Chronic Renal Failure Flashcards

1
Q

List the complications of chronic renal failure

A

Consider the functions of the kidney:

Anaemia
Renal osteodystrophy
Myopathy and neuropathy
Immunopathy
Hypertension
Endocrine dysfunction
Metabolic acidosis
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2
Q

What are the important consequences of haemodialysis to the anaesthetist?

A

Fluid depletion

Anticoagulation

Electrolyte levels
- Anaesthetists should be careful of a potassium measurement taken just after the end of dialysis. Ideally, wait a few hours for electrolytes to stabilize.

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3
Q

What is the importance of anticoagulation used for haemodialysis in the perioperative period

A
  • Anticoagulation (usually with heparin) is required during dialysis. This is reversed with protamine at the end of the dialysis session, but may still be important postoperatively when the first dialysis session may precipitate postoperative bleeding.
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4
Q

When should electrolytes be sampled by the anaesthetist subsequent to haemodialysis

A

Wait 4 hours for electrolytes to stabilize

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5
Q

What are the important consequences of chronic ambulatory peritoneal dialysis for the anaesthetist

A
Electrolyte levels
Protein loss
Risk of infection
Other complications
- Anaesthetists need to make sure that the fluid is drained from the peritoneal cavity before inducing anaesthesia because there is a small risk of gastric regurgitation and of aorto-caval compression.
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6
Q

What is standard practice with regards to planning elective surgery for patients on haemodialysis

A

Plan the surgery for the day after the dialysis

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7
Q

Does dialysis restore Urea and Creatinine to normal

A

No: SCr between: 3 - 400 umol/L

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8
Q

Why can platelet count be reduced after haemodialysis

A

Consumption on the filter

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9
Q

Why are patients who have been on long term RRT likely to become hypophosphataemic

A

Phosphate is filtered and not replaced - to some extent this is balanced by tthe fact that CRF tends to present with hyperphosphataemia and hypocalcaemia

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10
Q

What are the consequences of RRT related hypopophosphataemia and how should this be addressed prior to anaesthesia

A

Severe low PO4 leads to cardiovascular instability and should by treated with a phosphate infusion prior to anaesthesia

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11
Q

Elimination of what kind of drugs will be reduced in CRF resulting in accumulation with potential for toxic effects. Give examples of some of this drugs used in anaesthesia

A

Water soluble drugs

  1. Muscle relaxants
  2. Morphine-6-glucoronide (more potent than the parent compound)
    Metabolites of fat soluble drugs (If they are active metabolites - then there may be a prolonged effect of the drug in CRF, even though the drug itself does not accumulate). E.g. morphine-6-glucoronide
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12
Q

List the anaesthetic drugs that are unsafe in CRF

A

Volatile: Enflurane (Metabolism –> toxic level of Fl- ions)
Opioids: Pethidine (Norpethidine accumulation)
Analgaesic: NSAIDS (Renal VC -> worsen RF)
Muscle relaxant: Pancuronium (Prolonged action due to reduced metabolism and excretion by the kidney)

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13
Q

List the anaesthetic drugs that should be used with caution in CRF

A

Volatile: Sevoflurane (Fl- ions)
Opioid: Fentanyl/Morphine (delayed elim. of active metabolites)
MR:
- SUX - possible transient hyperkalaemia
- Vecuronium and Rocuronium - prolonged elimination

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14
Q

Which muscle relaxants are suitable in anaesthesia in patients with CRF and why.

A

Atracurium and Cisatracurium

  • Hofmann elimination BUT cause histamine release with potential for hypotension and worsen renal function

Rocuronium

  • t1/2 only slightly prolonged in CRF
  • no histamin release
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15
Q

Why is TIVA problematic in CRF

A

Vd’s are unpredictable and extravasation can occur without warning due to increasing infusion pressure

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16
Q

How is the approach to vascular access altered in patients with CRF?

A

The patient’s lifespan may be dependent on the availability of arteries and veins for the formation of arterio-venous fistula.

  • Avoid a-line if possible
  • Avoid Subclavian CV cannulation if possible (avoid subclavian stenosis - limits the viability of future fistulae)
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17
Q

How should existing A-V fistulae be treated in the perioperative setting

A

Protect - wrap in cotton wool (visual cue)
Avoid NIBP measurement in fistulated arm
Avoid vascular access in fistulated arm

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18
Q

How should post-operative analgaesia be adjusted in patients with CRF

A

Concerns with regard to morphines active metabolite M - 6 - G are not practical.

–> M - 6 - G accumulation most commonly occurs in the ICU setting with morphine infusions

Standard prescription of morphine via PCA with standard monitoring is safe

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19
Q

Why is epidural blockade contraversial in CRF

A

All patients with CRF have subclinical coagulopathy (attributable to impaired platelet function) - increase risk of epidural hematoma/abscess

If scheduled for haemodialysis - epidural is contraindicated due to the need for anticoagulation during dialysis

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20
Q

Why is epidural blockade relatively contraindicated for renal transplant

A

Increased CVS instability associated with epidural blockade compromises the transplanted kidney

21
Q

When can regional blocks be used in the context of CRF

A

Haemodialysis access procedures in the upper limb
- brachial plexus blockade (axillary/supraclavicular approach)

In patients receiving CAPD - insertion or removal of peritoneal dialysis catheter

  • Rectus sheath block
  • Transversus abdominis plane block (TAP)
22
Q

How should planning of the first postoperative dialysis session proceed?

A

It is sometimes appropriate to delay the first postoperative dialysis session if bleeding would be a problem.

Patients rarely come to harm because a single dialysis session is delayed or omitted, so there is a place for discussion with the responsible nephrologist, particularly if bleeding would pose particular problems or the use of epidural analgesia is contemplated.

23
Q

What are the three categories of the current functional status of a transplanted kidney

A
  1. Normal urine volumes and NO dialysis
    - Avoid nephrotoxic drugs
    - immuosupression
  2. Urine passed but still requires dialysis
    - Consider fluid balance
    - Avoid nephrotoxic drugs
    - immunosupression
  3. Anuric and dialysis dependent
    - Transplant has failed.
    - Dialysis dependent patient.
    - The patient may still require immunosuppression and may even present for a transplant nephrectomy.
24
Q

In a patient with a renal transplant, what electrolyte abnormality might imply transplant dysfunction

A

Hyperkalaemia

if > 6.0 –> indication for pre-operative dialysis

25
Q

How does creatinine provide a valuable reflection of renal function

A

Due to constant rate of production in skeletal muscle and free filtering at glomerulus.

26
Q

Explain how GFR should be interpreted relative the the SCr level

A

As GFR decreases to 40 ml/min - SCr rise slowly to ± 200 umol/l.

At SCr > 200 –> small changes in GFR lead to large rises in serum creatinine

27
Q

What are the symptoms of hypocalcaemia

A

MSK
Paraesthesia
Muscle cramps
Tetany

CARDIAC
Cardiac arrhythmias
Prolonged QT

RSP
Stridor

HAEM
Coagulopathy

28
Q

How can fatal hyperphosphataemia be caused in CRF

A

Administration of PO4 containing bowel prep

29
Q

How is GFR measured from creatinine clearance

A

24 hour urine specimen

30
Q

What does the Cockcroft-Gault formula estimate and what variables are required

A

Creatinine clearance

  • Age
  • Weight
  • Sex
31
Q

What does the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease estimate (MDRD) and what variables are required

A

Estimated GFR

  • Age
  • Sex
  • Race
32
Q

Classify the severity of Chronic Kidney Disease

A

Normal: GFR > 90 ml/min/1.73m^2 an no proteinuria

CKD 1: GFR > 90 + Evidence of kidney damage

CKD 2: 60 < GFR < 90 + Evidence of kidney damage
(Mild)

CKD 3: 30 < GFR < 60
(Moderate)

CKD 4: 15 < GFR < 30
(Severe)

CKD 5: GFR < 15 (dialysis or kidney transplant needed)

33
Q

What causes anaemia in CKD

A

Normocytic normochromic anaemia occurs as uraemia affects erythropoeisis

Rx: EPO

34
Q

How does CKD affect PT and aPTT

A

It doesn’t

Recent haemodialysis –> may cause a residual heparin effect

35
Q

What causes coagulopathy in CKD

A

Uraemia affects platelet function

Residual heparin affect after haemodialysis

36
Q

What can be considered to improve platelet function

A

DDAVP –> Desmopressin Acetate Tablets may be considered to improve platelet function

37
Q

Is transfusion to Hb > 8 g/dl in patients with CKD still standard practice?

A

No

Transfusion may have immunomodulatory effects

38
Q

When is a kidney transplant patient considered steroid free?

A

If their last dose of steroid > 3/12 ago

39
Q

Name 4 steroids and dose equivalents to prednisone 5mg

A

Hydrocortisone 20mg
Methylprednisolone 4mg
Triamcinolone 4mg

40
Q

Describe Cushing’s Syndrome

A
APPEARANCE
Moon Face
Truncal Obesity
Easy bruising and fragile skin
Buffalo hump

MSK
Proximal myopathy

BONES
Osteoporosis

RENAL/ENDOCRINE
Diabetes Mellitus
Mineralocorticoid excess (High Na and low K)

CVS
Hypertension and LVH

GIT
GI reflux

RSP
Sleep Apnoea

41
Q

What is a common immunosuppressive regimen in kidney transplant patients

A

Prednisolone

Tacrolimus (Inhibits IL-2 gene transcription –> blunting
T-cell activation and proliferation)

Mycophenolate (inhibiting purine biosynthesis and blocking lymphocyte proliferation.

42
Q

What is the mechanism of action and adverse effects of tacrolimus

A

Tacrolimus - Inhibits IL2 gene transcription –> blunting of T-cell activation and proliferation

Adverse effects

  • Nephrotoxicity
  • HPT
  • Hyperglycaemia
  • Neurotoxicity

CP450

43
Q

What is the mechanism of action and adverse effects of mycophenolate

A

Mycophenolate Mofetil (MMF) is an oral prodrug of mycophenolic acid that acts by inhibiting purine biosynthesis and blocking lymphocyte proliferation

Adverse Effects

  • Diarrhoea
  • Leukopaenia
  • Anaemia
44
Q

What is the mechanism of action and adverse effects of cyclosporin

A

Acts by inhibiting IL-2 gene transcription and blunting T-lymphocyte proliferation. Therefore can be used instead of tacrolimus.

Toxic plasma levels

  • nephrotoxicity,
  • hypertension,
  • neurological problems,
  • gingival hyperplasia and
  • hirsutism.

Undergoes cytochrome P-450 metabolism.

45
Q

What is the mechanism of action and adverse effects of azathioprine

A

Acts by inhibiting purine salvage and biosynthesis, thus blocking lymphocyte proliferation.

Adverse effects

  • leukopaenia,
  • macrocytic anaemia,
  • cholestatic hepatitis and
  • pancreatitis.
46
Q

How does perioperative fasting affect immunosuppressive medications

A

Medications are taken with food and prolonged perioperative fasting may lead to dangerous fall in plasma levels

Liaise with renal/transplant physicians when prolonged nil by mouth expected

47
Q

Why is tight haemodynamic control important in renal transplant patients

A

Denervated kidney –> impaired vascular autoregulation

48
Q

What should be considered prior to administration of vasopressors in transplant patients

A

Possible exaggerated alpha adrenergic response

49
Q

What is the anaesthetic relevance of the superficial position of a transplanted kidney

A

Positioning to avoid compression