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CI APK 2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following include functions of veins?
    I. Propels blood through the arterial pump by exerting pressure as blood flows
    ll. Deregulates cardiac input
    Ill. Sores large quantities of blood and making it available when required
    IV. Propels blood through venous pump
    V. Regulate cardiac output

a. Il, Ill, V
b. l, Il and I l l
c. Ill, IV and V
d. Il Ill and IV

A

c. Ill, IV and V

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2
Q
  1. The maximal heart rate (in beats per minute) during exercise allowable for a 70 year old male is
    a. 150
    b. 190
    c. 120
    d. 70
A

a. 150

220-age

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3
Q
  1. Throughout its course, the median nerve accompanies what artery as it enters the upper arm on the medial side of the humerus?
    a. Median
    b. Brachial
    c. Ulnar
    d. Radial
A

brachial a.

if above the teres major mm. = axillary a.

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4
Q
  1. This muscle is a pure flexor of the elbow when the forearm is in midposition.

a. Pronator teres
b. Biceps brachii
c. Brachialis
d. Brachioradialis
e. Anconeus

A

Brachioradialis

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5
Q
  1. Among the elderly, humeral fractures at the surgical neck are common where this nerve is in direct contact.
    a. Ulnar
    b. Axillary
    c. Median
    d. Radial
A

axillary n.

pag spiral groove fx = radial n.
crutch palsy = radial n.

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6
Q
  1. If a 40 kilogram force is applied over an area of four square centimeters, the (in kilograms per square centimeter) is equal to
    a. 20
    b. 10
    c. 30
    d. 40
A

10

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7
Q
  1. Painful sensation of the missing body part is termed

a. Phantom pain
b. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
c. Phantom sensation
d. Phantom disease

A

Phantom pain

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8
Q
  1. A patient informs her Physical Therapist how frustrated she feels after being examined by her physician. The client explains that she becomes so nervous, she cannot ask any questions during scheduled office visits. The therapist’s most appropriate response is to
    a. Offer to go with the client to her next-scheduled physician
    b. Tell the client it is a very normal response to be nervous in the presence of a physician
    c. Offer to call the physician and ask any relevant questions
    d. Suggest that the client write down questions for the physician and bring them with her to the next scheduled visit
A

Suggest that the client write down questions for the physician and bring them with her to the next scheduled visit

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following statements do NOT apply to elbow flexion range of motion?
    a. It has hard end-feel on contact of muscles between arm and forearm.
    b. The contact of the muscles between the forearm and arm can stop the motion
    c. The subjects with little soft-tissue have a hard end-feel
    d. The normal variation is between 120 to 160 degrees
A

It has hard end-feel on contact of muscles between arm and forearm.

soft endfeel dapat

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10
Q
  1. A therapist complete daily documentation using S.O.A.P. note format. The following entries typically belong to the subjective section, EXCEPT:
    a. Patient goal: return home without assistance
    b. Complains of pain when reaching for his shoes
    c. Hip hiking reproduces knee pain
    d. Denies pain with cough or sneeze
A

Hip hiking reproduces knee pain

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following statements does NOT describe work hardening programs?
    a. Work oriented.
    b. Emphasize physical conditioning through strengthening, stretching, endurance, and coordination exercises.
    c. A job specific type of rehabilitation program that attempts to address vocational and behavioral needs of clients.
    d. Supposed to simulate or duplicate actual job tasks.
A

Emphasize physical conditioning through strengthening, stretching, endurance, and coordination exercises.

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12
Q
  1. Upon actively flexing the head, the client complains of electric shock sensations radiating down the spine into the legs. This sign is termed
    a. Spurling’s
    b. Lhermitte’s
    c. Laseque’s
    d. Lasegne’s
A

Lhermitte’s

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13
Q
  1. The following are characteristic of an ideal mattress overlays EXCEPT
    a. 30 lbs. of 25% ILD (indentation Load Deflection).
    b. Density of 1.3 lb/ft3.
    c. Thickness of 3-4 inches.
    d. Thickness of 1-2 inches
A

Thickness of 1-2 inches

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14
Q
  1. The cardiac output among the elderly at rest and during light exercise is nearly the same as in the young persons because
    l . Aged hearts have a faster intrinsic rhythm ll. This is partly due to cardiac hypertrophy with its resultant bigger end-diastolic volume
    Ill. Of the stiffer arteries among the elderly, end-systolic volume is also greater, increasing the tendency for pulmonary congestion
    a. I and I l l
    b. I only
    c. I and I l
    d. I l and Ill
A

d. II & III

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15
Q
  1. What level of amputation must be avoided in a patient who will wear a prosthesis?
    a. Knee disarticulation
    b. Upper one third of the leg
    c. Hemipelvectomy
    d. Distal one-third of the leg
A

Hemipelvectomy

Tenoplastic (Kirk, Callender)
Osteoplastic (Gritti- Stokes)
True Disarticulation

BKA : standard 20-50%
AKA : standard 35-60%

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16
Q
  1. The height of a specific vertebrae may be used to determine landmarks. Which of the following are true?
    I C2-level with hyoid bone
    ll. C4-C5-level with thyroid cartilage
    Ill. T4-height of the manubrium and body of sternum
    IV. T 12 body- tip of the xiphoid process
    V. L4 spinous process- level with the highest portion of the crest of the ilium
    VI. S2- height of posterior superior iliac spine

a. I Il, I l l and IV
b. Il, IV, V and VI
c. I Il, I l l and VI
d. Ill, IV, V and VI
e. Il, Ill, V and VI

A

e. Il, Ill, V and VI

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17
Q
  1. These lung segments can be auscultated anteriorly EXCEPT the lobe.
    a. Inferior lingual of the upper
    b. Apical segment of the upper
    c. Lateral segment of the middle
    d. Medial segment of the lower
A

Medial segment of the lower

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18
Q
  1. In the neuropathic extremity, a poor indicator of inflammation is
    a. Head and redness
    b. Redness and edema
    c. Edema or pain
    d. Pain and disturbance of function
    e. Edema or loss of function
A

d. Pain and disturbance of function

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19
Q
  1. You were training a patient to perform bed to chair transfer. If he was able to accomplish majority of the transfer without assistance, how will your rate his performance?
    a. Dependent with supervision
    b. Independent
    c. Dependent with close guarding
    d. Dependent with minimum assistance
A

Independent

min assistance PT 25% pt 75%
mod 50 -50
max pt 75%

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20
Q
  1. Which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation techniques are the most appropriate to achieve the therapists goals of improving a patient’s lower extremity strength?
    a. Contract relax and rhythmic stabilization
    b. Repeated contraction and slow reversal
    c. Contract relax and hold relax
    d. Hold relax and slow reversal
A

b

a - is for muscle tightness/ relax

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21
Q
  1. The main determinant in the uptake of oxygen by the lungs is

a. Ventilation: perfusion ratio.
b. Lung perfusion.
c. Dead space: total ventilation ratio.
d. Lung ventilation.

A

a

22
Q
  1. What is the maximal volume inspired after normal inspiration?
    a. Functional residual capacity
    b. Vital capacity
    c. Tidal volume
    d. Inspiratory reserve volume
A

d

23
Q
  1. A client with chronic low back pain has failed to make any progress toward meeting established goals in over three weeks of treatment. The therapist has employed a variety of treatment techniques, but has yet to observe any sign of subjective or objective improvement in the client’s condition. The most appropriate action would be to:
    a. Alert the referring physician of the client’s status
    b. Continue to modify the client’s treatment plan
    c. Re-examine the client and establish new goals
    d. Transfer the client to another therapists schedule.
A

Alert the referring physician of the client’s status

24
Q
  1. A therapist completes a daily progress note utilizing S.O.A.P. format. Which of the following entries does NOT belong in the objective section?
    a. Incision on the left anterior forearm covered with sterile strips
    b. Left lower extremity range of motion within normal limits
    c. Will receive continuous ultrasound to the right anterior shoulder at 1.5 W/cm2 for 5 minutes
    d. Tenderness to palpation in Ll-L2 area
A

c. Will receive continuous ultrasound to the right anterior shoulder at 1.5 W/cm2 for 5 minutes

25
Q
  1. A post CVA patient can maintain standing position without external support and show limited postural sway. He can also remain standing while turning his head or trunk. What is his functional grade? standing balance.
    a. Fair static and dynamic
    b. Good static and dynamic
    c. Good static and fair dynamic
    d. Fair static and good dynamic
A

C

functional balance grades (4)

N static - able to maintain steady balance s hand hold support / dynamic - accepts maximal challenge & shift wt. easily c in full ROM

Good static - limited postural sway / dynamic - accepts moderate challenge able to maintain balance picking obj on floor

Fair static - able to maintain balance with hand hold support may require occasional minimal assitance
/ dynamic - minimal.challenge ; maintain balance while turning head/trunk

Poor static - requires hand hold support + mod to max assist to maintain position / dynamic unable to accept challenge

26
Q
  1. The central bare zone of the sarcomere has no heads but only tails of the myosin. This is the zone.
A

d. Pseudo H

27
Q
  1. In carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS), the following statements are true EXCEPT:
    a. There is not a good correlation between results of electrophysiological studies and symptoms the patient report
    b. Severe symptoms may not be associated with deficits in grip or complains of weakness.
    c. As the CTS progresses, the symptoms of paresthesia may decrease and be replaced with actual muscle atrophy and weakness
    d. If the disorder has progressed to the point of thenar muscle atrophy, then nonsurgical treatment may be appropriate or effective
A

D

28
Q
  1. A patient diagnosed with spasmodic torticollis conditions is an example of
    a. Asthenia
    b. Asynergia
    c. Dyssynergia
    d. Dystonia
A

D

29
Q
  1. What slow writhing movements of a wormlike character involving the extremities, trunk and neck is a movement disorder resulting from pathological changes involving the cortex and basal ganglia?
    a. Ataxia
    b. Athetosis
    c. Chorea
    d. Hemichorea
A

B

30
Q
  1. The following statements characterize the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, EXCEPT:
    a. There is no atrophy and no motor or reflex change
    b. Sensory and motor function is mediated by this nerve
    c. More apt to occur with metabolic disorders
    d. Some sensory loss to pain and touch is typical
A

B

31
Q
  1. What fibers bring neurons of one part of the cortex of a hemisphere into communication with those of another part of the same hemisphere?
    a. Commissural
    b. Projection
    c. Assimilation
    d. Association
A

D

32
Q
  1. A deep sulcus that outlines and sweeps backward above the temporal pole, and then continues, on the superolateral surface, almost horizontally backwards marking the line along which the hemisphere became folded. The speech and hearing area are both closely associated with it.
    a. Medial
    b. Lateral
    c. Collateral
    d. Central
    e. Calcarine
A

B

33
Q
  1. The following are typically utilized when measuring skinfold in anthropometric measurements designed to determine percent body fat, EXCEPT:
    a. Lateral calf
    b. Subscapular
    c. Iliac crest
    d. Triceps
A

A

34
Q
  1. Sudden, violent, hurling movements of a limb may indicate a lesion of the
    a. Basal ganglia
    b. Corticospinal tract
    c. Cerebellum, cerebellum
    d. Cerebral cortex
    e. Corticobulbar tract
A

A

35
Q
  1. The following are types of radial nerve compression, EXCEPT:
    a. Honeymoon palsy
    b. Pronator syndrome
    c. Saturday night palsy
    d. Supinator syndrome
A

B

36
Q
  1. The client losing his ability to write due to a brain lesion is a result of this neurological disorder
    a. Agraphia
    b. Bradykinesia
    c. Agnosia
    d. Apraxia
    e. Aphasia
A

A

37
Q
  1. Very slow movements
    a. Dystonia
    b. Chorea
    c. Bradykinesia
    d. Dysarthria
    e. Athetosis
A

C

38
Q
  1. The primary impairment in patients diagnosed with cerebellar cerebral vascular accident is
    a. Impaired speech
    b. Visual field cuts
    c. Decreased balance and coordination
    d. Impaired comprehensive skills
A

C

39
Q
  1. As action potential travels over the muscle fiber membrane, large quantities of calcium ions are released which activate the forces between filaments to initiate contraction. This causes the
    a. Myosin filaments to slide outward among the actin filaments
    b. Actin filaments to slide outward among the myosin filaments
    c. Myosin filaments to slide inward among the actin filaments
    d. Actin filaments to slide inward among the myosin filaments
A

D

40
Q
  1. The nerve most likely to be injured in wrist slashing is the nerve.
    a. Radial
    b. Median
    c. Musculocutaneous
    d. Ulnar
A

B

41
Q
  1. Tumor located at the premotor cortex will give rise toside.

a. Incoordination of the contralateral side
b. Paralysis of the ipsilateral
c. Paralysis of the contralateral
d. Tremors of the ipsilateral side

A

A

42
Q
  1. What part of the central system gathers information about the environment as well as the magnitude of the response of its effects and transmits it to the center?
    a. Central processor
    b. Integrating center
    c. Sensor
    d. Effector
A

C

43
Q
  1. Factors contributing to neuropathic plantar ulceration in patients with diabetes include the following, EXCEPT:
    a. Limited mobility of the great toe metatarsophalangeal joint
    b. Increased plantar sensation
    c. Foot deformities
    d. Limited mobility of the subtalar joint
    e. Limited mobility of the talocrural joint
A

B

44
Q
  1. Which of the following are treatment philosophies of neuropathic arthropathy (or Charcot’s joint)?
    l . Treatment is mainly palliative ll. Immobilization and joint protection are two important principles of treatment Ill. Where conservative management fails, joint replacement is performed
    IV. Where conservative management fails, surgical fusion is recommended
    V. Whenever possible, the underlying neurologic disorder should be treated
    a. l, Il and V
    b. Il, IV and V
    c. I Ill and IV
    d. l, Il and IV
A

B

45
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true in motions of the knee?
    a. Accessory motions are normally produced when the knee is in full extension
    b. Axial rotation occurs best when the knee is extended
    c. Terminal rotation of the knee is a locking mechanism observed during the last 20 degrees of knee extension
    d. The axis for flexion and extension is clinically approximated as directed through the center of the lateral and medial condyles of the femur
A

C

46
Q
  1. Partial tearing to the ligament occurs at its femoral or tibial attachment and is a result of forced abduction of the tibia on the femur
    a. Anterior cruciate
    b. Lateral collateral
    c. Posterior cruciate
    d. Medial collateral
A

D

47
Q
  1. This deepest muscle of the leg inverts the foot and plantar flexes the transverse tarsal joint
    a. Flexor digitorum longus
    b. Tibialis anterior
    c. Flexor hallucis longus
    d. Tibialis posterior
    e. Abductor hallucis
A

D

48
Q
  1. An example of telereceptor
    a. The ear
    b. free nerve e
    c. Tropomyosin
    d. The carotid baroceptor
    e. A muscle spindle
A

A

49
Q
  1. A patient is unable to extend the knee in the sitting position or perform straight leg raising when supine. This may be due to weakened or paralyzed
    a. Gluteus maximus
    b. Quadrates femoris
    c. Iliopsoas
    d. Quadriceps femoris
A

D

50
Q
  1. What structure forms the floor of the femoral triangle? . Iliacus ll. Pectineus Ill. Adductor longus
    a. I l and Ill only
    b. l, Il and Ill
    c. I and I l only
    d. I and I l l only
A

B

CI (4 decks)

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