community problem

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47
Q

Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of the natural history of disease?

A. Pre-pathogenesis
B. Pathogenesis
C. Predromal
D. Terminal

A

D. Terminal

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48
Q

Isolation of a child with measles belongs to what level of prevention?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary

A

A. Primary

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49
Q

On the other hand, Operation Timbang is_____ prevention?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary

A

B. Secondary

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50
Q

Which type of family-nurse contact will provide you with the best opportunity to observe family dynamics?
A. Clinic consultation
B. Group conferences
C. Home visit
D. Written communication

A

C. Home visit

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51
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of a home visit?
A. It allows the nurse to provide nursing care to a greater number of people

B. It provides an opportunity to do first hand appraisal of the home situation

C. It allows sharing of experience among people with similar health problems

D. It develops the family’s initiative in providing for health needs of its members

A

B. It provides an opportunity to do first hand appraisal of the home situation

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52
Q

Which is CONTRARY to the principles in planning a home visit?
A. A home visit should have a purpose of objective

B. The plan should revolve around the family health .needs

C. A home visit should be conducted in the manner prescribed by RHU

D. Planning of continuing care should involve a responsible-family member

A

C. A home visit should be conducted in the manner prescribed by RHU

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53
Q

The PHN bag is an important tool in providing nursing care during a home visit. The most important principle in bag technique states that it;

A. Should save time and effort

B. Should minimize if not totally prevent the spread of infection

C. Should not overshadow concern for the patient and his family

D. May be done in variety of ways depending on the home situation, etc.

A

B. Should minimize if not totally prevent the spread of infection

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54
Q

To maintain the cleanliness of the bag and its contents, which of the following must the nurse do?

A. Wash his/her hands before and after providing nursing care to the family members

B. In the care of family member’s, as much as possible, use only articles taken from the bag

C. Put on an apron to protect her uniform and fold it with the right side out before putting it back into the bag.

D. At the end of the visit, fold the lining on which the bag was placed, ensuring that the contaminated side is on the outside.

A

A. Wash his/her hands before and after providing nursing care to the family members

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55
Q

The public health conducts a study on the factors contributing to the high morality rate due to heart diseases in the municipality where she works. Which branch of epidemiology does the nurse practice in this situation?
A. Descriptive
B. Analytical
C. Therapeutic
D. Evaluation

A

B. Analytical

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56
Q

Which of the following is a function of epidemiology?

A. Identifying the disease condition based on manifestations presented by a client

B. Determining factors that contributed to the occurrence of pneumonia in a 3 year old

C. Determining the efficacy of the antibiotic used in the treatment of the 3 year old client with pneumonia

D. Evaluating the effectiveness of the implementation of the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness

A

D. Evaluating the effectiveness of the implementation of the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness

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57
Q

Which of the following is an epidemiologic function of the nurse during an epidemic?

A Conducting assessment of suspected cases to detect the communicable diseases

B. Monitoring the condition of the cases affected by the communicable disease

C. Participating in the investigation to determine the source of epidemic

D. Teaching the community on preventive measures against the disease

A

C. Participating in the investigation to determine the source of epidemic

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58
Q

The primary purpose of conducting an epidemiologic investigation is to;

A. Delineate the etiology of the epidemic

B. Encourage cooperation and support of the community

C. Identify groups who are at risk of contracting the disease

D. Identify geographical location of cases of the disease in the community

A

A. Delineate the etiology of the epidemic

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59
Q

Which is a characteristic of person-to-person propagated epidemic?

A. There are more cases of the disease than expected

B. The disease must necessarily be transmitted through a vector

C. The spread of the disease can be attributed to a common vehicle

D. There is gradual build up of cases before we epidemic becomes easily noticeable

A

A. There are more cases of the disease than expected

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60
Q

In the investigation of an epidemic, you compare the present frequency of the disease with the usual frequency at this time of the year in this community. This is done during which stage of the investigation?

A. Establishing the epidemic
B. Testing the hypothesis
C. Formulation of the hypothesis
D. Appraisal of facts

A

A. Establishing the epidemic

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61
Q

The number of cases of Dengue fever usually increases towards the end of the rainy season. This pattern of occurrence of Dengue fever is best described as;

A. Epidemic occurrence

B. Cyclical variation

C. Sporadic occurrence

D. Secular occurrence

A

B. Cyclical variation

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62
Q

In the year 1980, the World Health Organization declared the Philippines, together with some other countries in the Western Pacific Region, “free” of which disease?

A. Pneumonic plaque

B. Poliomyelitis

C. Small pox

D. Anthrax

A

C. Small pox

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63
Q

Primary health care is a total approach to community development. Which of the following is an indicator of success in the use of the primary health care approach?

A. Health services are provided free of charge to individuals and families

B. Local officials are empowered as the major decision makers in matters of health

C. Health workers are able too provide care based on identified health needs of the people

D. Health programs are sustained according to the level of development of the community

A

D. Health programs are sustained according to the level of development of the community

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64
Q

Sputum examination is the major screening tool for pulmonary tuberculosis. Clients would sometimes get false negative results in this exam. This means that the test is not perfect in terms of which characteristic of a diagnostic examination?

A. Effectiveness
B. Efficacy
C. Specificity
D. Sensitivity

A

D. Sensitivity

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65
Q

Use of appropriate technology requires knowledge of indigenous technology. Which medical herb is given for fever, headache and cough?
A. Sambong
B. Tsaang gubat
C. Akapulko
D. Lagundi

A

D. Lagundi

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66
Q

What law created the Philippine institute of Traditional and Alternative Health Care?
A. RA 8483
B. RA4823
C. RA 2483
D. RA 3482

A

A. RA 8483

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67
Q

What is the legal basis of Primary Health Care approach in the Philippines?

A. Alma Ata Declaration of PHC

B. Letter of Instruction No 949

C. Presidential Decree No. 147

D. Presidential Decree 996

A

B. Letter of Instruction No 949

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68
Q

Which of the following demonstrates inter-sectoral linkages?
A. Two-way referral system
B. Team approach
C. Endorsement done by a midwife to another midwife
D. Cooperation between PHN and public school teacher

A

D. Cooperation between PHN and public school teacher

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69
Q

The municipality assigned to you has a population of about 20/000. Estimate the number of 1-4 year old children who be given Retinol capsule 200.000 every 6 months.
A. 1,500
B. 1,800
C. 2,000
D. 2,300

A

D. 2,300

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70
Q

Estimate the number of pregnant women who will be given tetanus toxoid during an immunization outreach activity in a barangay with a population of about 1,500.
A. 265
B. 300
C. 375
D. 400

A

A. 265

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71
Q

To describe the sex composition of the population, which demographic tool may be used?

A. Sex ratio
B. Sex proportion
C. Population pyramid
D. Any of these maybe used

A

D. Any of these maybe used

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72
Q

Which of the following is a natality rate?
A. Crude birth rate
B. Neonatal mortality rate
C. Infant mortality rate
D. General fertility rate

A

A. Crude birth rate

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73
Q

Knowing that malnutrition is a frequent community health problem, you decided to conduct nutritional assessment. What population is particularly susceptible to protein energy malnutrition (PEM)?

A. Pregnant women and the elderly
B. Under 5 year old children
C. 1-4 year old children
D. School age children

A

C. 1-4 year old children

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74
Q

Which statistic can give the most accurate reflection of the health status of a community?

A. 1-4 year old age-specific mortality rate

B. Infant mortality rate

C. Swaroop’s index

D. Crude death rate

A

C. Swaroop’s index

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75
Q

In the past year, Barangay A had an average population of 1655. 46 babies were born in that year, 2 of whom died less than 4 weeks after they were born. They were 4 recorded stillbirths. What is the neonatal mortality rate?

A. 27.8/1000

B. 43.5/1000

C. 86.9/1000

D. 130.4/1000

A

B. 43.5/1000

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76
Q

Which statistic best reflects the nutritional status of a population?

A. 1-4 year old age-specific mortality rate
B. Proportionate mortality rate
C. Infant mortality rate
D. Swaroop’s index

A

A. 1-4 year old age-specific mortality rate

77
Q

What numerator is used in computing general fertility rate?
A. Estimated midyear population
B. Number of registered live births
C. Number of pregnancies in the year
D. Number of females of reproductive age

A

B. Number of registered live births

78
Q

You will gather data for nutritional assessment of a purok. You will gather information only from families with members who belong to the target population for PEM. What method of delta gathering is best for this purpose?

A. Census

B. Survey

C. Record Review

D. Review of civil registry

A

B. Survey

79
Q

In the conduct of a census, the method of population assignment based on the actual physical location of the people is termed;

A. De jure
B. De locus
C. De facto
D. De novo

A

C. De facto

80
Q

The Field Health Services and information System (FHSIS) is the recording and reporting system in public health) care in the Philippines. The monthly field health service activity report is a form used in which of the components of the FHSIS?

A. Tally report
B. Output report
C. Target/client list
D. Individual health record

A
81
Q

To monitor clients registered in long-term regimens, such as the Multi-Drug Therapy, which component will be most useful?

A. Tally report
B. Output report
C. Target/client list
D. Individual health record

A

C. Target/client list

82
Q

Civil registries are important sources of data. Which law requires registration of births within 30 days from the occurrence of the birth?

A. PD 651
B. Act 3573
C. RA 3753
D. RA 3375

A

A. PD 651

83
Q

Which of the following professionals can sign the birth certificate?

A. Public health nurse
B. Rural health midwife
C. Municipal health officer
D. Any of these health professionals

A

D. Any of these health professionals

84
Q

Which criterion in priority setting of health problems is used only in community health care?

A. Modifiability of the problem
B. Nature of the problem presented
C. Magnitude of the health problem
D. Preventive potential of the health problem

A

C. Magnitude of the health problem

85
Q

The Sentrong Sigla Movement has been launched to improve health service delivery. Which of the following is/are true of this movement?

A. This is a project spearheaded by local government units

B. It is a basis for increasing funding from local government units

C. It encourages health centers to focus on disease prevention and control

D. Its main strategy is certification of health centers able to comply with standards

A

D. Its main strategy is certification of health centers able to comply with standards

86
Q

Which of the following women should be considered as special targets for family planning?

A. Those who have two children or more

B. Those with medical conditions such as anemia

C. Those younger than 20 years and older than 35 years

D. Those who just had a delivery within the past 15 months

A

D. Those who just had a delivery within the past 15 months

87
Q

Freedom of choice in one of the policies of the Family Planning Program of the Philippines. Which of the following illustrates this principle?

A. Information dissemination about the need for family planning

B. Support of research and development in family planning methods

C. Adequate information for couples regarding the different methods

D. Encouragement of couples to take family planning as a joint responsibility

A

C. Adequate information for couples regarding the different methods

88
Q

A woman, 6 months pregnant, came to the center for consultation. Which of the following substances is contraindicated?

A. Tetanus toxoid
B. Retinol 200,000 IU
C. Ferrous sulfate 200mg
D. Potassium iodate 200 mg, capsule

A

B. Retinol 200,000 IU

89
Q

Inadequate intake by the pregnant woman of which vitamin may cause neural tube defects?

A. Niacin
B. Riboflavin
C. Folic Acid
D. Thiamine

A

C. Folic Acid

90
Q

You are in a client’s home to attend to a delivery. Which of the following will you do first?

A. Set up a sterile area

B. Put on a clean gown and apron

C. Cleanse the client’s vulva with soap and water

D. Note the interval, duration and intensity of labor and contractions

A

D. Note the interval, duration and intensity of labor and contractions

91
Q

Which biological used in EPI is stored in the freezer?
A. DPT

B. Tetanus toxoid

C. Measles vaccine

D. Hepatitis B vaccine

A

C. Measles vaccine

92
Q

Unused BCG should be discarded how many hours after reconstitution?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. At the end of the day

A

B. 4

93
Q

In immunity school entrants with BCG, you not obliged to secure parental consent. This is because of which legal document?

A. PD 996
B. RA 7864
C. Presidential Proclamation No. 6
D. Presidential Proclamation No. 46

A

A. PD 996

94
Q

Which immunization produces a permanent scar?

A. DPT
B. BCG
C. Measles vaccination
D. Hepatitis B vaccination

A

B. BCG

95
Q

A 4 week old baby was brought to the health center for his first immunization. Which can be given to him?
A. DPT1
B. OPV1
C. Infant BCG
D. Hepatitis B Vaccine

A

C. Infant BCG

96
Q

You will not give DPT 2 if the mother says that the infant had?
A. Seizures a day after DPT1

B. Fever for 3 days after DPT1

C. Abscess formation after DPT1

D. Local tenderness for 3 days after DPT1

A

A. Seizures a day after DPT1

97
Q

A 2-month old infant was brought to the health center for immunization. During assessment, the infant’s temperature registered at 38.1 C. Which is the best course of action that you will take?

A. Go on with the infants immunization

B. Give paracetamol and wait for his fever to subside

C. Refer the infant to the physician for further assessment

D. Advise the infant’s mother to bring him back for immunization when he is well

A

A. Go on with the infants immunization

98
Q

A pregnant woman had just received her 4th dose of tetanus toxoid. Subsequently, her baby will have protection against tetanus for how long?

A. 1 year
B. 3 years
C. 10 years
D. Lifetime

A

A. 1 year

99
Q

A 4-month old infant was brought to the health center of cough. Her respiratory rate is 42/minute. Using the IMCI guidelines of assessment, her breathing is considered;

A. Fast
B. Slow
C. Normal
D. Insignificant

A

C. Normal

100
Q

Which of the following signs will indicate that a young child is suffering from severe pneumonia?

A. Dyspnea
B. Wheezing
C. Fast breathing
D. Chest indrawing

A

D. Chest indrawing

101
Q

Using IMCI guidelines, you classify a child as having severe pneumonia. What is the best management for the child?

A. Prescribe antibiotic
B. Refer him urgently to the hospital
C. Instruct the mother to increase fluid intake
D. Instruct the mother to continue breastfeeding

A

B. Refer him urgently to the hospital

102
Q

A 5-month old infant was brought by his mother to the health center because of diarrhea occurring 4 to 5 times a day. His skin goes back slowly after a skin pinch and his eyes are sunken. Using the IMCI guidelines, you will classify this infant in which category?

A. No signs of dehydration
B. Some dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. The data is insufficient

A

B. Some dehydration

103
Q

Based on the assessment, you classified a 3-month old infant with the chief complaint of diarrhea in the category of SOME DEHYDRATION. Based on the IMCI management guidelines, which of the following will you do?

A. Bring the infant to the nearest facility where IV fluids can be given

B. Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400 ml of Oresol in 4 hours

C. Give the infant’s mother instructions on home management

D. Keep the infant in your health center for close observation

A

B. Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400 ml of Oresol in 4 hours

104
Q

A mother is using Oresol’ in the management of diarrhea of her 3-year old child. She asked you what to do if her child vomits. You will tell her to:

A. Bring the child to the nearest hospital for further assessment

B. Bring the child to the health center for IV therapy

C. Bring the child to the health center for assessment by the physician

D. Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly

A

D. Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly

105
Q

A 1 1/2 year old child was classified as having 3rd degree of protein energy malnutrition, kwashjorkor. Which of the following signs will be most apparent in this child?

A. Voracious appetite

B. Wasting

C. Apathy

D. Edema

A

D. Edema

106
Q

Food fortification is one of the strategies to prevent micronutrient deficiency conditions. RA 8976 mandates fortification of certain food items. Which of the following is among these food items?

A. Sugar
B. Bread
C. Margarine
D. Filled milk

A

A. Sugar

107
Q

What is the best course of action when there is a measles epidemic in a nearby municipality?
A. Give measles vaccine to babies aged 6 to 3 months

B. Give babies aged 6 to 11 months one dose of 100,000 IU of Retinol

C. Instruct mother to keep their babies at home to prevent disease transmission

D. Instruct mothers to feed their babies adequately to enhance their babies resistance

A

A. Give measles vaccine to babies aged 6 to 3 months

108
Q

A mother brought her daughter, 4 years old, to the RHU because of cough and colds. Following the IMCI assessment guide, which of the following is a danger sign that indicates the need for urgent referral to a hospital?

A. Inability to drink
B. High grade fever
C. Signs of severe dehydration
D. Cough for more than 30 days

A

A. Inability to drink

109
Q

Management of a child with measles includes the administration of which of the following?

A. Gentian violet on mouth lesions

B. Antibiotic to prevent pneumonia

C. Tetracycline eye ointment for corneal opacity

D. Retinol capsule regardless of when the last dose was given

A

D. Retinol capsule regardless of when the last dose was given

110
Q

A mother brought her 10 month old infant for consultation because of fever which started 4 days prior to consultation. To determine malaria risk, what will you do?

A. Do a tourniquet test

B. Ask where the family resides

C. Get a specimen for blood smear

D. Ask if the fever is present everyday

A

B. Ask where the family resides

111
Q

The following are strategies implemented by the DOH to prevent mosquito-borne diseases. Which of these is most effective in the control of Dengue fever?

A. Stream seeding with larva-eating fish

B. Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes

C. Chemoprophylaxis of non-immune persons going to endemic areas

D. Teaching people in endemic areas to use chemically treated mosquito nets

A

B. Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes

112
Q

Secondary prevention for malaria includes?

A. Planting of neem or eucalyptus trees

B. Residual spraying of insecticides at night

C. Determining whether a place is endemic or not

D. Growing larva-eating fish in mosquito breeding places

A

C. Determining whether a place is endemic or not

113
Q

Scotch tape swab is done to check for which intestinal parasite?

A. Ascaris
B. Pinworm
C. Hookworm
D. Schistosoma

A

B. Pinworm

114
Q

Which of the following signs indicates the need for sputum examination for AFB?

A. Hematemesis
B. Fever for 1 week
C. Cough for 3 weeks
D. Chest pain for 1 week

A

C. Cough for 3 weeks

115
Q

Which clients are considered targets for DOTS category?

A. Sputum negative cavitary cases

B. Clients returning after default

C. Relapses and failures of previous PTB treatment regimens

D. Clients diagnosed for the first time through a positive sputum exam

A

D. Clients diagnosed for the first time through a positive sputum exam

116
Q

To improve compliance to treatment, what innovation is being implemented in DOTS?

A. Having the health worker follow up the client at home

B. Having the health worker or a responsible family member monitor drug intake

C. Having the patient come to the health center every month to get his medications

D. Having a target list to check on whether the patient has collected his monthly supply of drugs

A

B. Having the health worker or a responsible family member monitor drug intake

117
Q

Diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent on recognition of symptoms. Which of the following is an early sign of leprosy?

A. Macular lesions
B. Inability to close eyelids
C. Thickened painful nerves
D. Sinking of the nose bridge

A

C. Thickened painful nerves

118
Q

Which of the following clients should be classified as a case of mutibacillary leprosy?

A. 3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear

B. 3 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear

C. 5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear

D. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear

A

D. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear

119
Q

When residents obtain water from an artesian well in the neighborhood, the level of this approved type of water facility is:
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

A

B. II

120
Q

For prevention of Hepatitis A, you decided to conduct health education activities. Which of the following is Irrelevant?

A. Use of sterile syringes and needles
B. Safe food preparation and food handling by vendors
C. Proper disposal of human excreta and personal hygiene
D. Immediate reporting of water pipe leaks and illegal water connections

A

A. Use of sterile syringes and needles

121
Q

Which biological used in EPI should not be stored in the freezer?
A. DPT
B. OPV
C. Measles vaccine
D. MMR

A

A. DPT

122
Q

You will conduct outreach immunization in a barangay with a population of about 1500. Estimate the number of infants in the barangay.
A. 45

B. 50

C. 55

D. 60

A

A. 45

123
Q

In IMCI, severe conditions generally require urgent referral to a hospital. Which of the following severe conditions Does not always require urgent referral to hospital?
A. Mastoiditis
B. Severe dehydration
C. Severe pneumonia
D. Severe febrile disease.

A

B. Severe dehydration

124
Q

A client was diagnosed as having Dengue Fever. You will say that there is slow capillary refill when the color of the nailbed that you pressed does not return within how many seconds?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10

A

A. 3

125
Q

A 3-year old child was brought by his mother to the health center because of fever of 4-day duration. The child had a positive tourniquet test result. In the absence of other signs, which of the most appropriate measure that the PHN may carry out to prevent Dengue shock syndrome?

A. Insert an NGT and give fluids per NGT

B. Instruct the mother to give the child Oresol

C. Start the patient on IV Stat

D. Refer the client to the physician for appropriate management

A

B. Instruct the mother to give the child Oresol

126
Q

The pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot. You may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the:
A. Nasal Mucosa

B. Buccal mucosa

C. Skin on the abdomen

D. Skin on the antecubital surface

A

B. Buccal mucosa

127
Q

Among the following diseases, which is airborne?
A. Viral conjunctivitis
B. Acute poliomyelitis
C. Diphtheria
D. Measles

A

D. Measles

128
Q

Among children aged 2 months to 3 years, the most prevalent form of meningitis is caused by which microorganism?
A. Hemophilus Influenzae
B. Morbillivirus
C. Streptococcus PneumoniaeD
. Neisseria meningitides

A

A. Hemophilus Influenzae

129
Q

Human beings are the major reservoir of malaria. Which of the following strategies in malaria control is based on this fact?
A. Stream seeding
B. Stream clearingC. Destruction of breeding places
D. Zooprophylaxis

A

D. Zooprophylaxis

130
Q

The use of larvivorous fish in malaria control is the basis for which strategy of malaria control?
A. Stream seeding

B. Stream clearing

C. Destruction of breeding places

D. Zooprophylaxis .

A

A. Stream seeding

131
Q

Mosquito-borne diseases are prevented mostly with the use of mosquito control measures. Which of the following is NOT appropriate for malaria control?

A. Use of chemically treated mosquito nets

B. Seeding of breeding places with larva-eating fish

C. Destruction of breeding places of the mosquito vector

D. Use of mosquito-repelling soaps, such as those with basil or citronella

A

C. Destruction of breeding places of the mosquito vector

132
Q

A 4-year old client was brought to the health center with chief complaint of severe diarrhea and the passage of “rice water”. The client is most probably suffering from which condition?
A. Giardiasis
B. Cholera
C. Amebiasis
D. Dysentery

A

B. Cholera

133
Q

In the Philippines, which specie of schistosoma is endemic in certain regions?
A. S. mansoni
B. S. japonicum
C. S. malayensis
D. S. haematobium

A

B. S. japonicum

134
Q

A 32 year old client came for consultation at the health center with the chief complaint of fever for a week. Accompanying symptoms were muscle pains and body malaise. A week after the start of fever, the client noted yellowish discoloration of his sclera. History showed that he waded in flood waters about 2 weeks before the onset of symptoms. Based on this history/ which disease condition will you suspect?

A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Tetanus
D. Leptospirosis

A

D. Leptospirosis

135
Q

MWSS provides water to Manila and other cities in Metro Manila. This is an example of which level of water facility?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

A

C. III

136
Q

You are the PHN in the city health center. A client underwent screening for AIDS using ELISA. His result was positive. What is the best course of action that you may take?

A. Get a thorough history of the client, focusing on the practice of high risk behavior

B. Ask the client to be accompanied by a significant person before revealing the result.

C. Refer the client to the physician since he is the best person to reveal the result to the client

D. Refer the client for a supplementary test, such as Western blot, since the ELISA result maybe false

A

D. Refer the client for a supplementary test, such as Western blot, since the ELISA result maybe false

137
Q

Which is the BEST control measure for AIDS?
A. Being faithful to a single sexual partner

B. Using a condom during each sexual contact

C. Avoiding sexual contact with commercial sex workers

D. Making sure that one’s sexual partner does not have signs of AIDS

A

A. Being faithful to a single sexual partner

138
Q

The most frequent causes of death among clients with AIDS are opportunistic diseases. Which of the following opportunistic infections is characterized by tonsilllopharyngitis?

A. Respiratory candidiasis

B. Infectious mononucleosis

C. Cytomegalovirus disease

D. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

A

B. Infectious mononucleosis

139
Q

To determine the possible sources of sexually transmitted infections, which is the BEST method that may be undertaken by the public health nurse?
A. Contact tracing

B. Community survey

C. Mass screening tests

D. Interview suspects

A

A. Contact tracing

140
Q

Antiretroviral agents, such as AZT are used in the management of AIDS. Which of the following is not an action expected of these drugs?

A. They prolong the life of the client with AIDS

B. They reduce the risk of opportunistic infections

C. They shorten the period of communicability of the disease

D. They are able to bring about a cure of the disease condition

A

D. They are able to bring about a cure of the disease condition

141
Q

A barangay had an outbreak of German measles. To prevent congenital rubella, what is the BEST advice that you can give to women in the first trimester of pregnancy in the barangay?
a. Advice them on the sign of German Measles

b. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and moviehouses

c. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine may be given

d. Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin

A

d. Consult a physician who may give them rubella immunoglobulin

142
Q

Majority are contracted in childhood; manifestation arises by 15 years old and willdefinitely diagnose at 20

a. Leprosy

b. malaria

c. dengue

d. weil disease

A

a. Leprosy

143
Q

It is a clinical manifestation of malaria that 10-15 mins, chills, shakes

a. hot stage

b. cold stage

c. warm stage

d. N/A

A

b. cold stage

144
Q

more widely distributed- causes benign tertian malaria- chills and fever every 48 hours in 3 days

a. Plasmodium ovale

b. Plasmodium malaria

c. Plasmodium falciparum

d. Plasmodium vivax

A

d. Plasmodium vivax

145
Q

common in the Philippines- Causes the most serious type of malaria because of high parasitic densities in blood

a. Plasmodium malaria
b. Plasmodium ovale
c. Plasmodium vivax
d. Plasmodium falciparum

A

d. Plasmodium falciparum

146
Q

AKA “King of the Tropical Disease”

a. leprosy

b. weil disease

c. malaria

d. dengue

A

c. malaria

147
Q

a zoonotic systemic infection caused by Leptospira, that penetrate intact andabraded skin through exposure to water, wet soil contaminated with urine ofinfected animals

a. leprosy

b. weil disease

c. malaria

d. dengue

A

b. weil disease

148
Q

manifested by fever, conjunctival injection- signs of meningeal irritation

a. Anicteric Type (without jaundice)

b. Icteric Type Weil Syndrome

c. Weil Syndrome

A

a. Anicteric Type (without jaundice)

149
Q

Classification of Dengue Fever
Dengue Shock Syndrome, all of the following signs and symptoms

a. Grade I

b. Grade 2

c. Grade 3

d. Grade 4

A

d. Grade 4

150
Q

Dengue fever, saddleback fever plus constitutional signs andsymptoms plus positive torniquet test

a. Grade I

b. Grade 2

c. Grade 3

d. Grade 4

A

a. Grade I

150
Q

Classification of Dengue Fever
irreversible shock and massive bleeding

a. Grade I

b. Grade 2

c. Grade 3

d. Grade 4

A

d. Grade 4

151
Q

What is the incubation period for Dengue?

a. 3-8 days

b. 7-14 days

c. 2-7 days

d. 5-10 days

A

c. 2-7 days

152
Q

Disease occurs only occasionally

a. Sporadic

b. Epidemic

c. pandemic

d. endemic

A

a. Sporadic

153
Q

Constantly present in a population, country or community

a. Sporadic

b. Epidemic

c. pandemic

d. endemic

A

d. endemic

153
Q

Tobacco Regulation Act of 2003. Regulates the packaging,
use, sale, distribution, and advertisements of tobacco
products

a. RA 9164

b. RA 9211

c. RA 9342

d. RA 9642

A

b. RA 9211

154
Q

cost benefit evaluation framework
Can help health program planners, policy makers &
other evaluation

a. Nola Pender’s Health Promotion

b. Transitional Theory

c. Lawrence Green’s Precede-Proceed Model

A

c. Lawrence Green’s Precede-Proceed Model

155
Q

-includes concepts of community-oriented,
population-focused care
- result of habitual selection from limited choices

a. Milo’s Framework For Prevention

b. Transitional Theory

c. Nola Pender’s Health Promotion

A

a. Milo’s Framework For Prevention

156
Q

“complementary counterpart to models of health
promotion”

a. Transitional Theory

b. Nola Pender’s Health Promotion

c. social theory

d. german theory

A

b. Nola Pender’s Health Promotion

157
Q

combines several theories of intervention, thus the
name transtheoretical

a. Transitional Theory

b. Milo’s Framework For Prevention

c. Nola Pender’s Health Promotion

d. Lawrence Green’s Precede-Proceed Model

A

a. Transitional Theory

158
Q

Applicable to the different levels of chn,
clientele, individuals, families, groups, and
communities

a. German theory

b. social theory

c. social system theory

A

a. German theory

159
Q
  • Based on belief learnings take place in a social
    context that is people learn from one another.

a. belief model

b. social system theory

c. social theory

d. social learning theory

A

d. social learning theory

160
Q

Childhood infection caused by virus, morbilli virus
(Paramyovirus)

a. measles

b. polio

c. hep b

d. diptheria

A

a. measles

161
Q

measles can be trasmitted through

a. Airborne
b. Can be transmitted via direct contact w respiratory
secretions from infected patients
c. Indirect contact w objects contaminated w secretions
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

162
Q

what is the Pathognomonic Sign of measles

a. bull neck

b. koplik’s spot

c. kernig’s sign

A

b. koplik’s spot

163
Q

Inflammation of membranes (meninges) surrounding
the brain & spinal cord

a. diptheria

b. aids

c. pertussis

d. menigitis

A

d. menigitis

164
Q

pathognomonic sign of meningitis

a. bull neck

b. kernig’s sign

c. Brudzinki’s Sign

A

b. kernig’s sign

165
Q

Incubation period of meningitis

a. 2-7 days

b. 6-12 days

c. 7-14 days

d. 3-6 days

A

d. 3-6 days

166
Q

Incubation period of measles

a. 10-20 days

b. 10-12 days

c. 12-24 days

d. 4-8 days

A

a. 10-20 days

167
Q

period of communicability of measles

a. 11-20 days after appearance of rashes

b. 5-9 days after appearance of rashes

c. 4 - 5 days before appearance of rashes

d. 6-10 before appearance of rashes

A

c. 4 - 5 days before appearance of rashes

168
Q

what is the standard distance of form water source

a. 20-25 meters

b. 15-20 meters

c. 10-15 meters

d. 5-10 meters

A

a. 20-25 meters

169
Q

dosage of bcg vaxx for school entrance

a. 0.2 ml

b. 0.1 ml

c. 0.5 ml

d. 0.3 ml

A

b. 0.1 ml

170
Q

Site for DPT, HEP B, TT

a. SQ

b. IM

c. ST

A

b. IM

171
Q

vaccine injected in deltold area (SATA)

a. TT

b. DPT

c. Measles

d. BCG

A

a. TT
c. Measles
d. BCG

172
Q

expected side effect of bcg

a. nausea

b. abdminal pain

c. fever

d. koch phenomenon

A

d. koch phenomenon

173
Q

only vaccine with no side effect

a. OPV

b. DPT

c. TT

d. Rota V

A

a. OPV

174
Q

vaccine should store in freezer (SATA)

a. Measles

b. DPT

c. Penta V

d. OPV

A

a. Measles
d. OPV

175
Q

vaccine most sensitive to heat

a. Rota V

b. DPT

c. OPV

d. Bcg

A

c. OPV

176
Q

vaccine given in the 6-10-14 wks (sata)

a. measles

b. opv

c.dpt

d. hep b

A

b. opv

c.dpt

177
Q

site for bcg

a. right deltoid arm
b. left deltoid arm
c. anterolateral right thigh
d. anterolateral left thigh

A

a. right deltoid arm

178
Q

site for anti measles

a. mouth
b. outer part of the lower arm
c. outer part of the upper arm

A

c. outer part of the upper arm

179
Q

dose for rota v

a. 0.5 ml

b. 1.5 ml

c. 1.2 ml

d. 0.10 ml

A

b. 1.5 ml

180
Q

serious bacterial infection that usually affects the mucous membranes of the nose

a. pharyngitis

b. diptheria

c. meningitis

A

b. diptheria

181
Q

diptheria can be transmitted via EXCEPT

a. airborne
b. droplet
c. direct & indirect contact

A

a. airborne

182
Q

incubation period of diptheria

a. 3-6 days
b. 2-6 days
c. 2-5 days
d. 4-8 days

A

c. 2-5 days

183
Q

period of communicability

a. 2wks seldom 4 wks
b. 1 wk seldom 3 wks
c. 10 days seldom 1 wk

A

a. 2wks seldom 4 wks

184
Q

german physiologist who 1st discovered diptheria antitoxin

a. emman conrad

b. james west

c. emil adolf behring

d. carl clarkson

A

c. emil adolf behring

185
Q

pathognomonic sign of diptheria

a. brudzinki signs
b. kernig signs
c. weil sydrome
d. bull neck

A

d. bull neck

186
Q

alternative drug of choice for meningitis except

a. chlorampenol
b. ampicillin
c. penicillin g-doc
d. ceftraxiazone
e. aminoglycosides

A

c. penicillin g-doc

CHN (1 decks)

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