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Veterinary Physiology > Circulatory System > Flashcards

Circulatory System Flashcards

(91 cards)

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1
Q

What is blood?

A

A suspension of cells in extracellular fluid

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2
Q

What is the main component of blood?

A

Plasma

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3
Q

What are electrolytes?

A

Ionised constituents of blood which diffuse across capillaries

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4
Q

Which plasma protein is responsible for clotting?

A

Fibrinogen

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5
Q

What 2 proteins in plasma are involved in immune response?

A

Globulin and Albumin

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6
Q

What is hypoalbuminaemia and what does it cause?

A

Low levels of the protein albumin in blood which causes increased movement of fluid out of vessels (oedema)

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7
Q

What are the symptoms of hypoalbuminaemia?

A

Ascites, pitting oedema, hypoperfusion, hypotension, tachypnoea, dyspnoea, localised cell inflammation

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8
Q

State 3 causes of hypoalbuminaemia.

A

1)liver disease
2)GIT protein loss
3)kidney protein loss

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9
Q

State 4 treatment routes of hypoalbuminaemia

A

1)physiotherapy
2)colloid administration
3)monitor body weight
4)abdominal girth
5)blood testing

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10
Q

What are the 3 cell components of blood?

A

Leukocytes, erythrocytes and thrombocytes

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11
Q

What are the difference in shapes of erythrocytes (RBCs) in canines vs felines?

A

canine=biconcave + uniform
feline=variable in size and shape, smaller

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12
Q

How long do canine erythrocytes last in comparison to feline erythrocytes?

A

Canine=110-120 days
Feline=65-76days

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13
Q

What unique feature do avian erythrocytes have?

A

nuclei

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14
Q

How are erythrocytes formed?

A

Erythropoeisis

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15
Q

What are the 3 types of haemoglobin?

A

Embryo, foetal, adult

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16
Q

Is blood type inherited in dogs?

A

No

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17
Q

What are the 2 blood types of dog?

A

DEA 1.1 + vs DEA1.1 -

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18
Q

What blood types do cats have?

A

A, B, AB

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19
Q

What is fading kitten syndrome?

A

Type A kitten inherits type A antibodies from mother(who is type B)

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20
Q

What is Immune Mediated Haemolytic Anaemia?

A

Low RBC count (due to destruction)

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21
Q

What is the treatment of IMHA?

A

Transfusion
Packed RBCs
Steroids
IV fluids
Monitoring

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22
Q

What are the 5 types of leukocytes?

A

1)Basophil
2)Neutrophil
3)Eosinophil
4)Lymphocyte
5)Monocyte

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23
Q

What occurs when there is too little thrombocytes?

A

Thrombocytopaenia

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24
Q

What occurs when there is too many thrombocytes?

A

Thromboembolism

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25
What are the three steps of clotting?
Contraction of blood vessel, formulation of platelet plug, coagulation of the blood
26
Which layer of skin do platelets attach to?
Endothelial layer
27
What is the von willebrand factor?
Glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion
28
Which protein in plasma reinforces the platelet plug?
Fibrin
29
What converts fibrinogen to fibrin?
Thrombin
30
What converts prothrombin to thrombin?
Factor X
31
What angle do you administer intramuscular injections?
90 degrees
32
Which nerve in the quadriceps must we avoid?
Sciatic nerve
33
Where is safe to inject a dog?
Trapezius, Triceps, Quadriceps, Hamstrings and epaxial
34
Where is safe to inject a horse?
Trapezius, pectoral mucsles and gluteal muscles
35
Why are cows only injected in trapezius?
It would damage to meat elsewhere
36
What is immunity?
Resistance possessed by the body to infectious diseases and substances
37
What is innate immunity?
The body's first line of defence against microorganisms
38
Is innate immunity specific or non specific?
non specific
39
Is innate immunity rapid or slow?
Rapid
40
What are the 3 functions of innate immunity?
To kill microorganisms, phagocytosis, to stimulate immune response
41
What are the 8 innate immunity cells?
Neutrophil Basophil Eosinophil Monocyte Mast cell Natural killer Macrophage Dentritic cell
42
What is the function of a monocyte?
Produces toxic oxygen species
43
What is the function of a macrophage?
Phagocytosis
44
What is the function of a Neutrophil?
Produce antimicrobial substances and enzymes
45
What is the function of a Basophil?
releases histamine and heparin
46
What is the function of eosinophil?
Release peptides, lipids and other cytokine indicators
47
Which leukocyte responds to an allergic reaction?
Basophil
48
What is adaptive immunity?
Immunity which occurs after the body has been exposed to a foreign antigen
49
What are dendric cells?
Antigen presenting cells which mature in contact with antigens and migrate to lymph nodes
50
Which lymphocytes originate in primary lymphoid tissue?
T cells and B cells
51
What are the 3 steps to adaptive immunity
Recognition of foreign antigen, processing of antigen and presenting it to T and B cells
52
What is humoral immune response?
Recognition of antigens by B cells
53
What is a naive animal?
An animal that is exposed to an antigen for the first time
54
What is a primed animal?
Second exposure to antigen, memory cells are present so faster immune response
55
When is 1st vaccine given?
When maternal antibodies have declined
56
What are the 3 type of T lymphocytes?
Helper T cells Killer T cells Suppressor T cells
57
What is active immunity?
Where antibodies and memory cells are formed as a response to an antigen
58
What is passive immunity?
Antibodies or activated T cells are received from another individual
59
Why is colostrum needed?
No antibodies are transferred to foetuses in utero
60
How quickly does colostrum need to be consumed after birth for dogs, cats and calves?
Dog=24hr Cat=16hr Calf=12hr
61
What is the result of colostrum deficieency?
Increased risk of infection Neonatal Septicaemia
62
What is the function of the lymphatic system?
Remove excess tissue fluid Transport proteins Transport waste Filter Lymph
63
What are primary lymphoid organs responsible for?
Maturation of lymphocytes, e.g T lymphocytes mature in the thymus
64
What are secondary lymphoid organs responsible for?
Site where lymphocytes interact with Antigen presenting cells (APCs). Exposure to T cells, B cells, Dendrites and Macrophages
65
Where does excess tissue fluid come from?
Arterial pressure pushes fluid out but osmotic pressure is not enough to draw it all back in
66
How can the lymphatic system prevent oedemas from forming?
Lymphatic drainage occurs
67
What is lymph
Plasma that has left blood, it has no large proteins, more water, sugar and electrolytes
68
What is the structure of lymph vessels?
Valves, beaded appearance but no muscular tunica so if there is no muscle contractions elsewhere in the body fluid may accumulate and cause pneumonia
69
State 3 major lymphatic ducts
Thoracic, tracheal (vena cava), Right lymphatic duct (right subclavian vein)
70
Where are lymph nodes situated in the body?
Near major organs for drainage
71
Name the 6 lymph nodes in an animal
Submandibular, paratoid,pre-scapular axillary, inguinal, popliteal
72
What is the role of the lymph nodes?
They add lymphocytes to the lymph and halt spread of disease
73
State 3 locations of primary lymphoid tissue
Bone marrow Thymus gland Appendix
74
State 3 locations of secondary lymphoid tissue
Spleen Tonsils MALT
75
Why is the thymus large in young animals?
This is where lymphocytes mature, and they have an immature immune system so require more
76
What is the function of the spleen?
It is a reservoir for blood
77
What does white pulp store?
Lymphocytes
78
Function of red pulp?
stores RBCs ,and removes dead RBCs and foreign material via macrophages
79
What does MALT stand for?
Muscosal Assosiated Lymphoid Tissue
80
What does BALT stand for (hint:tonsils)
Bronchial Associated Lymphoid Tissue
81
What are the 5 regions of the tube (heart)?
Truncus arteriosis Bulbus cordis Ventricle Atrium Sinus venosus
82
How does the heart form from a tube?
Tube lengthens and folds in on itself. Venous return is shifted to the right side and atrioventricular opening is partitioned.
83
What is formed first the atria or ventricles?
The ventricles
84
What is the final stage in heart formation?
Formation of aorta and pulmonary trunk
85
What is the difference between a foetal and newborn heart?
Foetal heart has mixed blood due to the opening of ductus arteriosus
86
What is Patent Ductus Arteriosus?
Blood shunting from aorta into pulmonary artery- causing atrial fibrilation, left sided heart failure, pulmonary oedema and heart murmur.
87
What are 4 defects of tetralogy of fallot?
Pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defects, overriding aorta and hypertrophy of the right ventricle.
88
What are the signs of tetralogy of fallot?
Lethargy Cyanosis Stunted growth Exercise intolerance Seizures
89
What is Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Thickening of ventricle walls, reducing volume of blood in ventricles + pumped out
90
What is Dilated Cardiomyopathy?
Weakened heart muscles so ventricles and atria are dilated and enlarged so cannot contract effectively causing backup of blood
91

Veterinary Physiology (2 decks)

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