CIH Part II Flashcards
(211 cards)
1
Q
What chemical CANNOT be detected with an FID?
A
Formaldehyde.
2
Q
What analytical method can quantify hundreds of different chemicals and be used for continuous monitoring?
A
Infrared analyzer.
3
Q
In which form of radiation emission does the mass of the atom stay the same?
A
Beta.
4
Q
What is the whole body dose rate PEL for U.S. radiation workers?
A
5 rem/year.
5
Q
Why is plastic and glass the shielding of choice for beta radiation?
A
When beta particles hit high-atomic number materials, they create x-rays.
6
Q
What organ is most vulnerable to lasers?
A
The eyes.
7
Q
Erythema is also known as what?
A
Sunburn.
8
Q
Hearing of bodily tissue is a concern with what type of radiation?
A
Non-ionizing.
9
Q
What does a steep dose-response curve indicate?
A
Small variation in response.
10
Q
Adverse effects affecting solely the site of exposure is known as what?
A
Local toxicity.
11
Q
Ethanol and carbon tetra chloride have what kind of effect?
A
A synergistic effect.
12
Q
Substances that cause birth defects in a developing embryo or fetus are called what?
A
Teratogens.
13
Q
What is the common term for “uticarial reactions?”
A
Hives.
14
Q
What two chemicals are metabolized to phosgene in the kidneys?
A
Carbon tetrachloride and chloroform.
15
Q
Heating chlorinated solvents or refrigerants and/or isocyanate production are red flags for what exposure?
A
Phosgene gas.
16
Q
What health outcome is associated with Benzene?
A
Leukemia.
17
Q
What do CO, cyanides, and H2S have in common?
A
They are all chemical asphyxiants.
18
Q
Organophosphates like parathion and malathion inhibit what kind of enzymes?
A
Cholinesterase enzymes.
19
Q
ADME
A
Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.
20
Q
Metal process that involves high amperage and low voltage, and electrolytic reduction?
A
Aluminum manufacturing.
21
Q
Does aluminum production utilize an acidic or caustic bath to dissolve the bauxite ore and form alumina?
A
Caustic.
22
Q
Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, CO, fluorides, and CO2 are byproducts of what manufacturing process?
A
Aluminum manufacturing.
23
Q
Adding alloys and reducing carbon content refers to what manufacturing process?
A
Steel manufacturing (iron to steel).
24
Q
Lung cancers are associated with which aspect of the steel manufacturing process?
A
Coking process.
25
Laryngeal cancer is associated with what metal refining activity?
Pickling.
26
During which alkaline treatment is hydrogen gas released?
Electrolytic cleaning.
27
In electroplating, which piece is the workpiece?
Cathode (-).
28
Cyanide salt solutions and acid baths may be found in which process?
Electroplating.
29
What evaluating the TLV of a gaseous mixture, how do you know if the PEL for the mixture has been exceeded?
Greater than 1.
30
What does a low SD value indicate?
Little variability between samples.
31
What does a high SD value indicate?
A lot of variability between samples.
32
What two variables affect fan noise?
Rotational speed and number of blades.
33
What particle size is inhalable?
< 100 um.
34
What size cassette is used in asbestos air sampling?
25 mm w/ extended cowl.
35
PVC cassettes are generally used to sample for what?
Silica, dust, and zinc oxide.
36
What sampler used for inhalable dust is also capable of being used for biological sampling?
Button sampler.
37
What sampler would be good for collecting culturable samples?
Andersen impactor.
38
What adsorbent can handle up to 90% humidity?
Activated charcoal.
39
What sampler is best used to sample for semi-volatiles?
Impinger.
40
What is the most common type of adsorbent?
Activated charcoal.
41
What core body temperature marks the beginning of hypothermia as the body loses heat?
35 C.
42
What chemical is classified as a "deep lung irritant?
Nitrogen dioxide.
43
What kind of radiation can penetrate several material types, make other objects radioactive, and produce many of the radioactive sources used in industrial, academic, and medical applications?
Neutrons.
44
45
What particle size can reach the thoracic region?
< 10 um.
46
What particle size is respirable?
< 4 um
47
How how mass can the breakthrough section have in a sorbent tube in the event of breakthrough and still be considered usable?
Up to 10% of the mass of the collection sample.
48
What is the optimal setup in a passive diffusion sampling situation?
Large space, short distance to source.
49
Thermal desorption is part of the analysis method for which type of sampling?
Adsorbent sampling.
50
What is the downside of using colorimetric tubes?
Accuracy +/- 20%.
51
What direct read analyzer is not sensitive to formaldehyde?
FID.
52
What is something that is measurable for populations but not individuals?
Probability of getting a disease.
53
What risk model says that there is no "safe" level of exposure and that every exposure increases your risk of getting sick.
No threshold risk model.
54
Are isocyanate respiratory sensitizers?
Yes.
55
In regard to exposure assessments, what describes a "compliance strategy?"
Taking only a few measurements of persons expected to have the highest exposure.
56
In regard to exposure assessments, what is a "comprehensive strategy?"
Taking random sample exposures and developing an exposure distribution. Often involves SEG's.
57
What does variability between workers indicate?
Excess exposures result from activities or behaviors of individual workers.
58
What is the study of disease in populations?
Epidemiology.
59
What is the assumption of a null hypothesis?
That there is no association between a risk factor and a disease.
60
Difference in risk between an exposed group and an unexposed group is known as what?
Attributable risk.
61
What is the most powerful type of study other than clinic trials?
Cohort study.
62
What kind of study identifies a population prospectively and follows them over time?
Cohort study.
63
A study of a population regardless of exposure or disease status is known as what?
Cross-sectional study.
64
Who developed Theory X and Theory Y?
Douglas McGregor.
65
According to H.W. Heinrich, what percentage of accidents are cause by unsafe acts?
88%.
66
Hygiene theory is attributed to which safety philosopher?
Frederick Herzberg.
67
Who developed "Incongruency Theory," which states there is an incongruency between how employees see themselves and how the organization sees them?
Chris Argyris.
68
What is the ISO environmental management standard?
ISO 14,000/14,001.
68
What number is the ISO quality management system?
ISO 9000.
69
TB is what kind of pathogen?
Bacteria.
70
DNA or RNA and a protein coat is called what?
A virus.
71
Trichinellosis and toxoplasmosis are kinds of what?
Parasites.
72
In what kind of study is disease and exposure measured at the same time?
Cross-sectional study.
73
Using different criteria to define disease between exposed and unexposed populations is known as what?
Observational bias.
74
Choosing controls from a different population than cases is known as what kind of bias?
Selection bias.
75
What is the assumption of an alternate hypothesis in epidemiology?
There is an exposure-disease relationship.
76
What is confounding bias?
When variables affecting either exposure or disease are not considered.
77
What makes a confidence interval not significant?
If it includes 1 (or 100 in some cases).
77
What is the defining characteristic of BSL 2?
Indigenous agents of moderate risk.
78
Standard Threshold Shift
10 dB drop in either the 2,000 Hz, 3,000 Hz, or 4,000 Hz range in either ear.
79
At what BSL is an open bench allowed?
BSL 1.
80
Working with indigenous or exotic agents that have a definite risk of infection calls for what biosafety level?
BSL 3.
81
What is the minimum intake velocity for a BSC-3?
None.
82
In a BSC-1, how much air is recirculated?
None, all is exhausted outside through a HEPA filter.
83
What BSC has a separate plenum of uncontaminated air?
BSC-2 Type B.
84
What kind of waste must be decontaminated prior to disposal?
Biological waste.
85
What disease is associated with devices that produce waterborne aerosols?
Legionnaire's disease.
86
Is diesel exhaust known as a human carcinogen?
Yes.
87
Nasopharyngeal cancer is a result of chronic exposure to what chemical?
Formaldehyde.
88
Why does incomplete combusion occur?
Insufficient oxygen.
89
In IAQ, a high level of which chemical indicates ventilation issues?
CO2.
90
What are the primary hazards of Ozone?
Respiratory.
91
When using hard hats, what must the headband suspension clearance be?
> 1.25 in.
92
In regard to aerosol cartridge classification, what does N stand for?
Non-oil aerosols.
93
In regard to aerosol cartridge classification, what does R stand for?
Can be used with oil aerosols up to 8 hours.
94
How much hose is allowed to use with a SAR?
300 ft.
95
What is the APF for a tight-fitting PAPR or airline respirator?
1,000.
96
What part of the body is affected by DeQuervain's syndrome?
The thumb.
97
What is the qualitative test for DeQuervain's?
Finklestein's test.
98
What is called when tendons on the inside of the elbow are injured or strained?
Medial epicondylitis (golfer's elbow).
99
Hand Activity Level
Estimated force for given hand activity level that will likely produce CTD.
100
What is the ideal standing bench height?
89 cm.
101
What is the ideal sitting bench height?
50 - 71 cm.
102
How far below the elbow should the standard work height be for heavy work?
4 - 6".
103
What is the defining symptom of heat exhaustion?
Cold and clammy skin.
104
What describes fainting due to heat?
Heat syncope due to non-acclimitization.
105
Why do heat cramps occur?
Loss of salt through sweating.
106
What is the lowest classification of heat-related illness?
Heat fatigue.
107
What temperature describes moderate hypothermia?
32 C.
108
What temperature describes severe hypothermia?
28 C.
109
At what temperature is adequate insulation required for cold stress?
4 C.
110
What is the principle of detection employed by a sound level meter?
Direct measurement of sound pressure.
111
What does increasing the number of samples taken do to the certainty?
Estimation of the mean is improved by narrowing the confidence limits.
112
What health effect is caused by somatosensory toxins?
Impaired sense of touch or temperature.
113
What is the minimum relative moisture content necessary to promote the growth of mold in typical wallboard material?
0.9.
114
Which analytical method is best for separating ionic chemicals such as inorganic compounds and aldehydes for analysis?
Ion chromatography.
115
What is brass composed of?
Copper and zinc.
116
Which industry is likely to have exposures to arsenic?
Electronic microchip production.
117
If you were told that an agent of concern negatively affected glomerular filtration, what type of toxicant would you be looking for?
Nephrotoxin.
118
What is the principal occupational health hazard in gas carburizing?
CO.
121
What analytical limit is generally 10x the instrument noise level?
Limit of quantification.
122
What analytical limit is generally 3x the instrument noise level?
Limit of detection.
123
In analytical chemistry, what is concentration equal to?
Mass/Volume (mg/m3).
124
What is the analytical technique where substances are separated based on the mass of the molecule?
Mass spectrometry.
125
What is atomic absorption spectroscopy used to analyze?
Metals.
126
What is the purpose of SDpooled?
It is used to compare two unique sample sets.
127
Which infectious disease has the highest human incidence in the U.S.?
Tuberculosis.
128
What scientific principle is utilized by infrared analyzers?
Beer's law.
129
What is the correct order for the four levels of Kirkpatrick's model for evaluation of training, beginning with the least to most effective?
Reaction, learning, application/behavior, business impact.
130
Argyria
Bluish/slate grey coloring of skin and mucous membranes that is the result of over-exposure to silver dust.
131
At which frequency is the frequency response attenuation level equivalent between the A, B, and C-weighting networks?
1,000 Hz.
132
Inspire people, support decisions, and influence change describe what leadership model?
Team leadership.
133
What class of chemicals is hepatoxic, nephrotoxic, neurotoxic, and can cause convulsions?
Chlorinated hydrocarbons.
134
What is the primary target organ of exposure to vinyl chloride vapors?
Liver.
135
According to ACGIH, which vertical zone for repetitive, lengthy lifting tasks lasting hours has no known safe limit, regardless of the horizontal zone?
Floor to middle shin height.
136
What kind of direct-read instrument operates by measuring the heat of the combustion of gas?
Thermal conductivity sensor.
137
How do potassium iodine tablets work for radiation exposure?
The tablets flood the thyroid gland with non-radioactive iodine, and radioactive iodine will pass through the body.
138
What industry uses the Banbury mixer?
Rubber manufacturing.
139
Where might tetra ethyl lead be found?
Oil & gas storage tanks.
140
Fluorosis and Aluminum fluoride may be present during which metal refining process?
Aluminum manufacturing.
141
A sulfuric acid bath may be utilized during which metal finishing process?
Pickling.
142
What is the purpose of dipping metals in acids during pickling?
To remove oxides.
143
What three exposures could an IH expect from an electroplating process?
Metal acid mists, acid baths, and cyanide salt solutions.
144
What is the purpose of smelting?
To extract base metals from ore.
145
An enormous level of heat, SO 2, and CO may indicate what kind of workplace environment?
Smelting.
146
Foundry Operation
Pouring of molten metal into a mold of refractory sand and binder.
147
What does foundry binder often contain?
Aldehydes.
148
In foundry Operations, what analyte is a source of a wide variety of chemical exposure?
Resins.
149
What is the purpose of resin in foundry Operations?
To strengthen the mold by binding sand particles together.
150
In terms of molding, what is the cope?
The top half of the flask.
151
In terms of molding, what does the Muller machine do?
Mixes sand with binder and holds the high potential for exposure.
152
Size range of particles produced during cutting in the metal machining industry?
0.1 - 1 um.
153
Zinc coating processes are a red flag for what occupational illness?
Metal fume fever.
154
Which welding process uses voltages from 10 to 50 V and amperage up to 2,000 amps?
Shielded metal arc welding (stick).
155
Which welding process produces nitric oxides (NOx) up to 3 ppm?
TIG.
156
157
Fluorides are associated with which welding process?
Submerged arc welding (SAW).
158
Which kind of welding has the highest voltage gradient, temperatures that exceed 60,000 F, and produces high levels of noise, fumes, and nitrogen dioxide?
Plasma arc welding.
159
What is PVC is plastics manufacturing associated with?
Cancer.
160
Isocyanates may be used as catalysts in what manufacturing process?
Plastics.
161
Halogenated solvents like methylene chloride, TCE, and Perchloroethylene vapor are associated with what industry?
Metal degreasing.
162
What common forms of pollution control experiences static pressure of 3 - 6" wg?
Baghouse and cyclones.
163
What form of pollution control only has a 0.5" wg drop, can handle particles larger than 0.25 um, and is used by powerplants?
Electrostatic precipitators.
164
How many hours of training does a first responder (operations level) need to have?
8 hours.
165
Relative Risk
Comparison of disease prevalence between exposed and non-exposed worker populations.
166
What are the products of acid/base reactions?
Salt and water.
167
What chemical exposure is a known risk factor for skin cancer?
Arsenic.
168
What does OSHA consider to be the "hearing zone?"
2-foot spherical area around the ear.
169
Which organ in the ear contains the hair cells?
Cochlea.
169
"Organ of Corti" is another name for what?
The cochlea.
169
What is the purpose of the eustachian tube?
Connect the middle ear cavity with the mouth.
170
How do you undo a "log" when doing calculations?
Other side becomes exponent to base 10.
170
What is a "high fence" in hearing conservation?
100% hearing loss.
170
What is the difference between sound intensity and sound pressure?
Sound intensity is a vector, having both amplitude and direction.
171
What does a sound adsorption coefficient of 0.6 mean?
40% of the noise will be reflected, 60% absorbed.
172
What is the equation for NRR?
SPL - (NRR - 7)/2
173
What is the best sound barrier material for high frequencies?
Baffles.
173
What test quickly screens for hearing loss?
Rinne test.
174
What is the best noise control setup?
Complete enclosure.
175
What does RWL represent?
The load that healthy workers could handle up to 8 hours/day without an increased risk of developing lower back pain.
175
Nosacusis
Hearing loss due to disease (ototoxins).
176
Static Posture
Working in a fixed body position without moving for long durations.
176
What chemical exposure is associated with Raynaud's syndrome?
Vinyl chloride.
177
What does an RWL over 1 indicate?
Increased risk of lifting-related lower back pain.
178
Bursitis
Inflammation of the bursa (fluid-filled sacs that insulate bones/tendons, etc.)
179
How much light is required for fine assembly work?
500 footcandles.
180
What is the minimum amount of light required for industrial workplaces?
200 footcandles.
181
In the heat stress equation, what does it mean if S is positive?
Gaining heat/warming up.
182
What is the acclimitization schedule for heat stress?
20% of the shift on the first day and add 20% each additional day.
183
What is the temperature threshold for heatstroke?
40 C.
184
Heart rate equation?
BPM - age = heart rate limit.
185
Frostnip
Freezing of the top layer of skin only.
186
Is a toxicant man-made or natural?
Man-made.
186
What is the difference between bioactivation and biotransformation?
Bioactivation turns a hazardous chemical into something more dangerous, while biotransformation turns a hazardous chemical into something less hazardous.
187
Hormesis
Beneficial effects from a low dose of a toxin, but dangerous effects at high doses.
188
This kind of physical hazard is known as a mutagen?
Radiation.
189
Ames Test
Test to determine mutagenicity of chemicals.
190
Difference between proliferative and non-proliferative pnuemoconiosis?
With proliferative pnuemoconiosis, the damage continues after exposure stops.
191
Is siderosis proliferative or non-proliferative?
Non-proliferative.
192
Polycyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbons effects
Carcinogen, teratogen, respiratory effects, skin sensitization
193
Where might PAH's be found in steel making?
Coking process.
194
What is the scarring of lung tissue called?
Pulmonary fibrosis.
195
Two primary targets of the kidney?
Mercury and cabinet.
196
What does an A1 carcinogen classification mean?
Carcinogenic to humans.
197
What does an A3 carcinogen classification mean?
Confirmed animal carcinogen with unknown relevance to humans.
198
What kind of cancers are associated with Vinyl chloride?
Brain and liver cancer.
199
What chemical is responsible for Itai-Itai disease?
Cadmium.
200
What is the unit for specific gravity?
g/mL.
201
What is the unit for molecular weight?
g/mol.
202
How to go from circumference to radius?
Divide by 2pi.
203
