Chromosomal Nomenclature & Structure Clinical Cytogenetics at a Glance Flashcards

(34 cards)

1
Q

What is cytogenetics?

A

A subspeciality of genetics which studies the chromosome number and structure at the chromosome level

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2
Q

How many genes are in a chromosome band? About how many bases is this?

A

80 genes -> about 6 Megabases

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3
Q

At what phase in the cell cycle are chromosomes analyzed?

A

Metaphase, since they are most condensed

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4
Q

What are the three types of chromosomes?

A
  1. Metacentric - centromere near middle
  2. Submetacentric - centromeres are closer to one end
  3. Acrocentric - really short p arms which end in satellites of repetitive DNA
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5
Q

Which are the important acrocentric chromosomes?

A

13, 14, 15, 21, 22 -> important in translocations

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6
Q

Once treated with trypsin to denature proteins and stained with Giemsa, how do the chromosomes appear?

A

Dark bands - gene poor AT rich regions

Light bands - gene rich GC rich regions

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7
Q

What are normal male and normal female karyotypes?

A
46,XY = male
46,XX = female
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8
Q

What is a germline vs somatic mutation?

A

Germline = constitutional, occurs before fertilization or in zygote. The mutation will be present in all tissues and inherited

Somatic = acquired = cancer

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9
Q

What is aneuploidy vs polyploidy?

A

Aneuploidy - gain or loss of one or more whole chromosomes

Polyploidy - gain or loss of entire sets

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10
Q

What is the karyotype of Down’s syndrome female?

A

47,XX,+21

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11
Q

What is the most common cause for aneuploidy? How do they differ?

A

Nondisjunction in meiosis I or II.

Meiosis I: all gametes will be off

Meiosis II: only 2/4 gametes will be off

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12
Q

What is the most common cause of polyploidy?

A

Two sperms fertilizing one oocyte

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13
Q

What is the leading risk factor for aneuploidy?

A

Maternal age - higher nondisjunction chance. This is the single leading cause of productive failure in humans

(half of all 1st semester miscarriages are chromosomal abnormalities)

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14
Q

What are three balanced karyotype chromosomal abberations?

A
  1. Translocation - reciprocal / robinsonian
  2. Inversion
  3. Insertion
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15
Q

What are three unbalanced karyotype chromosomal abberations?

A
  1. Translocations - when two chromosomes involved are not inherited together
  2. Deletion
  3. Duplication
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16
Q

When can a balanced abberation cause abnormal phenotype?

A

If the translocation disrupts a critical gene

17
Q

What is a reciprocal translocation?

A

Exchange of chromosomal material between non-homologous chromosomes

18
Q

What is a reproductive risk of people with reciprocal translocations?

A

Partial trisomy or monosomy depending on the gametes. For instance, if chromosome 4 carries some genes from chromosome 20 and this is passed down, you will have a partial trisomy 20 in the offspring, or a partial monosomy 4 if chromosome 20 is not inherited with it

19
Q

What is a Robertsonian translocation?

A

Translocation between acrocentric chromosomes - two acrocentric chromosomes fuse at centromere with loss of short arm

20
Q

What is the karyotype for a normal woman with a balanced Robersonian translocation of chromosomes 13 and 14?

A

45,XX,der(13;14)

21
Q

What are the two types of inversions?

A

Paracentric - two breaks in one arm

Pericentric - breaks in both arms, involving the centromere

Both reverse the orientation of the genes

22
Q

How many chromosomal breaks is needed for an insertion (balanced)?

A

At least 3: 2 to make DNA leave one chromosome, 1 to insert it into the other.

23
Q

What are some advantages of standard karyotype / routine chromosome analysis?

A

Can view the entire genome on the microscope level

Detects all types of gross chromosomal abnormalities >5 Mb in size

24
Q

What are some disadvantages of routine chromosome analysis?

A

Cannot detect changes less than 5 Mb
Low detection rate
Needs actively growing cells, with turnaround of 3 to 21 days (cells must be blocked at metaphase with colchicine to stop spindle formation, cells swelled in hypotonic solution)

25
What does FISH stand for? What type of disorders does it generally detect?
Fluorescence in situ hybridization Detects microdeletion and microduplication syndromes
26
How does FISH work?
Use probes of cDNA to target a specific gene. Heat the DNA to denature the DNA strands, let them hybridize and try to visualize the fluorescent tag
27
What are the advantages of FISH?
``` Do not need to have dividing cells, can be done during any phase High resolution (>100Kb) Rapid turnaround ```
28
What are the disadvantages of FISH?
Not a global genome analysis -> need to know the target Limited amount of targets in your cell Does not tell you the size of the genes involvled
29
When do you run a FISH?
When you have suspicion of a specific targeted disorder or are looking for a disorder in a patient. Especially used for prenatal detection of common trisomies or monosomies.
30
What does Array-CGH stand for?
Array Based Comparative Genomic Hybridization?
31
How does Array-CGH work?
Uses a reference genome to compare hybridization patterns. Can detect small and large deletions and duplications throughout all chromosomes with a high success rate
32
What is Array-CGH used for (its benefits)?
Assessing common and cryptic (strange or uncommon) abberations throughout all chromosomes, standard of care for children of idopathic developmental delay or multiple congenital abnormalities (20% detection vs 3% for routine karyotype). Even has a faster turnaround time
33
What are the limitations of Array-CGH?
Does not detect single gene mutations (unlike FISH, which can target specific genes) Does NOT detect BALANCED rearrangements (FISH or regular karotyping will do this) -> cannot physically see chromsomes Identifies copy number variants which may not be clinically significant -> causes anxiety
34
How does a genomic deletion vs genomic duplication appear on Array-CGH?
Deletion: A dip in signal intensity on chromosome array graph (due to loss of patient fluorescence as compared to control DNA) Duplication: A jump in signal intensity on chromosome array graph (due to gain of patient fluorescence as compared to control DNA)