Civil Procedure Flashcards

1
Q

preliminary injunction

A

(i) Notice: P gave notice / D has opp’y to attend hearing
(ii) likelihood of success on merits
(iii) irreparable harm will occur if prelim injunction is not given
(iv) ‘balancing the equities’ comes out in favor of granting (benefit to P vs. harm to D)
(v) granting is in the best interest of the public

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2
Q

temporary restraining order

A

(i) immediate & irreparable harm would occur if court doesn’t issue
(ii) why they couldn’t give notice

NOTE: 14 days max

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3
Q

timing to file an appeal

A

30 days

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4
Q

CAFA requirements

A

(i) at least 100 members
(ii) damages that exceed $5 million
(iii) minimal diversity (at least one P diverse from one D)

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5
Q

statutory interpleader

A

Under Federal Interpleader Act:

(i) Nationwide PJ
(ii) The “Bulge Provision” allows the area for service of process to “bulge” to within 100 miles of federal courthouse, even if it crosses state lines
(iii) the AIC $500+
(iv) diversity btw any adverse claimants

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6
Q

claim preclusion

A

(i) same parties
(ii) same claims
(iii) final judgment on the merits

NOTE: law of the forum determines preclusive effect of judgment

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7
Q

issue preclusion

A

(i) same issue;
(ii) actually litigated;
(iii) final judgment on the merits;
(iv) issue essential to prior action
(v) party against whom issue preclusion is asserted was a party to prior action

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8
Q

pre-trial disclosures

A

witnesses (name, address, phone # of those testifying and those that will testify if need arises)

depositions to be presented

exhibits (those will offer and those that will be offered if need arises

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9
Q

standards of appellate review

A
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10
Q

personal jurisdiction for out-of-state defendant

A

(i) did D purposefully avail themselves of the benefit of the forum state and/or was it reasonably foreseeable that they would be called into State B’s courts?
(ii) is exercising PJ over D consistent with traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice?
——(consider resources of D; ease of transportation and communication”)

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11
Q

modes of properly serving process

A

(a) personal
(b) D’s place of abode w/ person of suitable age & discretion who lives there
(c) on D’s agent
(d) another method under state law

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12
Q

requirements for a rule 23 class action

A

(i) the class must be so numerous that joinder of all members is impracticable (numerosity);
(ii) there must be questions of law or fact that are common to the class (commonality);
(iii) the claims or defenses of the representatives must be typical of the class (typicality);
(iv) the representatives must fairly and adequately protect the interests of the class (adequacy).

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13
Q

Erie analysis

A

[See flowchart on p. 25 of “outlines by subject” document]

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14
Q

14-day deadlines

A
  1. File answer after pre-answer motion denied
  2. File third-party complaint without leave after original answer served
  3. Respond to amended pleading
  4. Submit proposed discovery plan & initial disclosures after initial conference
  5. Demand jury trial after last pleading served
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15
Q

21-day deadlines

A
  1. Serve answer or pre-answer motion after service of complaint, counterclaim, or crossclaim
  2. Amend pleading as matter of course after pleading was served
  3. Serve reply to answer
  4. Hold initial conference before scheduling order is due
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16
Q

28-day deadlines

A

(most post-trial filings)

  1. Renew JMOL
  2. Move for new trial
  3. Move to alter or amend judgment
  4. Move to amended findings after final judgment
17
Q

30-day deadlines

A

(most discovery deadlines)

  1. File notice of removal after receipt of initial pleading
  2. Move to remand after notice of removal filed
  3. Submit pretrial disclosures before trial (e.g., which experts are testifying, etc)
  4. Respond to interrogatories, requests for production & requests for admission
  5. Move for summary judgment after close of discovery
  6. File notice of appeal
18
Q

60-day deadlines

A
  1. answer or pre-answer motion after service waived (domestic)
  2. answer after service of process on U.S. agency or employee
19
Q

90-day deadlines

A
  1. Serve process after complaint is filed
  2. File answer or pre-answer motion after foreign service waived
  3. Disclose expert witness materials before trial
20
Q

Rule 11 sanctions

A

— document is presented for proper purpose—not to harass, cause unnecessary delay, or needlessly increase cost of litigation

— claims, defenses & legal contentions are warranted by existing law or by non-frivolous argument for revising or establishing law

— factual assertions have or will have evidentiary support and

— factual denials are warranted by evidence or reasonably based on belief/lack of information

21
Q

who can you serve interrogatories on?

A

Only a party to the litigation

22
Q

what makes something discoverable

A

(i) relevant to any claim or defense
(ii) proportional to needs of the case

23
Q

discoverability of expert witnesses

A

information held by an expert witness expected to testify at trial is generally non-privileged and discoverable

facts known and opinions held by an expert notexpected to testify are privileged and not discoverable unless:
— that information relates to a court-ordered physical or mental examinationor
— exceptional circumstances make it impracticable to obtain that information by other means—eg, a party dies and cannot be evaluated.

24
Q

Types of required disclosures and timing

A

Initial disclosures (14 days after pretrial conference)

Expert testimony (90 days before trial)

Pretrial disclosures (30 days before trial)

25
Q

Required initial disclosures

A

Initial disclosures
— Persons with relevant information
— Items in party’s possession that support claim/defense
— Computation of damages & supporting material
— Relevant insurance policies

26
Q

Required expert testimony disclosures

A

Expert testimony
— Identity of expert witnesses
— Expert’s written report
— If no report, subject matter & summary of testimony

27
Q

Required pretrial disclosures

A

Pretrial disclosures
— Testifying witnesses
— Deposition testimony to be used at trial
— Documents/exhibits to be used at trial

28
Q

intervention

A

Rule 24

Nonparty can intervene as a matter of right when, upon timely motion:

(1) the nonparty has an interest in the subject matter of the action;

(2) the disposition of the action may impair the nonparty’s interests; and

(3) the nonparty’s interest is not adequately represented by existing parties

29
Q

types of class actions (& notice required for each)

A

prejudicial risk –> notice optional

final equitable relief –> notice optional

common question –> notice required

30
Q

if supplemental jx exists, why might a federal court nevertheless decline to exercise it?

A

— the supplemental claim raises a novel/complex state law issue

— the supplemental claim predominates over the original claims

— the original claims have been dismissed

— another compelling reason

31
Q

general personal jurisdiction for a corporation

A

Ask whether the corporation’s affiliations with the forum state are so “continuous and systematic” as to render the corporation essentially “at home” in the forum state. In all but the most exceptional cases, this is only where the corporation is incorporated and their principal place of business

32
Q

required joinder

A

Rule 19

(Unless the party would destroy diversity,) A party whose joinder is necessary for a just adjudication will be joined if feasible; Bulge Provision applies for service of process

A party is necessary if court cannot accord complete relief w/o them; their interest is so situated in the action that they would be impaired in protecting interest or create risk of inconsistent or double judgments w/o them.

If the necessary party cannot be joined, the court must evaluate whether the action can proceed without them or whether they are actually an indispensable party. Factors include: extent of prejudice to them; extent of prejudice to existing parties; extent that court can reduce prejudice by certain measures; extent to which judgment would be adequate; extent to which they’d have an adequate remedy, etc.

33
Q

permissive joinder

A

Rule 20

(Unless a party would destroy diversity,) A party may join if her claim arises out of the same trxn or occurrence and has a common question of law or fact

34
Q

counterclaims

A

Rule 13

compulsive counterclaim = D must state any claim relating to the same trxn or occurrence as P’s claim. Lost if not asserted.

permissive counterclaim = D may state any other claim she has against P

35
Q

impleader

A

Rule 14

D may implead a 3P for liability of all or part of P’s claim against D.

Impleader can be done as of right w/in 14 days of serving answer; after that, must get leave of court.