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Flashcards in Cisco Self Assesment Test Deck (54):
1

Which two of the following statements are true about a router?
A. It divides a network into separate broadcast domains.
B. It operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model.
C. It uses MAC address to make packet forward decision.
D. It chooses the best route for your data to travel.
E. It does application data format conversion.

A. It divides a network into separate broadcast domains.
D. It chooses the best route for your data to travel.

2

Which three of the following statements are true?
A. The first three octets (24 bits) of the Class C IP address are used for Network ID.
B. An IP subnet equals a collision domain.
C. Layer 2 MAC addresses have no hierarchical structure.?
D. 192.168.1.18 is a Class B IP address.
E. router can be used to separate networks by breaking the network into multiple LAN segments called IP subnets.

A. The first three octets (24 bits) of the Class C IP address are used for Network ID.

C. Layer 2 MAC addresses have no hierarchical structure.

E. A router can be used to separate networks by breaking the network into multiple LAN segments called IP subnets.

3

Which 2 pairs of wires are used in a 100BaseT Ethernet cable?
A. Pair 1 and 3, pair 2 and 6
B. Pair 1 and 2, pair 3 and 6
C. Pair 1 and 2, pair 3 and 7
D. Pair 1 and 2, pair 7 and 8
E. Pair 1 and 2, pair 3 and 8

B. Pair 1 and 2, pair 3 and 6*

4

Which devices are used to connect a router to the local point of presence (POP) of the service provider? (Choose 3)
A. Ethernet card
B. CSU/DSU
C. Cable Modem
D. DSL Modem
E. Fiber Channel card

B. CSU/DSU
C. Cable Modem
D. DSL Modem

5

Which two statements are true for UTP cable?
A. Category 3 UTP cable can transmit data at speeds up to 100 Mbps.
B. The more twists an UTP cable has, the better category of the cable.
C. UTP cabling is used extensively for WAN connections.
D. Category 5e UTP cables can transmit data at speeds up to 1000 Mbps.
E. There are four individual copper wires in a UTP cable.

B. The more twists an UTP cable has, the better category of the cable.
D. Category 5e UTP cables can transmit data at speeds up to 1000 Mbps.

6

What is the wiring configuration of an UTP crossover cable?
A. pin 1 crosses to 3 and pin 2 crosses to 6
B. pin 1 crosses to 7 and pin 2 crosses to 8
C. pin 2 crosses to 3 and pin 4 crosses to 5
D. pin 1 crosses to 2 and pin 3 crosses to 6

A. pin 1 crosses to 3 and pin 2 crosses to 6

7

Which two statements are true about Supervisor Engine Module on a large-chassis Switch?

A. The switch cannot function without the Supervisor Engine Module.
B. The Supervisor Engine Module for the 6500 Series Cisco switches is always installed in the same slot.
C. The green Status LED indicates that all chassis environmental monitors are reporting OK.
D. The Orange Active LED means the supervisor engine is in standby mode.
E. The Orange System LED means that a major hardware problem has occurred.

A. The switch cannot function without the Supervisor Engine Module.

D. The Orange Active LED means the supervisor engine is in standby mode.

8

Which command can be used to obtain serial numbers for router network modules?
A. show version
B. show hardware
C. show module
D. show system

C. show module

9

The running configuration file can be found in which memory?
A. NVRAM
B. Flash memory
C. RAM
D. ROM

C. RAM

10

Which two of the following statements are true?
A. Cisco uses the same power supply unit for all devices.
B. Cisco Power supplies are rated by volts.
C. VWICs reside on High Density Voice Network Modules and combine WAN Interface Card and Voice Interface Card functionality.
D. The ports on a VWIC card are RJ45.
E. A FXS is a telephone interface which supplies power, provides dial tone, and generates ringing voltage.

C. VWICs reside on High Density Voice Network Modules and combine WAN Interface Card and Voice Interface Card functionality.

E. A FXS is a telephone interface which supplies power, provides dial tone, and generates ringing voltage.

11

Which port types can be used in large-chassis Switch Ethernet modules? (Choose three)
A. GBIC
B. RJ48
C. SFP
D. RJ45
E. SPA
F. AIM

A. GBIC
C. SFP
D. RJ45

12

Which two statements are true about the configuration register?

A. The configuration register is an 8-bit register.
B. The default value of the configuration register is 0x2102.
C. A boot field set to 1 configures the system to use the boot system commands in the startup-configuration file.
D. The highest four bits of the configuration register form the boot field.
E. A boot field set to 0 has the router enter into ROMMON mode automatically.

B. The default value of the configuration register is 0x2102.

E. A boot field set to 0 has the router enter into ROMMON mode automatically.

13

Where does the Power-On Self Test and Bootstrap code reside in a router?
A. RAM
B. ROM
C. Flash memory
D. NVRAM

B. ROM

14

Which three of the following information are shown in the show ip interface brief command output?

A. the interface type and number
B. the layer 2 frame encapsulation type
C. interface’s status
D. the layer 2 MAC address
E. the layer 3 IP address
F. the speed and duplex settings of the interface

A. the interface type and number
C. interface’s status
E. the layer 3 IP address

15

Which two CLI modes do allow the running configuration to be viewed?
A. User EXEC
B. Global configuration
C. ROM monitor
D. Privileged EXEC

B. Global configuration
D. Privileged EXEC

16

Which two of the following statements are true?

A. The show version command can be used to verify the configuration register setting.
B. The set register command is used to change the configuration register setting.
C. If there is no saved configuration file in NVRAM, the router enters into ROMMON mode.
D. The running-config is the active configuration the router or switch is using at a given point in time.

A. The show version command can be used to verify the configuration register setting.

D. The running-config is the active configuration the router or switch is using at a given point in time.

17

Which type of memory stores the saved IOS image for a Cisco device?
A. Flash memory
B. NVRAM
C. RAM
D. ROM

A. Flash memory

18

What do you type at the device prompt to get a list of all available commands presented? (Choose 2)
A. ?
B. $
C. Tab
D. &
E. Help

A. ?

E. Help

19

Which commands can be used to diagnose a network connectivity problem?
A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. PING
D. Connect

C. PING

20

From a Windows command prompt, which command can get a new IP address from a DHCP server?
A. ipconfig /release
B. ipconfig /all
C. ipconfig /renew
D. ipconfig /get
E. ipconfig /request

C. ipconfig /renew

21

Which two sets of pins are looped on an RJ-45 T1 loopback plug?
A. Pin 2 and 5
B. Pin 3 and 6
C. Pin 1 and 4
D. Pin 2 and 8
E. Pin 1 and 7

A. Pin 2 and 5

C. Pin 1 and 4

22

Which Cisco IOS command is used to enter the vty line configuration to enable Telnet access?
A. line vty 0 4
B. line vty 0 4 enable
C. line vty 0 4 telnet
D. line vty 0 4 telnet enable

A. line vty 0 4

23

Which two statements are true about Telnet?

A. When using HyperTerminal to communicate over a TCP/IP network, the Telnet protocol is used.
B. A telnet network management connection is maintained when a router reboots.
C. Telnet is preferred over SSH for security reasons.
D. It provides terminal-like access to a remote computer.

A. When using HyperTerminal to communicate over a TCP/IP network, the Telnet protocol is used.

D. It provides terminal-like access to a remote computer.

24

Which two pairs of LAN Ethernet devices use an RJ-45 crossover cable?
A. Router to PC
B. Hub to PC
C. Switch to router
D. Hub to server
E. Switch to hub
F. Switch to server

A. Router to PC

E. Switch to hub

25

Which layer of the OSI model provides routing function?
A. Data Link Layer
B. Physical Layer
C. Transport Layer
D. Network Layer
E. Application Layer

D. Network Layer

26

Which two of the following statements are true about a hub?
A. It is a data link layer device.
B. It is a repeater.
C. It will forward the frame out all ports when it receives a broadcast frame from a host.
D. It reads the destination MAC address to forward traffic out the appropriate port.
F. It acts as an amplifier.

B. It is a repeater.

F. It acts as an amplifier.

27

When referring to the name 1000BaseT, what does the T stands for?
A. Transmission speed
B. Transfer protocol
C. Transition time
D. Twisted pair cable

D. Twisted pair cable.

28

Which two of the following statements are true?
A. Routers operate at Layer 3 of the OSI model.
B. Switch will forward a broadcast frame out all ports.
C. Switches use routing table to make forwarding decisions.
D. Routers use the destination MAC address of incoming packets to forward traffic out the appropriate port.
E. Switches divide a network into separate collision domains.

A. Routers operate at Layer 3 of the OSI model.

E. Switches divide a network into separate collision domains.

29

Which network module must be installed to make Catalyst 6500 series switch function?
A. Supervisor Engine module
B. Ethernet LAN module
C. Wireless Service module
D. Firewall Service module
E. Intrusion Detection System Service module

A. Supervisor Engine module

30

Which router series have a Services Performance Engines (SPE) pre-installed?
A. 2800 Series
B. 2900 Series
C. 3800 Series
D. 3900 Series

D. 3900 Series

31

Which three of the following tools can be used to configure a router or switch through a dial-up connection for remote administration?
A. a crossover RJ-45 console cable
B. a rolled RJ-45 console cable
C. a flash card reader
D. a modem
E. a DB25 to RJ-45 Adaptor
F. a USB to DB9 Adaptor

B. a rolled RJ-45 console cable
D. a modem
E. a DB25 to RJ-45 Adaptor

32

Which command exits the global interface configuration mode to privileged EXEC mode on a Cisco device?
A. exit
B. stop
C. end
D. quit

A. exit

33

Which command initiates copying the running configuration of a Cisco device to a TFTP server?
A. copy running-config tftp
B. copy startup-config tftp
C. copy tftp running-config
D. copy tftp startup-config

A. copy running-config tftp

34

What is the default command mode when you are initially logging into a router?
A. ROM monitor
B. global configuration
C. global interface configuration
D. privileged EXEC
E. user EXEC

E. user EXEC

35

Which command indicates the amount of memory (NVRAM, RAM, and flash) in a Cisco device?
A. show diag
B. show inventory
C. show version
D. show hardware

C. show version

36

Which two statements are true for half duplex transmission mode?
A. point-to-point only
B. move data in only one direction at a time
C. collision free
D. send and receive data at the same time
E. high potential for collision

B. move data in only one direction at a time
E. high potential for collision

37

While performing password recovery on a Cisco router, within how many seconds of power up you need to press Break key in order to put the router into ROMMON mode?
A. 30 seconds
B. 45 seconds
C. 60 seconds
D. 90 seconds

C. 60 seconds

38

What is the speed of a T1 line?
A. 56 Kbps
B. 64 Kbps
C. 1.544 Mbps
D. 2.0 Mbps
E. 43.736 Mbps

C. 1.544 Mbps

39

Which memory is used to store the bootstrap code for booting a Cisco router during password recovery procedures?
A. ROM
B. RAM
C. Flash memory
D. SRAM

A. ROM

40

Which three LEDs are Port Mode LEDs on a fixed interface switch?
A. System LED
B. Port status LED
C. Redundant power supply LED
D. Port speed LED
E. Port duplex LED

B. Port status LED
D. Port speed LED
E. Port duplex LED

41

Which three pieces of information does the show interface command display?
A. encapsulation type
B. layer 2 address
C. layer 3 address
D. clock rate

A. encapsulation type
B. layer 2 address
C. layer 3 address

42

Which of following lines is used for console port configuration?
A. line aux 0
B. line vty 0 4
C. line con 0
D. line 1 8

C. line con 0

43

What happens if you change the configuration register to 0x2142 then reset the router?
A. This put the router into ROMMON mode.
B. This causes the router to boot from ROMMON without loading the startup configuration.
C. This causes the router to boot from Flash while loading the startup configuration.
D. This causes the router to boot from Flash without loading the startup configuration.

D. This causes the router to boot from Flash without loading the startup configuration.

44

What are two ways to access Windows Firewall settings on Windows XP SP2 and SP3?
A. Click Start > Control Panel > Windows Firewall
B. Click Start > All Programs > Accessories > Windows Firewall
C. Click Start > Run. Enter cmd and type Firewall
D. Click Start > Run. Enter cmd and type Firewall.cpl

A. Click Start > Control Panel > Windows Firewall

D. Click Start > Run. Enter cmd and type Firewall.cpl

45

Which two sets of pins are looped on an RJ-45 56K loopback plug?
A. Pin 1 and 4
B. Pin 2 and 8
C. Pin 1 and 7
D. Pin 2 and 5
E. Pin 2 and 6
F. Pin 1 and 5

B. Pin 2 and 8
C. Pin 1 and 7

46

Which Catalyst Series switches are fixed interface switches? (Choose three)
A. Catalyst 3750 Series
B. Catalyst 4500 Series
C. Catalyst 2960 Series
D. Catalyst 6500 Series
E. Catalyst 3560 Series

A. Catalyst 3750 Series
C. Catalyst 2960 Series
E. Catalyst 3560 Series

47

Which physical layer standards use optical fiber for Gigabit Ethernet? (Choose two)
A. 1000 BASE-TX
B. 1000 BASE-LX
C 1000 BASE-SX
D. 1000 BASE-CX
E. 1000 BASE-T

B. 1000 BASE-LX
C 1000 BASE-SX

48

Which wireless communication standards do access points support?
A. VHF
B. UHF
C. AM
D. Wi-Fi
E. FM

D. Wi-Fi

49

What is the default speed of the Cisco device console port?
A. 2400 bps
B.4800 bps
C. 6400 bps
D. 9600 bps
E. 19200 bps

D. 9600 bps

50

Which three are components of a LAN connection?
A. Router
B. CSU/DSU
C. Modem
D. Hub to PC
E. Switch

A. Router
D. Hub to PC
E. Switch

51

Which two of the following statements are true?
A. A CSU/DSU operates at the data layer (layer 2) of the OSI model.
B. Frame Relay is a high-performance WAN protocol that operates at the physical and data link layers of the OSI reference model.
C. ATM is built on a layer 2 frame-based architecture rather than on a cell-based architecture.
D. A CSU/DSU can provide diagnostic functions such as loopback testing.

B. Frame Relay is a high-performance WAN protocol that operates at the physical and data link layers of the OSI reference model.

D. A CSU/DSU can provide diagnostic functions such as loopback testing.

52

Which layer of the OSI model defines how data is formatted for transmission and how access to the physical media is controlled?
A. Physical layer
B. Session layer
C. Network layer
D. Data link layer

D. Data link layer

53

Which two IOS commands merge the saved configuration to the running configuration?
A. copy run start
B. copy tftp run
C. copy start run
D. copy run flash

B. copy tftp run
C. copy start run

54

Which two of the following statements are true?
A. A Service Set Identifier is used to logically separate Wireless LANs.
B. The wireless devices can communicate directly with each other.
C The Extended Service Area cells have approximately 20 to 25 percent overlap to allow remote users to roam from one access point to another without losing RF connections.
D. A wireless repeater must be on the same channel as the access point connected to the wired LAN.

A. A Service Set Identifier is used to logically separate Wireless LANs.

D. A wireless repeater must be on the same channel as the access point connected to the wired LAN.