Civ Pro Flashcards

(59 cards)

1
Q

Civil Procedure

A

Is a procedure governing the filing, processing and adjudication of civil action

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2
Q

Requisites for a valid exercise of jurisdiction

A

Over the persons of the parties

Over the subject matter of the action

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3
Q

Jurisdiction over the person

A
  • As to the plaintiff: when the plaintiff files a complaint in court, he submits himself to the jurisdiction of the court
  • As to the defendant:
    (1) when the plaintiff files a complaint and the court will issue summons on the defendant and the summons will be served upon the defendant, the moment the summons is served and the service of the summons is valid, then the court acquires jurisdiction over the person of the defendant by means of the valid service of summons upon him.
    (2) Defendant’s voluntary appearance in court.
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4
Q

Jurisdiction over the subject matter

A

determined by the facts alleged in the complaint (original complaint), regardless of whether the plaintiff is entitled to recover upon the whole or part of the claim and by the law enforced at the time of the commencement of the action.

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5
Q

Kinds and Nature of Jurisdiction exercised by the Courts

A
  1. Exclusive – it is confined to a particular court. No one else
    can exercise jurisdiction. (Example: exclusive jurisdiction
    of the MTC over ejectment cases.)
  2. Concurrent – two or more courts of even different levels
    can exercise jurisdiction at the same time. (Example:
    concurrent jurisdiction of the RTC, CA, and SC over the
    extraordinary writs of mandamus, prohibition or certiorari)
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6
Q

Doctrine of Hierarchy of Courts

A

A litigant must properly seek relief from the lower courts. The fact that the RTC, CA, and SC have concurrent jurisdiction over particular cases, that will give a litigant an unbridled freedom to file the case with the Supreme Court;

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7
Q

Doctrine of Primary Jurisdiction

A

If jurisdiction over a particular case is vested upon an administrative body, no resort to judicial courts can be had until the administrative body shall have acted on the case.

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8
Q

RTC Jurisdiction

A

a. All civil actions in which the subject of the litigation is incapable of pecuniary estimation.

b. All civil actions which involve the title to or possession of real property or any interest therein
where the assessed value of the property involved
exceeds 400,000 except forcible entry and unlawful
detainer of lands or buildings, original jurisdiction
over which is conferred upon the MTC (real
property)

c. All actions in admiralty and maritime jurisdiction
where the demand or claims exceeds 2,000,000

d. All matters of probate, both testate and intestate,
where the gross value of the estate exceeds 2M
pesos; and

e. All other cases in which the demand exclusive of
damages whatever kind, interest, attorney’s fees,
litigation expenses and cost (DIAL-C) where the
value of the property in controversy exceeds 2M
pesos. (personal property)

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9
Q

Municipal Trial Court Jurisdiction

A

Exclusive and Original Jurisdiction:
1. All civil actions and probate proceedings, testate and
intestate where the value of the personal property, estate, or
amount of the demand, exclusive of DIAL-C does not
exceed 2,000,000 pesos

NOTE: DIAL-C should be excluded in the determination
of jurisdiction but it is included in the computation of the
docket fee.

  1. Cases of forcible entry and unlawful detainer.
  2. All civil actions which involved the title to or possession of
    real property or any interest therein where the assessed
    value of the property does not exceed 400,000
  3. In admiralty or maritime actions where the demand or
    claim does not exceeds 2,000,000
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10
Q

Real Action

A

One that involves title to or possession of real property or any interest therein.

If it is a real action, jurisdiction is determined by the assessed value of the real property involved.

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11
Q

Action in personam

A

In an action in personam, the complaint is filed against a specific person (there is a defendant) or a definite individual based on his personal liability; and seeks personal judgment against him (the defendant).

The decision rendered in this action is called a judgment in personam and it is binding only between the parties.

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12
Q

Action in rem

A

It is directed against the res or the thing itself and it seeks a judgment enforceable against the whole world

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13
Q

Action quasi in rem

A

It is an action which names a person as a defendant, but the object of the action is to subject the interest of that person (the defendant) in a property to the obligation burdening that property, or the action pertains to the personal status of a person.

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14
Q

What is a civil action?

A

A civil action is an action by which a party sues another for the enforcement or protection of a right, or the prevention or redress of a wrong

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15
Q

What is a criminal action?

A

A criminal action is one by which he State prosecutes a person for an act or omission punishable by law

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16
Q

What is a special proceeding?

A

A special proceeding is a remedy by which a party seeks to establish a status, a right, or a particular fact.

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17
Q

When is a civil action commenced?

A

A civil action is commenced by the filing of the original complaint in court. But if an additional defendant is impleaded in the later pleading (amended complaint), the action is commenced as to him, the civil action is commenced upon the filing of the later pleading

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18
Q

SEC. 6 RULE 1

A

Sec. 6. Construction. – These Rules shall be liberally construed
in order to promote their objective of securing a just, speedy and
inexpensive disposition of every action and proceeding.

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19
Q

What is a cause of action?

A

A cause of action is the act or omission by which a party violates a right of another.

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20
Q

Requisites of a Cause of action

A
  1. There must be an existence of a plaintiff’s right;
  2. An obligation on the part of the defendant to respect and
    not to violate such right; and
  3. An act or omission on the part of the defendant constituting
    a violation of plaintiff’s right, resulting to damage or injury
    to the plaintiff.
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21
Q

Grounds for Dismissal

A
  1. Litis pendentia or lis pendens – There is another action
    pending between the same parties and for the same cause of
    action.
    - Litis pendencia is obtained even if the positions of the parties
    in the second case is reversed.
  2. Res judicata – The action is barred by prior judgment.
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22
Q

Rules on joinder of action

A
  1. The party joining the causes of action must comply with the
    rules on joinder of parties;
  2. The joinder cannot include a special civil action or an
    action governed by special rules;
  3. Where the causes of action are between the same parties
    but pertain to different venues or jurisdictions, the joinder
    may be allowed in the Regional Trial Court provided one of
    the causes of action falls within the jurisdiction of said
    court and the venue lies therein; and
  4. Where the claims in all the causes of action are principally
    for recovery of money, the aggregate amount claimed shall
    be the test of jurisdiction.
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23
Q

Who can be parties in a civil action?

A
  • Only natural persons, juridical persons, or entities
    authorized by law can be parties in a civil action
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24
Q

Purpose of initiatory pleading?

A

To assert a right or redress a wrong

25
Sources of Causes of Action
Law, Contraxts quasi contracts, quasi delicts, delicts
26
Why is splitting a COA prohibited?
To prevent the clogging of court dockets
27
Aspects of Jurisdiction (SPIT)
J over the subject matter J over the parties J over the issues I over the thing
28
Jurisdiction over the issue
Determined by the Allegations in the pleading
29
Jurisdiction over the res
By the court placing the thing under the custody Constructive seizure Statutory authority conferring xxx
30
Totality rule
The aggregate amount of the reliefs sought shall determine the jurisdiction of the court
31
Who can be parties in a civil action?
Only natural persons, juridical persons, or entities authorized by law can be parties in a civil action.
32
Who is a real party in interest?
One who stands to be benefited or injured by the judgment in the suit, or the party entitled to the avails of the suit.
33
Kinds of real parties in interest:
1. Indispensable party – one without whom no final determination can be had of an action. 2. Necessary party – one who is not indispensable but who ought to be joined as a party if complete relief is to be accorded as to those already parties, or for a complete determination or settlement of the claim subject of the action
34
What are the requisites of a class suit?
1. The subject matter of the controversy must be of common or general interest to many persons. – the right affecting many individuals must be INDIVISIBLE. The interest of any one of them must not be separable from the interest of all the others. The interest of anyone of those alleged to belong to a class must not be capable of being separated from the interest of all the others. The benefit to one must be a benefit to all. 2. The parties affected are so numerous that is impracticable to join all as parties. 3. The parties bringing or defending the class suit are found by the court to be sufficiently numerous and representative as to fully protect the interest of all concerned.
35
What must be done if a person who must be joined as plaintiff but his consent cannot be obtained?
He should be impleaded as a defendant, he is called an unwilling co-plaintiff.
36
What is the duty of the counsel of the deceased party?
DOES NOT SURVIVE - There are cases that is extinguish by the death of a party. The death of a party extinguishes the claim or case itself. It is extinguished by the death of a party. This happens in most instances where the action is personal to the plaintiff or to the defendant. SURVIVE - The action will continue despite the death of a party. The claim is not extinguished by the death of a party. The counsel must inform the court within 30 days after such death of the following: 1. The fact of death of the deceased party; and 2. The name and address of the legal representatives or heirs of the deceased party
37
What are the distinction between venue and jurisdiction?
1. Venue refers to the place where the action is to be commenced; jurisdiction refers to the authority of the court to hear and decide the action 2. Venue may be waived; jurisdiction (over the subject matter of the action) cannot be waived (although jurisdiction over the person of the defendant can be waived) 3. The court cannot motu proprio dismiss the complaint on ground of improper venue, but it can motu proprio dismiss the complaint on ground of lack of jurisdiction over the subject matter
38
What is the venue of personal action?
Where the plaintiff or any of the principal plaintiffs resides or where the defendant or any of the principal defendants resides, or in the case of a non-resident defendant where he may be found, at the election of the plaintiff
39
How can the defendant raise the question of improper venue?
By asserting it as an affirmative defense in his answer and the court will rule on the affirmative defense
40
What is a pleading?
Pleading is defined as the written statements of the respective claims and defenses of the parties submitted to the court for appropriate judgment
41
What pleadings state claims or causes of action?
1. Complaint 2. Counterclaim 3. Cross-claim 4. Third party complaint (fourth, fifth, etc.) 5. Complaint-in-intervention
42
What is an answer?
An answer is a pleading in which the defending party sets forth his defenses
43
Negative defenses
Defenses in the form of specific denial of a material fact or facts alleged in the pleading of the plaintiff or claimant essential to his cause or causes of action.
44
Kinds of Negative Defenses
1. Absolute Denial - By denying specifically the material allegation or averment in the complaint or pleading of the adverse party setting forth the substance of the matter upon which the defending party relies in his denial. 2. Partial Denial - By admitting only a part of the allegation or averment, by specifying so much of it as true and deny the remainder. 3. Denial by disavowal - By alleging lack of knowledge or information sufficient to form a belief as to the truth of the allegation in the pleading of the adverse party.
45
Affirmative defenses
– an allegation of new matter which although hypothetically admitting the material allegations in the pleading of the claimant, would nevertheless prevent or bar recovery by the defendant
46
Kinds of affirmative defense (SSFRP FADIE)
* Fraud, * statute of limitation, * release, * payment, * illegality, * statute of frauds, * estoppel, * former recovery, * discharge in bankruptcy, and * any other matter by way of confession and avoidance.
47
If defendant’s answer contains affirmative defenses (1-10) what will the court do?
The court may conduct a summary hearing within 15- calendar days from the filing of the answer and the court will resolve such affirmative defenses within 30-calendar days from the termination of the summary hearing.
48
Defenses under rule 8 section 12 (JVCCC)
* That the court has no jurisdiction over the person of the defendant * That the venue is improperly laid * Plaintiff has no legal capacity to sue * The complaint or pleading fails to state a cause of action * That a condition precedent for filing the claim has not been complied with.
49
Defenses which are immediately grounds for dismissal
1. No jurisdiction over the subject matter 2. CoA is barred by prior judgment 3. There is another pending action between the same parties for the same CoA
50
Reply
s a pleading, the office or function of which is to deny, or allege facts in denial or avoidance of new matters alleged in or relating to an actionable document attached to the answer of the defending party
51
Actionable document
document that can be a basis of a claim or a defense. (e.g. promissory note, contract)
52
May a court render a judgment for an amount more than what is prayed for in the pleading?
Yes because the pleading like the complaint, may add a general prayer for such other relief as may be deemed as such equitable XP: In a judgment by default – cannot exceed the amount or the different in kind from that prayed for nor award unliquidated damages o When the amount will be beyond the jurisdiction of the court to grant
53
Certification on non-forum shopping (Certification against forum shopping)
Purpose: To assure the court that the litigant is not engaging in this deplorable act of forum shopping. - Is required only in a complaint or other initiatory pleading. (e.g. permissive counterclaim) - Should be incorporated in the pleading, it must accompany the filing of the pleading. Either appended or incorporated in the complaint. - It cannot be a subject of a separate complaint - Required when you file: a.) third party complaint; b.) complaint in intervention; c.) any petition or application where the party asserts a claim or relief.
54
Certification on non-forum shopping is not required in the following:
1. Petition for issuance for writ of possession 2. Compulsory counterclaim 3. Application for search warrant 4. Complaint filed in the Ombudsman
55
What if the complaint or initiatory pleading that was filed in court was not accompanied by Certification on non-forum shopping?
The complaint or initiatory pleading will be dismissed. The dismissal is without prejudice (you can refile the complaint). But if the court finds out that you are engaged in a deliberate act of forum shopping, then the complaint will be dismissed and the dismissal will be with prejudice and you might be cited for contempt.
56
What are the 4 defenses that are not deemed waived even if not pleaded in a motion to dismiss or in an answer?
1. That the court has no jurisdiction over the subject matter 2. That there is another action pending between the same parties for the same cause 3. That the action is barred by prior judgment 4. That the action is barred by statute of limitations
57
May the court declare the defendant in default 'motu proprio'?
* NO, the plaintiff must file a motion to declare the defendant in default. 1. File a motion to declare the defendant in default 2. Serve a notice of his motion on the defendant 3. Show proof of failure on the part of the defendant to file his answer within the reglementary period
58
What is the effect of the order of default?
A defendant declared in default is entitled to notices of subsequent proceedings but cannot take part at the trial. He loses his standing in court.
59
Art 3. Sec 7
The right of the people to information on matters of public concern shall be recognized. Access to official records, and to documents and papers pertaining to official acts, transactions, or decisions, as well as to government research data used as basis for policy development, shall be afforded the citizen, subject to such limitations as may be provided by law