Chpt 2 - Systems Flashcards
1
Q
Power is supplied by four ___ turboprop engines
A
Allison Engine Co. AE2100D3
2
Q
Combat troops
A
78
3
Q
Ground troops (including wheelwell wall seats)
A
92
4
Q
Paratroops
A
64
5
Q
Litters/Attendants
A
70/6 or 74/2
6
Q
Cargo Dimensions
Length:
Width:
Height:
A
41’
10’3’’
9’
7
Q
Aircraft Dimensions
Length:
Width:
Height:
A
97’9’’
132’7’’
39’2’’
8
Q
The takeoff power performance rating is approximately __ hp at temperatures up to __°F, at sea level with no bleed air.
A
4,700 HP
103 F
9
Q
The maximum continuous power rating is approximately __ hp at temperatures up to __°F, at sea level with both air conditioners on.
A
4,700 HP
83 F
10
Q
When engine speed reaches approximately __ percent, the engine PMA supplies electrical power for the FADEC operation.
A
40
11
Q
GND IDLE Blade Angle vs. Calibrated Airspeed—When the power levers are at GND IDLE, the FADEC programs the inboard and outboard propeller blade angles differently as a function of calibrated airspeed. Above __ knots, the outboard propellers are set to __° blade angle. Between __ and __ knots, the outboard propellers increase from __° to __°s blade angle and between __ and __ knots decrease back to __°. The inboard propellers are set at __° blade angle at all calibrated airspeeds down to __ knots. From 70 to 50 knots, they are set to __° blade angle. Below __ knots all propeller blade angles are set at __°. This programming supports engine out stops.
A
110 kts 1 110 and 90 kts 1 to 8 70 and 50 kts 1 -2 70 kts 1 50 kts 1
12
Q
Mission Computer Autofeather Permission — The outboard propellers always have MC permission to autofeather without delay. This supports low minimum control speeds. For the inboard propellers, autofeather permission is granted after a __ second delay provided the aircraft is below __ feet and the other engines are running normally.
A
2 sec
15,500 ft
13
Q
The ATCS limits the asymmetric thrust between the two outboard engines at slow speed in order to reduce __.
A
minimum control speeds
14
Q
The ATCS schedules from __ to __ percent of takeoff power over a __ knot range.
A
50 to 100
40 kt
15
Q
Which is always greater, Vmca2 or Vmpr
A
Vmca2
16
Q
Oil System
The tank has a __-gallon oil capacity with the remainder of the tank, approximately __ gallons, used for air space. The oil tank also incorporates a __-gallon dedicated reservoir for the emergency feather pump oil supply.
A
12 gal
8 gal
0.66 gal
17
Q
The oil cooler augmentation system supplements normal oil cooling during extended ground operation by using ___ stage bleed air when the power levers are below FLT IDLE.
A
14th
18
Q
The oil cooler augmentation system is operating when the following conditions are met:
- Oil cooler flap position greater than __ percent.
- Oil temperature above approximately __ °C.
- Airspeed less than __ knots.
- Power levers less than FLT IDLE.
- Weight on wheels.
A
- 80%
- 80 C
- 50 kts
19
Q
If the (oil cooler augmentation) system fails on, bleed air damage to the oil cooler flap occurs unless the crew __ the oil cooler flap to ___.
A
opens…full open
20
Q
Selecting the RUN switch on the Eng switch turns on what?
A
turns on the respective main tank boost pump
21
Q
Upon engine start, the following occur automatically:
- The ___ next to the ENGINE START switch illuminates.
- At __ percent NG, the FADEC arms the fuel and ignition control circuits. Four seconds later, ignition is energized and the fuel latching shutoff valve opens to start fuel flow (fuel flow may not be indicated until approximately __ percent NG). Normal time from light up to stabilized NG is approximately __ to __ seconds.
- Starter cut out occurs at approximately __ percent NG, and the starter light extinguishes. Continuous ignition terminates at approximately __ percent NG.
- The time from starter switch select to NP on speed is approximately __ seconds. Prestart propeller blade angle may affect the total time to NP on speed during engine start.
- Normal hydraulic operating pressure should be indicated within __ seconds after __ is on speed. This pressure may not be reached, because of internal bypass of fluid in the elevator boost package, if the control column is in the full forward position. Pulling the control column off its stop 2 to 3 inches eliminates the bypass. The pressure indication is displayed on the HDD SYSTEM STATUS page.
A
- starter light
- 14%, 40%
20 to 25 secs - 65% (both)
- 30 secs
- 30 secs, NP
22
Q
Advancing the power levers beyond __° causes the FADEC to automatically shift to normal ground idle.
A
30
23
Q
Entry and exit to the aircraft using the ___ are prohibited while the engines are operated in the HOTEL mode and flaps are ___. Extreme care should be taken using these entrances/exits in other engine/flap configurations.
A
left and right paratroop doors
extended
24
Q
If the engine oil temperature exceeds the normal range while in HOTEL mode, place the propeller control switch to ___ to increase cooling airflow through the air-cooled oil cooler.
A
NORMAL
25
Routinely shutting down the engine in HOTEL MODE is not recommended because of minor ___.
oil seal leakage
26
Because of propulsion systems limitations, avoid intentional negative and zero g maneuvers lasting longer than __ seconds.
7
27
On the ground, the AUTO mode opens the oil cooler flap when the oil cooler outlet temperature is greater than __ °C and retracts the oil cooler flap when the oil cooler outlet temperature is less than __ °C.
75 C
| 60 C
28
In the air with landing gear extended, the AUTO mode opens the oil cooler flap when the oil cooler outlet temperature is greater than __ °C, and retracts the oil cooler flap when the oil cooler outlet temperature is less than __ °C.
82 C
| 76 C
29
The engines are normally shifted to LSGI and operated for __ minutes before shutdown to more gradually cool engine components and prolong engine life.
2
30
Describe the propeller
Dowty R391 six-blade, coarse seeking counter-weight design, variable pitch propeller
31
If the high pressure pump loses pressure completely, the counterweights will move the blade angles to approximately __° and will stabilize NP rpm at less than __ percent. Drag in this configuration is very low.
66
| 40
32
The auxiliary feather pump automatically shuts off after __ seconds.
20
33
Fuel for the APU comes directly from the No. __ fuel tank surge box.
2
34
Main tanks No. 1 and No. 4 each have __ FLCVs
3
35
The auxiliary tanks, external tanks, and tanks No. 2 and No. 3 each contain __ FLCV
1
36
Tanks No. 2 and No. 3 and the left and right auxiliary tanks have a ___ vent system.
wrap-around
37
Tanks No. 1 and No. 4 are vented by ___ vent valves to prevent fuel loss overboard on the ground when the aircraft is not in a wings-level attitude and in flight when the wings deflect upward.
float-controlled
38
Each main tank has a __ to __ psi ac-powered boost pump to ensure fuel flow to the engines.
15-24
39
Transfer pump __ psi
28-40 psi
40
All usable fuel except approximately __ pounds in each main tank may be dumped.
1520
41
dumping rates:
```
4 pumps:
6 pumps:
8 pumps:
10 pumps:
Fuselage tank (2 AR pumps):
```
```
2,000
2770
2950
3900
5440
```
42
L DUMP (left) and R DUMP (right), control the ___ valves and the ___ valves.
dump mast shutoff valves
| interconnect valves
43
If the AR pumps are subsequently turned on, the ___ valves are driven closed.
interconnect
44
Fuel drained from the SPR manifold is returned to the No. __ main fuel tank.
3
45
The drain cycle continues for approximately __ minutes after which the drain pump shuts off and the drain valve closes.
2.5
46
The valve automatically closes, shutting down the APU, if APU speed exceeds __ percent rpm, ___ is low, or the ___ fails.
110
oil pressure
tachometer
47
The ___ bus supplies APU starting control power.
isolated dc
48
The ___ bus (if the ___ bus is powered) and ___ battery supply power to the APU start motor.
essential dc
| utility
49
As APU speed reaches approximately __ percent, the APU battery start relay opens to reconnect the ___ battery to the ___ bus and isolate the ___ bus from the APU start motor.
50
utility
isolated dc
essential dc
50
When the battery is turned on and no other electrical power is available on the aircraft, the pilot ___, ___, and ___ are powered.
CNI-MU
| HDD 1 and 2
51
An HDD is not selectable until __ power is available.
ac
52
The APU door opens approximately __ on the ground and __ in flight.
35
| 15
53
The APU inlet door is energized to close after the APU speed has decreased to approximately __ percent rpm.
18
54
The APU will start and operate at altitudes from __ feet to __ feet.
-1000 ft to 20,000 ft
55
When quantity is less than __ pounds, the APU may not receive fuel unless the No. 2 ___ is on.
2000
| boost pump
56
At approximately __ percent rpm the electronic speed switch opens, de-energizing the starter, and the START light. After __ percent the APU is under its own power, and acceleration continues. At __ percent speed, electronic speed switch closes and ___ the ignition circuit and connects power to the APU bleed air switch. When full speed is reached, the governor assumes control and limits rotation to approximately __ percent rpm.
```
50
50
95
de-energizes
100
```
57
If the APU does not light off during ground start in extreme cold weather, ___ the APU with an external source of heat prior to second start attempt
preheat
58
What are the six ac buses?
left-hand ac bus, right-hand ac bus, essential ac bus, main ac bus, essential avionics bus, and main avionics bus.
59
What are the generators rated at?
115 V
60
Both the ___ bus and the ___ bus may be powered by any of the engine-driven generators.
essential ac
| main ac
61
If one generator is failed on either wing, the load is picked up by the remaining functioning generator on the ___ wing. If both generators on the same wing are failed, the load is picked up by the ___ generators on the ___.
same
symmetrical
opposite wing
62
What are the inverters rated at?
115 V
63
The essential avionics ac inverter also supplies __ Vac power for the ___, ___, and ___ sensor No. 1.
26
UHF/VHF DF
BIU no. 1
stall warning angle of attack
64
The APU powers the ___ bus regardless of the on/off line condition of the other generators.
essential ac
65
The EXT PWR position supplies external ac power to the __ bus, __ bus, __ bus, and __ bus, which in turn power the avionics buses and all four regulated TRs.
LH ac
RH ac
essential ac
main ac
66
Suspect a ___ when 115 VAC is indicated on all phases with the % LOAD indicating zero when the generator should be providing power to the electrical distribution system.
latent GCU failure
67
The TR units convert ac power to __ Vdc power
28
68
What are the six DC buses
the main dc bus, the essential dc bus, the isolated dc bus, the avionics dc bus, the utility battery bus, the avionics battery bus
69
The isolated bus is connected to the __ battery bus by the battery switch through the battery relay.
utility
70
The avionics dc bus is connected to the __ battery bus by the battery switch through the battery relay.
avionics
71
Except during ___ of the APU, the isolated and avionics dc buses are isolated by a bus tie relay.
battery only start
72
What are the batteries rated at?
24 V
73
__ dc and __ ac service outlets are installed throughout the cargo compartment to provide power for work-lights, fans, and other electrical equipment.
7
| 6
74
Personnel should not look directly into the infrared light source at a maximum intensity and should maintain a minimum of __ feet from energized IR lights to prevent possible eye discomfort or damage.
10
75
The utility system normally supplies hydraulic power to the ___.
wing flaps, main landing gear, nose landing gear, normal brakes, nosewheel steering, and a portion of the aileron, rudder, and elevator control boost system
76
The auxiliary system operates the ___.
cargo door and ramp, and provides pressure for emergency brake operation and emergency nose landing gear extension
77
A manually operated ___ valve is used to pressurize the utility hydraulic system with auxiliary system pressure.
ground test
78
The utility system reservoir holds __ gallons of hydraulic fluid.
5.5
79
An accumulator in the system provides ___ and a ___ during pressure fluctuations.
reserve pressure
| damping effect
80
The booster system reservoir holds __ gallons of hydraulic fluid.
3.1
81
The auxiliary system reservoir holds __ gallons of hydraulic fluid.
5.3
82
When the auxiliary pump is deenergized, auxiliary hydraulic pressure can be read only on the ___ gauge in the ___.
direct-reading
| cargo compartment
83
The main surfaces (ailerons, rudder, and elevators) are controlled by ___ systems.
mechanical control
84
Movement of the flaps lever from the retracted UP position to the __ percent position or beyond will activate the ___ valves to bypass the pressure reducers, thereby permitting fluid at approximately ___ psi to reach the booster assembly.
15
diverter
3000
85
The aileron booster assembly hydraulic actuating cylinder furnishes most of the force to move the ailerons. The booster assembly is furnished fluid through a pressure-reducer at approximately __ psi from both the booster and utility hydraulic systems.
2050
86
The ADV system provides improved handling qualities at speeds below __ knots when the autopilot is not engaged.
270
87
ADV boosted aileron system activates when the following conditions are met:
1. Lateral autopilot is disengaged.
2. Airspeed less than 270 knots.
Note
Once airspeed increases beyond 270 knots, pressure is reduced until airspeed is once again less than 265 knots.
3. Hydraulic system pressure within limits.
4. Aileron system pressure transducers have not failed.
5. Propeller speed of two cross-side engines is greater than 80 percent.
Note
Once high pressure has been achieved, the system will remain in high boost state until the propeller speed of two same side engines fall below 71 percent.
88
Lateral trim is obtained through operation of a trim tab on the ___ aileron. A ground adjustable tab on the ____ aileron compensates for any inherent imbalance about the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
left
| right
89
The GCAS detects and annunciates when the flaps are not set at __ ±8 percent or the elevator trim is not set at 0° ±_° at the time of takeoff.
50
| 5
90
The autopilot disengages automatically at the stall warning speed but the autothrottles attempt to maintain airspeed at no less than __ times the stall warning speed. The airspeed display on the reference set panel will not decrease below __ times the stall warning speed.
1.1
91
When the AOA is decreased sufficiently, the stick pusher is deactivated. The forward push on the control column is __ to __ pounds and can be overridden by either pilot.
55 to 60
92
A maximum bank angle of __° may be commanded by using the turn knob
35
93
Automatic disengagement of the autopilot occurs if the aircraft is decelerated to the stall warning airspeed (approximately __ VS)
1.08
94
The autothrottles system will not allow a speed below __ VS
1.2
95
The pneumatic systems served by the bleed air system are:
1. Engine starting system.
2. Air conditioning systems.
3. Cabin pressurization system.
4. Leading edge ice protection system.
5. Aircraft Buddy Start Lightweight Air Transfer System (ABSLATS) Operation.
96
Two check valves isolate the engine __ stage compressor from the bleed air manifold pressure.
10th
97
Normally, the BA/ECS uses bleed air extracted from the __ stage of the engine compressor for all pneumatic system demands. If the average engine power settings are below __ hp, the __ stage bleed air augmenter valve opens and regulates high pressure bleed air to a predetermined pressure schedule as a function of altitude.
10th
1,000
14th
98
The augmenter valve closes at __ hp.
1,100
99
When wing/empennage anti-ice is on and bleed air temperature is less than __ °C, the __ stage bleed air augmenter valve opens to increase temperature but not ___.
274
14th
pressure
100
Bleed air leak detection circuits monitor the bleed air ducting and equipment in the ___, ___, ___, and ___.
nacelles, wing leading edge, wheel wells, and cargo compartment
101
If a bleed air leak occurs, the ___ identifies and the F/ODS and BA/ECS isolates the affected zone.
F/ODs
102
When operating in the AUTO mode, the F/ODS signals the ___ and/or ___ valves to close.
isolation
| divider
103
LEFT WING
What valves are closed?
the No. 1 and No. 2 nacelle shutoff, high stage augmenter, and left wing isolation valves closes
104
RIGHT WING
What valves are closed?
the No. 3 and No. 4 nacelle shutoff, high stage augmenter, and right wing isolation valves close.
105
L X-SHIP
What valves are closed?
the divider, left wing isolation, and APU bleed air shutoff valves close
106
R X-SHIP/CARGO COMPARTMENT
What valves are closed?
the divider valve and right wing isolation valves close
107
CARGO FLOOR
What valves are closed?
the floor heat shutoff valve closes
108
NACELLE
What valves are closed?
Nacelle SOV and high stage augmenter valves close.
109
In the AUTO position, the F/ODS automatically closes the ___ valve when it detects an overheat condition in the left or right cross-ship ducts. This allows at least one ___ system to continue to operate.
divider
| air conditioning
110
The nacelle shutoff valve is opened and valve operation is automatically controlled by the ___.
BA/ECS
111
Two things will cause the landing gear aural warning message when the landing gear is not down and locked:
___, or ___.
retarding an engine power levers to within 5° of the FLT IDLE position below 1,500 feet AGL
extending the flaps more than approximately 70 percent without refueling pods attached or 80 percent with refueling pods attached.
112
If a failure is experienced in the hydraulic line between the fuse and the brake, the fuse will allow approximately __ cubic inches of fluid to bleed out of the system and then close, thereby retaining the remaining hydraulic fluid for operation of the other three brakes.
10
113
A pressure relief valve protects the system from over pressurization when the parking brake valve is closed. The pressure relief valve opens in the event brake hydraulic pressure exceeds ___ psi.
3,500
