Cholinergic Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What are muscarinic cholinergic receptors (mAChR) and by which cells are they expressed?

A

mAChR are seven-transmembrane-domain G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) and expressed at the terminal synapses of all parasympathetic postganglionic fibers and a few sympathetic postganglionic fibers, at autonomic ganglia, and in the CNS.

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2
Q

What are nicotinic cholinergic receptors (nAChR) and by which cells are they expressed?

A

nAChR are ligand-gated ion channels that are concentrated postsynaptically at many excitatory autonomic synapses and presynaptically in the CNS.

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3
Q

What is the function of acetylcholinesterase (AChE)?

A

AChE is the enzyme responsible for acetylcholine degradation.

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4
Q

How is ACh synthesized?

A

ACh is synthesized in a single step from choline and acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl CoA) by the enzyme choline acetyltransferase.

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5
Q

Why is the incorporation of choline into phosphatidylcholine so essential?

A

Because choline itself cannot cross the blood-brain barrier.

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6
Q

What is the role of citrate in the production of acetylcholine?

A

It is hypothesized that citrate serves as the carrier for acetyl CoA from the mitochondrion to the cytoplasm, where citrate is freed by citrate lyase.

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7
Q

What is the rate-limiting step of ACh synthesis?

A

The rate-limiting step of ACh synthesis is mediated not by choline acetyltransferase, but rather by the availability of the choline substrate, which depends on uptake of choline into the neuron.

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8
Q

Which two processes are responsible for choline transport?

A

The first is low-affinity facilitated diffusion. This transport system is not saturable and is found in cells that synthesize choline-containing phospholipids, such as the corneal epithelium.

Far more important is a sodium-dependent, high-affinity transport system specifically found in cholinergic nerve terminals. Because the high-affinity transporter is easily saturated (at concentrations of choline > 10 μM), it sets an upper limit of the supply of choline for ACh synthesis. As the rate-limiting component, this transporter is a target for several anticholinergic drugs (e.g., hemicholinium-3).

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9
Q

After its synthesis in the cytoplasm, how is ACh transported into synaptic vesicles for storage?

A

Transport of protons out of the vesicle (i.e., down the H+ concentration gradient) is coupled to uptake of ACh into the vesicle (i.e., against the ACh concentration gradient) via an ACh-H+ antiport channel.

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10
Q

Which anticholinergic drug targets the ACh-H+ antiport channel?

A

Vesamicol. By inhibiting the ACh-H+ antiport channel, this drug lowers ACh storage and subsequent release.

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11
Q

In addition to ACh, cholinergic vesicles contain…

A

ATP and heparan sulfate proteoglycans, both of which serve as counter-ions for ACh. By neutralizing the positive charge of ACh, these molecules disperse the electrostatic forces that would otherwise prevent dense packing of ACh within the vesicle. Released ATP also acts as a neurotransmitter, through purinergic receptors, to inhibit the release of ACh and norepinephrine from autonomic nerve endings.

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12
Q

Which transporter is inhibited by hemicholinium?

A

The high-affinity Na+-choline co-transporter that allows for transport of choline into presynaptic cholinergic nerve terminals.

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13
Q

What is the molecular basis for Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS)?

A

LEMS results from an autoantibody that blocks the presynaptic Ca2+ channel.

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14
Q

What is the function of botulinum toxin?

A

Botulinum toxin prevents the exocytosis of presynaptic vesicles, thereby blocking ACh release.

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15
Q

Which cholinergic receptors are excitatory and which are inhibitory?

A

Postsynaptic nicotinic receptors and M1, M3, and M5 muscarinic receptors are excitatory; postsynaptic M2 and M4 muscarinic receptors are inhibitory.

Presynaptic nicotinic receptors enhance Ca2+ entry into the presynaptic neuron, thereby increasing vesicle fusion and release of ACh; presynaptic M2 and M4 muscarinic receptors inhibit Ca2+ entry into the presynaptic neuron, thereby decreasing vesicle fusion and release of ACh.

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16
Q

Most clinically relevant anticholinesterases are competitive inhibitors of the enzyme. True or false?

A

True.

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17
Q

At which sites in the body does muscarinic cholinergic transmission mainly occur?

A

Muscarinic cholinergic transmission occurs mainly at autonomic ganglia, at end organs innervated by the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system, and in the CNS.

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18
Q

Human muscarinic receptors form two functionally distinct groups. What differentiates these two groups?

A

M1, M3, and M5 are coupled to G proteins responsible for the stimulation of phospholipase C; M2 and M4, on the other hand, are coupled to G proteins responsible for adenylyl cyclase inhibition and K+ channel activation.

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19
Q

In which tissues are M1 receptors expressed?

A

M1 receptors are expressed in cortical neurons and autonomic ganglia.

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20
Q

In which tissue are M2 receptors expressed?

A

M2 receptors are expressed in cardiac muscle.

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21
Q

In which tissues are M3 receptors expressed?

A

M3 receptors are expressed in smooth muscle and glandular tissue.

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22
Q

Open channels of the activated nAChR are equally permeable to K+ and Na+ ions. True or false?

A

True. However, since the resting membrane potential is close to the Nernst potential for K+ and far below the Nernst potential for Na+, the predominant ion passing through the open nAChR is Na+.

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23
Q

Why is the depolarization mediated by nAChRs brief (

A

Because ACh dissociates rapidly from active-state receptor molecules and acetylcholinesterase rapidly degrades free (unbound) ACh in the synaptic cleft.

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24
Q

How many subunits make up a nAChR?

A

Five subunits. Each receptor at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ) is comprised of two ⍺ subunits, one β and one δ subunit, and either one γ subunit or one ɛ subunit.

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25
Q

What is the difference between nicotinic cholinergic receptors at autonomic ganglia and in the CNS (termed N2) and those at the NMJ (termed N1)?

A

The subunits in N2 receptors are composed solely of ⍺ and β subunits.

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26
Q

How many different ⍺ and β subunit types have been detected in neuronal tissues?

A

Nine different ⍺ subunit types (⍺2 - ⍺10) and three β subunit types (β2 - β4). (⍺1 and β1 refer to the distinct subunit types found at the NMJ.)

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27
Q

Where is AChE concentrated?

A

AChE is concentrated on the postsynaptic membrane.

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28
Q

What is butyrylcholinesterase (BuChE) and what roles does it play in ACh degradation?

A

BuChE is also known as pseudocholinesterase or nonspecific cholinesterase. BuChE plays a secondary role in ACh degradation. Recent evidence suggests that BuChE may play a minor role in early neural development as a co-regulator of ACh (it can hydrolyze ACh, but at rates much slower than AChE) and may be involved in the pathogenesis of Alzheimer’s disease.

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29
Q

What is a miniature end-plate potential (MEPP)?

A

ACh is release in discrete quantities by the presynaptic motor neuron. Each quantum of ACh corresponds to the contents of a single synaptic vesicle and elicits a small depolarization in the motor end-plate termed a MEPP.

30
Q

What is an end-plate potential (EEP)?

A

The arrival of an action potential at the motor axon terminal causes many more vesicles (up to thousands) to fuse with the neuronal membrane and release their ACh. At the motor end-plate, the result is a relatively large depolarization termed the EPP.

31
Q

What is tetanic fade?

A

Only when 50% or more of the postsynaptic receptors are desensitized is a decline in muscle tension observed during tetanic stimulation (a phenomenon known as tetanic fade).

32
Q

Hexamethonium selectively blocks modulatory presynaptic cholinergic receptors, causing…

A

rapid tetanic fade to occur under otherwise normal conditions.

33
Q

What is the primary event in the postsynaptic ganglionic response to presynaptic inputs?

A

A rapid depolarization mediated by nicotinic ACh receptors on the postganglionic neuron. The three remaining events of ganglionic transmission modulate this primary signal and are known as the slow EPSP (excitatory postsynaptic potential), the IPSP (inhibitory postsynaptic potential), and the late, slow EPSP.

34
Q

What is the slow EPSP?

A

The slow EPSP occurs after a latency of 1 s and is mediated by M1 muscarinic ACh receptors. The duration of this effect is 10-30 seconds.

35
Q

Describe the IPSP.

A

The IPSP is largely a product of catecholamine (i.e., dopamine and norepinephrine) stimulation of dopaminergic and ⍺-adrenergic receptors, although some IPSPs in a few ganglia are mediated by M2 muscarinic receptors. The latency and duration of the IPSPs generally vary between those of the fast and slow EPSPs.

36
Q

Cholinergic receptors are divided into which two broad classes?

A

Muscarinic cholinergic receptors (mAChR) and nicotinic cholinergic receptors (nAChR).

37
Q

Describe the late, slow EPSP.

A

The late, slow EPSP is mediated by a decrease in potassium conductance induced by stimulation of receptors for peptide transmitters (i.e., angiotensin, substance P, and luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone). Lasting for several minutes, the late, slow EPSP is thought to play a role in the long-term regulation of postsynaptic neuron sensitivity to repetitive depolarization.

38
Q

Drugs selective for the IPSP, slow EPSP, and late, slow EPSP are generally not capable of eliminating ganglionic transmission. True or false?

A

True. Such agents alter only the efficiency of transmission.

39
Q

What is the mechanism of action of methacholine?

A

Methacholine, a muscarinic receptor agonist, has modulatory effects on autonomic ganglia that resemble the stimulation of slow EPSPs.

40
Q

Blockade of excitatory transmission through autonomic ganglia relies on inhibition of the nAChRs that mediate fast EPSPs. True or false?

A

True.

41
Q

The heart is influenced at rest primarily by which division of the autonomic nervous system?

A

The heart is influenced at rest primarily by the parasympathetic system, whose tonic effect is slowing of the heart rate. Thus, blockade of autonomic ganglia that innervate the heart by moderate to high doses of the antimuscarinic agent atropine results in blockade of vagal slowing of the sinoatrial node, and hence in relative tachycardia. It should be noted that in low doses, the central parasympathetic stimulating effects of atropine predominate, initially resulting in bradycardia prior to its peripheral vagolytic action.

42
Q

Blood vessels are innervated only by the sympathetic system. Because the normal effect of sympathetic stimulation is to cause vasoconstriction, ganglionic blockade results in…

A

vasodilation.

43
Q

The expected net cardiovascular effects of muscarinic blockade produced by clinical doses of atropine in a healthy adult with a normal hemodynamic state are…

A

mild tachycardia, with or without flushing of the skin, and no profound effect on blood pressure.

44
Q

CNS functions of ACh include…

A

modulation of sleep, wakefulness, learning, and memory; suppression of pain at the spinal cord level; and essential roles in neural plasticity, early neural development, immunosuppression, and epilepsy.

45
Q

As part of the ascending reticular activating system, cholinergic neurons play an important role in…

A

arousal and attention. Levels of ACh throughout the brain increase during wakefulness and REM sleep and decrease during inattentive states and non-REM/slow-wave sleep (SWS). During an awake or aroused state, cholinergic projections from the pedunculopontine nucelus, the lateral tegmental nucleus, and the nucleus basalis of Meynert (NBM) are all active.

46
Q

Because the nucleus basalis of Meynert projects diffusely throughout the cortex and hippocampus, activation of the NBM causes a global increase in ACh levels. True or false?

A

True.

47
Q

Neurodegenerative dementias and brain injury produce central cholinergic dysfunction. Patients with these conditions manifest cognitive, functional, and behavioral deficits that are at least partially related to cholinergic deficits and amenable to symptomatic treatment with procholinergic medications. An example is the symptomatic treatment of Alzheimer’s disease with…

A

acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.

48
Q

Acetylcholine also plays a role in pain modulation through…

A

inhibition of spinal nociceptive transmission. Cholinergic neurons located in the rostral ventromedial medulla extend processes to the superficial lamina of the dorsal horn at all levels of the spinal cord, where secondary neurons in afferent sensory pathways are located. ACh released by the cholinergic neurons is believed to bind to muscarinic ACh receptors located on secondary sensory neurons specific for pain transmission, resulting in suppression of action potential firing in these cells and consequently in analgesia.

49
Q

The analgesic properties of ACh can be demonstrated by injecting AChE inhibitors into…

A

the spinal fluid.

50
Q

In addition to its role as a neurotransmitter, ACh has been observed to…

A

inhibit neurite growth in the CNS. During the early phases of neural development, when such growth is essential, AChE levels are increased.

51
Q

Lesioning of rat cholinergic neurons during development results in cortical abnormalities, including aberrant growth and positioning of pyramidal cell dendrites, altered cortical connectivity, and gross cognitive deficits. These abnormal findings are also observed in which human diseases?

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome and Rett syndrome, both of which demonstrate dramatically reduced numbers of cholinergic neurons in the brain.

52
Q

Mutations in nicotinic ACh receptor genes are responsible for which disease?

A

Autosomal dominant nocturnal frontal lobe epilepsy (ADNFLE).

53
Q

List the primary clinical uses of cholinergic and anticholinergic agents.

A

1) Modulation of GI motility
2) Xerostomia (dry mouth)
3) Glaucoma
4) Motion sickness and antiemesis
5) Neuromuscular diseases such as myasthenia gravis and Eaton-Lambert syndrome
6) Acute neuromuscular blockade and reversal during surgery
7) Ganglionic blockade during aortic dissection
8) Dystonias (e.g., torticollis), headache, and pain syndromes
9) Reversal of vagal-mediated bradycardia
10) Mydriasis
11) Bronchodilators in COPD
12) Bladder spasms and urinary incontinence
13) Cosmetic effects on skin lines and wrinkles
14) Treatment of Alzheimer’s disease, cognitive dysfunction, and dementias

54
Q

How is pirenzepine used clinically?

A

Pirenzepine binds to M1 muscarinic receptors (located in autonomic ganglia) with higher affinity than M2 and M3 receptors (located at parasympathetic end organs). As a result, the drug’s predominant effect at clinically used doses is ganglionic blockade.

55
Q

The addition of a methyl group to acetylcholine yields…

A

methacholine, which is more resistant to degradation by AChE and, hence, possesses a longer duration of action.

56
Q

The high CNS penetration of physostigmine, a lipophilic agent, makes this drug the agent of choice for treating the CNS effects of…

A

anticholinergic overdose.

57
Q

Hemicholinium-3…

A

blocks the high-affinity transporter for choline and thus prevents the uptake of choline required for ACh synthesis. Used only in research settings.

58
Q

Vesamicol…

A

blocks the ACh-H+ antiporter that is used to transport ACh into vesicles, thereby preventing the storage of ACh. Used only in research settings.

59
Q

Botulinum toxin A, produced by Clostridium botulinum,…

A

degrades SNAP-25 and thus prevents synaptic vesicle fusion with the axon terminal (presynaptic) membrane.

60
Q

How is botulinum toxin A used clinically?

A

This paralysis-inducing agent is currently used in the treatment of several diseases associated with increased muscle tone, such as torticollis, achalasia, strabismus, blepharospasm, and other focal dystonias. Botulinum toxin is also approved for cosmetic treatment of facial lines and wrinkles and is used to treat various headache and pain syndromes (e.g., by intrathecal delivery into the spinal fluid). Because it degrades a protein common to the synaptic-vesicle fusion machinery in multiple types of nerve terminals, botulinum toxin has a general effect on the release of many different neurotransmitters, not just ACh.

61
Q

What is the mechanism of action of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors?

A

Agents in this class bind to and inhibit AChE, thereby elevating the concentration of endogenously released ACh in the synaptic cleft. The accumulated ACh subsequently activates nearby cholinergic receptors.

62
Q

Why are acetylcholinesterase inhibitors referred to as indirectly acting ACh receptor agonists?

A

Because they generally do not activate receptors directly. It is important to note that a few AChE inhibitors have a direct action as well. For example, neostigmine, a quaternary carbamate, not only blocks AChE but also binds to and activates nAChRs at the NMJ.

63
Q

Edrophonium…

A

is a simple alcohol that inhibits AChE by reversibly associating with the active site of the enzyme.

64
Q

What is the nature of the molecular interaction between edrophonium and AChE?

A

Because of the noncovalent nature of the interaction between the alcohol and AChE, the enzyme-inhibitor complex lasts for only 2-10 minutes, resulting in a relatively rapid but completely reversible block.

65
Q

Describe the mechanism by which the carbamic acid esters neostigmine and physostigmine inhibit AChE.

A

Neostigmine and physostigmine are hydrolyzed by AChE, so a labile covalent bond is formed between the drug and the enzyme. However, the rate at which this reaction occurs is many orders of magnitude slower than for ACh. The resulting enzyme-inhibitor complex has a half-life of approximately 15-30 minutes, corresponding to an effective inhibition lasting 3-8 hours.

66
Q

Describe the mechanism by which organophosphates such as diisopropyl fluorophosphate inhibit AChE.

A

Organophosphates such as diisopropyl fluorophosphate have a molecular structure that resembles the transition state formed in carboxyl ester hydrolysis. These compounds are hydrolyzed by AChE, but the resulting phosphorylated enzyme complex is extremely stable and dissociates with a half-life of hundreds of hours.

67
Q

Describe the process of aging to which an AChE-organophosphate is complex is subject.

A

Aging is the process by which oxygen-phosphorus bonds within the inhibitor are broken spontaneously in favor of stronger bonds between the enzyme and the inhibitor. Once aging occurs, the duration of AChE inhibition is increased even further. Thus, organophosphate inhibition is essentially irreversible, and the body must synthesize new AChE molecules to restore AChE activity.

68
Q

In the context of organophosphate inhibition of AChE, how is it possible to reverse the process of aging?

A

If strong nucleophiles (such as pralidoxime) are administered before aging has occurred, it is possible to recover enzymatic function from the inhibited AChE.

69
Q

Name three clinical applications of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors.

A

1) Increasing transmission at the NMJ
2) Increasing parasympathetic tone
3) Increasing central cholinergic activity (e.g., to treat symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease)

70
Q

Describe the pathophysiology underlying myasthenia gravis.

A

In myasthenia gravis, autoantibodies are generated against N1 receptors. These antibodies both induce N1 receptor internalization and block the ability of ACh to activate the receptors. As a result, patients with myasthenia gravis present with significant weakness.

71
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Eaton-Lambert syndrome.

A

Like myasthenia gravis, Eaton-Lambert syndrome is also characterized by muscle weakness, but this disorder is caused by autoantibodies generated against Ca2+ channels; both presynaptic Ca2+ entry and the subsequent release of ACh in response to axon terminal depolarization are attenuated.

72
Q

How do certain anticholinergic drugs, such as tubocurare, cause weakness or paralysis?

A

By acting as competitive antagonists at the nAChR, preventing ACh from binding to the receptor and causing nondepolarizing blockade of cholinergic transmission.