CI DAY 2 Flashcards
(111 cards)
1
Q
What is the charge of manganese in the salt MnF3?
A. 2
B. 1+
C. 1-
D. 3+
A
D. 3+
2
Q
A common unit of energy is ergs, 1 g-cm2/s2. How many ergs are in 1 J?
A. 1 ergs
B. 100 ergs
C. 1E4 ergs
D. 1E7 ergs
A
D. 1E7 ergs
3
Q
Which one of the following statements about a gas with the empirical formula NO2 must be correct?
A. it contains approximately 30% by mass nitrogen
B. the mass of 22.4 liters of gas at STP is 46 g
C. one mole gas contains 3 mol of atoms
D. its relative molecular mass is 46
A
A. it contains approximately 30% by mass nitrogen
4
Q
Which of the following quantities of substance contains the largest number of atoms?
A. 0.5 mol of sulfur dioxide
B. 18 ml of water at room temperature
C. 16 g of oxygen
D. 44.8 dm3 (liter) of neon at STP
A
B. 18 ml of water at room temperature
5
Q
A valve that controls flow by means of a disk or wedge-shaped dam sliding at right angles to the direction of flow and seating lightly in the
valve body is a
A. gate valve
B. globe valve
C. butterfly valve
D. orifice
A
A. gate valve
6
Q
The equation that relates friction factor and Reynold’s number f=64/Re, holds to
A. smooth pipes
B. turbulent flow only
C. laminar and turbulent flow
D. laminar flow only
A
D. laminar flow only
7
Q
The pressure drop in a rotameter is _____.
A. variable
B. zero
C. not measurable
D. constant
A
D. constant
8
Q
The ratio of viscosity of a fluid to that of water at 20 C is called the
A. kinematic viscosity
B. relative humidity
C. Newtonian viscosity
D. specific viscosity
A
D. specific viscosity
9
Q
The person responsible counting the term “unit operation” is
A. Robert Pigford
B. Gililand
C. Arthur Little
D. Treybal
A
C. Arthur Little
10
Q
When pipe joints have to be broken from time to time for maintenance work, the connection that should be used is
A. nipples
B. couplings
C. welded joints
D. flanges
A
D. flanges
11
Q
For ideally incompressible fluid, the mach number will be
A. 0
B. 1
C. 1.5
D. 5
A
B. 1
12
Q
Which of the following produces maximum pressure difference for transportation of gases?
A. vacuum pipes
B. blowers
C. fans
D. compressors
A
D. compressors
13
Q
A device for increasing the velocity of a fluid in steady flow is a
A. nozzle
B. vent
C. orifice
D. compressors
A
A. nozzle
14
Q
The resistance of a layer of fluid to flow over the next layer is measured by
A. viscosity
B. surface tension
C. friction factor
D. drag coefficient
A
A. viscosity
15
Q
For Newtonian fluids, the shear stress is
A. constant
B. inversely proportional to rate of deformation
C. equal to shear rate of deformation
D. a linear function of the shear rate of deformation
A
D. a linear function of the shear rate of deformation
16
Q
If the speed of a centrifugal pipe is doubled, the energy requirement becomes approximately ____ times the original energy requirement.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 10
A
C. 8
17
Q
Which of the following is a unit of kinematic viscosity
A. centipoise
B. pascal-second
C. centistokes
D. ld/ft-s
A
C. centistokes
18
Q
- Which of the following is the basis for Bernoulli’s law for fluid flow?
A. the principle of conservation of mass
B. the continuity equation
C. the principle of conservation of energy
D. Fourier’s Law
A
C. the principle of conservation of energy
19
Q
Which fitting is used to connect pipes of different diameters?
A. coupling
B. reducer
C. flange
D. valve
A
B. reducer
20
Q
A machine or device for moving incompressible fluid is commonly known as
A. compressor
B. motor
C. pump
D. turbine
A
C. pump
21
Q
A gas turbine cycle consisting of two adiabatic steps and two isobaric steps.
A. Brayton cycle
B. Sterling cycle
C. Rankine cycle
D. Otto cycle
A
A. Brayton cycle
22
Q
For any closed system formed initially from given masses of prescribed chemical species, the equilibrium state is completely determined
by any two properties of the system, provided only that these two properties are independently variable at the equilibrium state.
A. Phase rule
B. Lewis-Randall rule
C. Duhem’s Theorem
D. Henry’s Law
A
C. Duhem’s Theorem
23
Q
A device substantially without moving parts, in which a fuel, such as hydrogen, natural gas, methanol, propane, can be converted directly
into twice the quantity of electrical energy that would result from the usual boiler-turbine-generator combination.
A. fuel cell
B. steam power plant
C. geothermal plant
D. heat engine
A
A. fuel cell
24
Q
The dew point of air indicates
A. the actual temperature of air
B. the temperature at which its volume per unit weight of dry air is calculate
C. the temperature at which its enthalpy is calculated
D. the temperature at which its water content will start to condense
A
D. the temperature at which its water content will start to condense
25
One ton of refrigeration capacity is equivalent to
A. 50 k cal/hr
B. 200 BTU/hr
C. 200 BTU/minute
D. 200 BTU/day
B. 200 BTU/hr
26
6. At the exit of a nozzle:
A. pressure is high and velocity is low
B. both pressure and velocity are high
C. pressure is low and velocity is high
D. both pressure and velocity are low
C. pressure is low and velocity is high
27
7. The entropy change of any system and its surroundings, considered together, resulting from any real process is positive and approaches
a limiting value ___ for any process that approaches reversibility.
A. unity
B. zero
C. infinity
D. less than 1
B. zero
28
8. The Buckingham Pi-theorem is applied to
A. pressure-velocity relationship in compressible fluid flow
B. heat transfer by natural convection
C. dimensional analysis of a physical system
D. the stability of a control system
C. dimensional analysis of a physical system
29
9. The temperature at which the moisture in humid air exerts a partial pressure equal to its vapor pressure is the
A. dry bulb temperature
B. ambient temperature
C. critical temperature
D. dew point
D. dew point
30
Which among the following has the best insulating property?
A. window glass
B. wood
C. air
D. concrete
C. air
31
A theoretical body where the absorptivity and emissivity are independent of the wavelength over the special region of the irradiation and the surface emission is called
A. black body
B. gray body
C. opaque body
D. transparent body
B. gray body
32
The thermocouple is based on the Seeback effect which states that a/an ______ is generated when opposite junction of certain dissimilar pairs of wires are exposed to different temperatures.
A. current
B. temperature
C. Emf
D. resistance
C. Emf
33
Dietus-Boelter equation for determination of heat transfer co-efficient is valid
A. for liquid metals
B. for fluids in laminar flow
C. for fluids in turbulent flow
D. polished surfaces
C. for fluids in turbulent flow
34
Dropwise condensation occurs on
A. clean and dirt free surfaces
B. smooth clean surfaces
C. contaminated cooling surfaces
D. polished surfaces
C. contaminated cooling surfaces
35
Fouling factor
A. is a dimensionless quantity
B. accounts for additional resistance to heat flow
C. does not provide a safety factor for design
D. none of these
B. accounts for additional resistance to heat flow
36
An insulator should have
A. low thermal conductivity
B. high thermal conductivity
C. less resistance to heat flow
D. a porous structure
A. low thermal conductivity
37
A popular type of heat exchanger for cooling large quantities of fluid is the
A. double-pipe
B. shell and tube
C. extended surfaces
D. plate
B. shell and tube
38
The rate of evaporation at a given operating temperature in an evaporator is more when
A. when operating pressure is high
B. the operating pressure is low
C. there is vacuum
D. when the liquid level is high
B. the operating pressure is low
39
Film and drop are terms associated with
A. boiling
B. condensation
C. evaporation
D. all of these
B. condensation
40
The overall conductance for a composite material in series is equal to the
A. sum of the individual conductance
B. inverse of the total resistance
C. sum of the individual conductivities
D. sum of the individual resistance
B. inverse of the total resistance
41
The mode of heat transfer that can take place in a vacuum is known as
A. convection
B. conduction
C. radiation
D. all of these
C. radiation
42
Given strength of pipe is 10000 psi and working pressure of 400 psi, find the schedule number.
A. schedule 40
B. schedule 80
C. schedule 10
D. schedule 5
A. schedule 40
43
Which of the following meters will have the highest permanent pressure loss?
A. Pitot tube
B. orifice
C. venturi
D. rotameter
B. orifice
44
The most economical valve for use with a large diameter pipes.
A. butterfly
B. globe
C. needle
D. gate
A. butterfly
45
Multistage compressors are used in industry because, they
A. reduce the cost compressor
B. resemble closely to isothermal compression
C. reduce the size requirement
D. are easy to control
B. resemble closely to isothermal compression
46
78. The pressure drop through a gate valve is lowest when
A. fully open
B. ¾ open
C. ½ open
D. ¼ open
A. fully open
47
79. Property of fluid that converts kinetic energy to heat energy.
A. viscosity
B. fluidity
C. shear
D. resistance
B. fluidity
48
80. Which of the following is an extensive property?
A. temperature
B. velocity
C. pressure
D. mass
D. mass
49
81. If the temperature of a confined gas is constant, the pressure is inversely proportional to the volume. This is known as:
A. Charles law
B. Archimedes principle
C. Boyle’s law
D. Dalton’s law
C. Boyle’s law
50
82. Which of the following is the most efficient?
A. Carnot
B. Brayton
C. Otto
D. Diesel
A. Carnot
51
83. The achievement of a temperature below that of the intermediate surroundings is
A. air conditioning
B. drying
C. refrigeration
D. evaporation
C. refrigeration
52
84. Work is a
A. property of the system
B. state function
C. path function
D. state description of a system
C. path function
53
85. Throttling process is
A. a reversible and isothermal process
B. a reversible and constant entropy process
C. an irreversible and constant entropy
D. constant enthalpy process
D. constant enthalpy process
54
An industrial process for the production of sulfuric acid that is based on the oxidation of sulfur to sulfur trioxide on a vanadium oxide catalyst, followed by reaction with water in fuming sulfuric acid.
A. Bayer process
B. Lead chamber process
C. Leblanc process
D. contact process
D. contact process
55
Compounds added to the glass to give it the white opaque appearance so characteristics of vitreous enamels.
A. fluxes
B. opacifiers
C. electrolytes
D. whiteners
B. opacifiers
56
The union of the nonvolatile inorganic oxides resulting from the decomposition and fusion of alkali and alkaline earth compounds, sand,
and other constituents, ending in a product with random atomic structure. It is a rigid, undercooled liquid having no definite melting point
and sufficiently high viscosity to prevent crystallization.
A. ceramics
B. glass
C. cements
D. refractories
B. glass
57
An equipment used to separate liquids where there is sufficient differences in density between the liquids for the droplets to settle readily.
A. decanters
B. hydrocyclones
C. coalescers
D. centrifuge
A. decanters
58
A principle type of gas-solids separator employing centrifugal force.
A. cyclones
B. air filter
C. gravity settler
D. impingement separator
A. cyclones
59
A catalyst can
A. shift the equilibrium reaction
B. increase the rate constant of the forward reaction
C. diminish the activation energy
D. decrease the pressure
C. diminish the activation energy
60
The net rate of reaction of an intermediate is
A. 0 B. 2 C. >0 D. <0
A. 0
61
What is the order of the reaction wherein the half-life increases as the initial concentration increases?
A. 1st order
B. zero order
C. 2nd order
D. 3rd order
B. zero order
62
Catalyst is a substance which
A. Increase the speed of chemical reaction
B. Decrease the speed of chemical reaction
C. Can either increase or decrease the speed of chemical reaction
D. Alters the value of equilibrium constant in a reversible reaction
C. Can either increase or decrease the speed of chemical reaction
63
What is the reaction rate constant, K, for third order reaction?
A. (L/mol)/s
B. (L/mol)/s2
C. (L/mol)2/s
D. (L/mol)3/s
C. (L/mol)2/s
64
For the reaction 2A(g) + 3B(g) D(g) + 2E(g) with rD= kCACB2 the reaction is said to be
A. non-homogeneous
B. elementary
C. non-elementary
D. consecutive
C. non-elementary
65
It is the amount of energy in excess of the average energy level which the reactants must have in order for the reaction to proceed.
A. bond energy
B. activation energy
C. free energy
D. heat energy
B. activation energy
66
An optimum number of the effects for a given application is a function of the
A. capacity
B. economy
C. efficiency
D. none of these
B. economy
67
A method of selecting alternates by the comparison of all the pertinent annual direct costs plus the capital recovery costs.
A. present worth method
B. pay-out time method
C. annual cost method
D. rate-of-return method
C. annual cost method
68
In economic balance in evaporation, the common variable is the number of effects, an increasing number of which ____ the fixed costs.
A. increases
B. does not affect
C. decrease
D. may increase or decrease
A. increases
69
It is measure of profitability defined as the annual profit before taxes, divided by the fixed-capital investment.
A. return on investment
B. payback period
C. annual return
D. present worth
A. return on investment
70
Gross income less gross expense before deducting provision for income tax is
A. net income
B. gross proceeds
C. gross profit
D. gross sales
C. gross profit
71
It is also known as the amount of money paid for the use of borrowed capital.
A. discount
B. principal
C. amortization
D. interest
D. interest
72
Factors other than economic ones which at present time cannot be evaluated in terms of dollars and cents.
A. reducible factors
B. irreducible factors
C. indirect costs
D. sunk cost
B. irreducible factors
73
The realization value of a plant or equipment which is still reusable is still reusable is the
A. scrap value
B. par value
C. salvage value
D. book value
C. salvage value
74
It is the design of equipment or the selection of operations conditions whereby the increasing costs are balance by the decreasing costs to give the greatest economic return.
A. replacement
B. break-even analysis
C. economic balance
D. equivalent alternates
C. economic balance
75
When using net present worth calculation to compare two projects; which of the following could invalidate calculation?
A. differences in the magnitude of the project
B. evaluating over different time periods
C. mutually exclusive projects
D. non-conventional cash flow
B. evaluating over different time periods
76
The uniform annual end of year payment to repay a debt in years, with an interest rate I, is determined by multiplying the capital recovery
factor by the
A. average debt
B. initial debt plus interest
C. initial debt
D. average debt plus interest
C. initial debt
77
What must two investments with the same present worth and unequal lives have?
A. identical salvage values
B. identical equivalent uniform annual cash flow
C. different salvage values
D. different equivalent uniform annual cash flow
D. different equivalent uniform annual cash flow
78
Design based on conditions giving the least cost per unit time or maximum profit per unit of production
A. limit
B. plant design
C. breakeven
D. optimum economic design
D. optimum economic design
79
Cost in index use to estimate equipment cost of
A. quotations given for different equipment capacity
B. quotations of different time period
C. similar equipment quotations indifferent years
D. equipment cost quoted at different capacities
C. similar equipment quotations indifferent years
80
It is equal to the gross annual sales divided by the fixed-capital investment.
A. turnover ratio
B. capital ratio
C. investment ratio
D. acid ratio
A. turnover ratio
81
32. It is the rate of earning that must be achieved by an investment in order for it to be acceptable for the investor.
A. MARR
B. ROI
C. PBP
D. acid ratio
A. MARR
82
As a particle size is reduced
A. screening becomes progressively more difficult
B. screening becomes progressively easier
C. capacity and effectiveness of the screen is increased
D. surface area of solid decreases
A. screening becomes progressively more difficult
83
No heat cycle is possible without the rejection of some heat. One of the useful statements of the second law of thermodynamics.
A. false
B. partly false
C. does not follow
D. true
84
Reversible adiabatic operation has no change in
A. heat
B. enthalpy
C. temperature
D. entropy
D. entropy
85
When the thermodynamics system undergoes a cyclic process its internal energy change is
A. infinite
B. negative
C. positive
D. zero
D. zero
86
The work output of every heat engine
A. equals the difference between its heat intake and heat exhaust
B. equals that of a Carnot engine with the same intake and exhaust temperatures
C. depends only on its intake temperature
D. depends only on its exhaust temperature
A. equals the difference between its heat intake and heat exhaust
87
The area enclosed by the p-V graph of a complete heat engine cycle equals
A. the heat intake per cycle
B. the heat output per cycle
C. the work done on the engine per cycle
D. the work done by the engine per cycle
D. the work done by the engine per cycle
88
A frictionless heat engine can be 100% efficient only if its exhaust temperature is
A. equal to its input temperature
B. less than its input temperature
C. 0 C
D. 0 K
D. 0 K
89
A process not involved in the operating cycle of a Carnot engine is
A. an isothermal expansion
B. an isobaric expansion
C. an adiabatic compression
D. an adiabatic expansion
B. an isobaric expansion
90
It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first payment is made several periods after the beginning of
the payment
A. deferred annuity
B. progressive annuity
C. delayed annuity
D. simple annuity
A. deferred annuity
91
Heat transfer by conduction occurs
A. only in liquids
B. only in solids
C. only in gases and liquids
D. in gases, liquids, and solids
D. in gases, liquids, and solids
92
Heat transfer by convention occurs
A. only in gases
C. only in gases and liquids
D. only in liquids
D. in gases, liquids, and solids
C. only in gases and liquids
93
What is the equivalent of Prandtl number in convective transfer?
A. Sc
B. Sh
C. Bi
D. Pe
A. Sc
94
What are the two contacting phase in leaching?
A. extract phase and raffinite phase
B. feed phase and solvent phase
C. solvent phase and solute phase
D. overflow and underflow
D. overflow and underflow
95
To determine the minimum ratio of the extraction solvent to feed solvent, one has to know
A. the distribution coefficient
B. only the concentration of solute in the feed solvent
C. only the concentration of solute in the extraction solvent
D. number of stages in the system
A. the distribution coefficient
96
Critically damped system means that the damping coefficient is
A. 1
C. >1
B. <1
D. 0
A. 1
97
It is a dimensionless group which is proportional to the ratio of inertial force and surface tension force.
A. Bond number
B. Froude number
C. Weber number
D. Power number
C. Weber number
98
A machine or device for moving incompressible fluid is commonly known as
A. compressor
B. motor
C. pump
D. turbine
C. pump
99
What do you call the heating of an ore to bring about reaction with the furnace atmosphere.
A. smelting
B. leaching
C. roasting
D. calcination
A. smelting
100
The falling rate period in the drying of a solid is characterized by
A. increase in rate of drying
B. increase temperature both on the surface and within the solid
C. decrease temperature
D. none
B. increase temperature both on the surface and within the solid
101
The dew point of air indicates
A. the actual temperature of the air
B. the temperature at which its volume per unit weight of dry air is calculated
C. the temperature at which its enthalpy is calculated
D. the temperature at which its water content will start to condense
D. the temperature at which its water content will start to condense
102
It is defined as the percentage ratio of the partial pressure of the vapor to vapor pressure of the liquid at the existing temperature.
A. relative saturation
B. percentage saturation
C. relative humidity
D. saturation
C. relative humidity
103
A control structure with two feedback controller with the output of the primary controller changes the set point of the secondary controller whose output goes to the final controller.
A. feedforward control
B. ratio control
C. cascade control
D. override control
C. cascade control
104
It refers to adherence to a surface.
A. adsorption
B. absorption
C. desorption
D. osmosis
A. adsorption
105
Which control system is used for multi-input, multi-output system?
A. cascade control
B. feedbackward control
C. feedforward control
D. model predictive control
D. model predictive control
106
Unsaturated air (with dry bulb temperature and dew point being 35 C and 18 C respectively) is passed through a water spray chamber maintained at 15 C. The air will be
A. cooled and humidified
B. cooled and dehumidified with increase in wet bulb temperature
C. cooled at the same relative humidity
D. cooled and dehumidified with decrease in wet bulb temperature
D. cooled and dehumidified with decrease in wet bulb temperature
107
Which product is produced commercial by the Haber process?
A. sulfuric acid
B. ammonia
C. propane
D. calcium
B. ammonia
108
Which of the following types of radiation will be stopped by a piece of paper?
A. alpha
B. neutron
C. gamma ray
D. x-ray
A. alpha
109
The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the temperature (T) as
A. D α T
B. D α T0.5
C. D α T1.5
D. D α T3
C. D α T1.5
110
The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the pressure (P) as
A. D α P1.5
B. D α 1/P0.5
C. D α 1/P
D. D α 1/P1.5
C. D α 1/P
111
