Civil Procedure Flashcards

(44 cards)

1
Q

FQ

A

Available when P alleges complaint arising under federal law

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2
Q

DJ

A

(i) complete diversity b/w Ps and Ds and (ii) AIC exceeds $75K—can aggregate state law claims to get to this

• Partnerships: domiciled where their partners are (even limited partners)

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3
Q

SMJ

A

• Subject matter jurisdiction in federal court based on a federal question must appear as part of the plaintiff’s cause of action as set out in a well-pleaded complaint. The defendant’s answer or defense is not relevant because the existence of a defense based on federal law will not give federal question jurisdiction

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4
Q

Supplemental Jurisdiction

A

Fed ct has discretion to exercise supplemental juris when they arise from a common nucleus of common fact and are such that P would ordinarily be expected to try them in a single judicial proceeding
• Cannot be used to overcome complete diversity requirement

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5
Q

PJ

A

Ps submit PJ where they file the complaint;

Worry about this over Ds: Courts (fed and st) have PJ over person “at home” there (Cos it could be based on number of stores if “reasonable and fair”)

Min. Contacts with the State: In addition to sufficient minimum contacts with the forum state, personal jurisdiction must not offend “traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice.”

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6
Q

Venue

A

Venue is proper: (1) in any district where a D resides if all Ds reside in the same state or (2) where the cause of action(s) arose

If neither 1 or 2, then court with PJ over Ds—operating a number of stores in “fairness and reasonableness” assessment—based on a specific juris theory

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7
Q

Special Appearance

A

Must be filed before any other plea, pleading or motion (or simultaneous) to contest venue.

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8
Q

Removal

A

Under 28 U.S.C. section 1441, a defendant may remove (within 30 days of service) an action that could have originally been brought in the federal courts. (In other words, subject matter jurisdiction based on either a federal question being presented or on diversity of citizenship would have been present had the case been filed in federal court.) However, a case may not be removed on the basis of diversity jurisdiction if a defendant is a citizen of the state in which the action was filed.

The federal removal statute provides that the notice of removal should be filed in the federal district court for the district that geographically encompasses the state court from which the action is being removed

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9
Q

Erie Doctrine

A

Under the Erie doctrine, in a case based on diversity of citizenship, the federal court must apply the substantive law of the state in which the court sits. However, the court will apply federal law to procedural issues. Federal Rule of Evidence 302, which follows the Erie doctrine, provides that application of state law is appropriate only when the presumption operates on a substantive element of a claim or defense.

FQ then apply federal law

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10
Q

Complaint

A

The federal pleading rules generally require the pleader to assert short and plain statements in the complaint to put the other side on notice of the claim being asserted; detailed assertions of facts underlying the claim are generally not required.

In a party’s pleadings, performance of conditions precedent may be alleged generally. Denial of performance or occurrence must be alleged specifically and with particularity.

A party may move to strike parts of a pleading before responding to a pleading (or within 21 days after service of a pleading if no responsive pleading is permitted).

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11
Q

Service of Process

A

Service may be made on individual by leaving a copy of summons and complaint at the individual’s dwelling or usually abode with someone of suitable age who resides there. (Q57); registered agent; or on person

Fed rules allow service of process made as per rules of state where fed ct sits or state in which service is to be effected.

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12
Q

Answer

A

To avoid default judgment, must file answer by 10am on the first Monday after expiration of 20 days from date of service

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13
Q

Pretrial Conference

A

the parties must confer to consider their claims and defenses, the possibility of settlement, initial disclosures, and a discovery plan. The parties then must submit a proposed discovery plan to the court, and the plan must address the timing and form of required disclosures, the subjects on which discovery may be needed, the timing of and limitations on discovery, and relevant orders that may be required of the court.

Within 14 days thereafter, they must submit a proposed discovery plan to the court.

Must reveal ID of eyewitnesses if either D may call the witness at trial or if P requests the eyewitness’ identity

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14
Q

3rd Party Claim

A

o A 3rd party D may assert a claim against P if the claim arises out of same T/O as P’s original claim (Q34)
o D cannot assert a 3rd party against another party unless they are seeking recovery for themselves (indemnity) (Q28)

o If the promisor has made an absolute promise to pay the third-party beneficiary (and not simply a promise to pay whatever the promisee owed him), the promisor cannot assert the promisee’s defenses. When a third-party beneficiary sues the promisor on the contract, the promisor may raise any defense he would have had against the promisee.

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15
Q

3rd Party Petition

A

Served on newly named 3rd party D, if more than 30 days have passed requires leave of the court

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16
Q

Subbing a New 3rd Party D

A

filed if (i) the claims in the amendment arise from the same transaction or occurrence as the claims set out in the original pleading; and (ii) within the time allotted for serving the original complaint (90 days from filing per Federal Rule 4(m)), the new defendant received such notice of the action that it will not be prejudiced in defending on the merits and knew or should have known that the action would have been against it (the new defendant).

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17
Q

Intervention

A

When an applicant wants to intervene in an action because she has an interest in the property or transaction that is the subject matter of the action, and the disposition of the action may impair her ability to protect that interest, such an intervention is called an intervention of right. A permissive intervention is available when the applicant’s claim or defense and the main action have a question of fact or law in common.

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18
Q

Counterclaim

A

A compulsory counterclaim (a claim that arises out of the same transaction or occurrence as the plaintiff’s claim) does not need to meet the jurisdictional amount requirement for diversity jurisdiction.

A permissive counterclaim (a claim that arises out of an unrelated transaction) must meet the jurisdictional amount requirement

19
Q

Cross-Claim

A

As a general rule, a party may assert a cross-claim against a co-party only if the cross-claim arises from the same transaction or occurrence as that of the original action or of a counterclaim. However, once the party has filed such a cross-claim, he also may join with it any other claim that he has against the same party.

20
Q

Joinder

A

Permissive Joinder: parties may join an action as plaintiffs or be joined as defendants whenever some claim is made by each plaintiff and against each defendant relating to or arising out of the same series of occurrences or transaction, and there is a question of fact or law common to all the parties

Mandatory Joinder: absentee must be joined as a party to the case if it is determined that he has an interest in the subject matter of the litigation that could be affected by a judicial determination in the case, the court has personal jurisdiction over the absentee, and joining him to the action would not destroy diversity jurisdiction or venue

21
Q

Amended Complaint

A

freely given when justice so requires.” The rule does not provide any clear date when amendments are no longer permissible, although later amendments obviously would be less fair and less likely to be considered in the interest of justice. Additionally, for statute of limitations purposes, proposed claims may be considered to “relate back” to the date of the original pleading in which the claim was made under Rule 15(c).

22
Q

Impleader

A

is a procedural device before trial in which one party joins a third party into a lawsuit because that third party is liable to an original defendant. Supplemental juris if claim arises from a common nucleus of operative fact.

23
Q

Interpleader

A

Permits a person in the position of a stakeholder to require 2 or more claimants to litigate amongst themselves to determine who has a rightful claim to the money (doesn’t want to have to pay out twice)

Rule Interpleader: Relies on the normal rules of SMJ (FQ or complete diversity between stakeholder and claimants above $75K)

Statutory Interpleader: When AIC is $500 or more and diversity between any two contending claimants. (Q100)

24
Q

12b Motions

A

Waived if not in first response: Insufficient process/insufficient service of process/lack of PJ/improper venue (D can waive at will)

Insufficient process refers to defects in the documents and their content, whereas insufficient service of process refers to the manner in which the documents were presented, delivered and/or served to the defendant.

Failure to state a claim on which relief can be granted can be asserted pre-answer, any pleading, by later motion for judgment on the pleadings, or at trial.

25
Concurrent State and Federal Proceedings
Where one party files in federal court and an opposing party files in state court, the federal court is prohibited from enjoining the state court proceedings unless doing so is (i) expressly authorized by statute (e.g., an interpleader provision) or (ii) necessary in aid of its jurisdiction or to protect or effectuate its judgments.
26
Discovery
Everything is discoverable that is non-privileged and relevant. (Q191). In general, discovery may be had of any nonprivileged matter that is relevant to any party’s claim or defense and proportional to the needs of the case Must respond to request for discovery within 30 days (when discovery is served by mail, 3 days added); Without waiting for a discovery request, a party must provide to the other parties copies or descriptions of documents that are in the disclosing party’s possession or control and that the disclosing party may use to supports its claims or defenses. Experts: The opinions of experts who are retained in anticipation of litigation but who are not expected to testify at trial may be discovered only upon a showing of exceptional circumstances under which it is impracticable to obtain facts or opinions by other means or when a medical report for an exam conducted under FRCP 35 is requested Depositions: When giving notice of deposition to an organization, a party may name the organization and state with reasonable particularity the matters to be covered. The organization then should designate individuals to testify on its behalf --Motion for Protective Order—Affidavit stating lack of knowledge. Can counter by showing depo is reasonably calculated to lead to discoverable info and that less intrusive forms of disco are unavailable. Interrogatories: Can be objection, leading or form but when asked attorney must provide reasoning for the objection.
27
Request for Disclosure
A party must (even without request by opposing party) provide names of individuals likely to have discoverable info along with the subject of that info that supporting may use The defendant must disclose the existence of the insurance policy under the Federal Rules, which expressly permit discovery of insurance agreements as an initial disclosure TX Rule: specifically requires disclosure of any indemnity or insuring agreements by which a person may be responsible to satisfy all or part of a judgment. Can also be disco through interrogatory and/or a request for production
28
Work Product Doctrine
Qualified privilege, qualified immunity from disco if created in anticipation of litigation (covers party and its agents) unless opposing party can show substantial need that it cannot obtain material in alternative way without undo hardship When a party claims that certain discoverable information is privileged trial preparation material, it must disclose the existence of the material in sufficient detail to the opposing party so that the opposing party may assess the claim of privilege.
29
Request for Admissions
Requests not responded to are deemed admitted/deemed conclusively established. Can withdraw admission and court may allow withdrawal of the admission if good cause is shown and court finds innocent party will not be unduly prejudiced.
30
Surprise Witness
The property owner may call the additional witness only if the court modifies the pretrial order, since a pretrial order controls the subsequent course of an action unless modified. The order will be modified “only to prevent manifest injustice.”
31
Jury
o P or D can request a jury trial o Request to withdraw jury demand cannot be made unless every party consents. Q127) o If both legal and equitable issues exist. The defendant is entitled to a jury trial on the legal issues in the case, even though the equitable issue of whether an injunction mandating removal of the building should be issued clearly predominates. • If legal and equitable claims are joined in one action involving common fact issues, the legal claim should be tried first to the jury and then the equitable claim to the court (the jury’s finding on fact issues will bind the court in the equitable claim).
32
Motion in Limine
Conference held with judge about certain things to keep from the jury. To appeal, should request hearing outside of presence and hearing of the jury to see if judge will reconsider its ruling on the evidence. If ruling is adverse, should make an offer of proof (outside jury presence) to make a record for appeal of the precise nature of the evidence trial judge excluded.
33
Special Verdicts
In a special verdict, a jury is asked to make a finding on all material conclusions of fact and then the court applies the law If don’t object to questions when presented to the jury then waive all objections to form of questions.
34
SJ Motions
The district court may not extend the time period for filing a renewed motion for judgment as a matter of law, a motion to amend judgment, or a motion for a new trial. They all must be filed within 28 days after entry of judgment. The court can grant partial summary judgment on the matter of liability and give the issue of damages to a jury. Summary judgment may be partial as well as complete
35
Default Judgment
* D against whom default judgment is entered, loses the right to contest liability unless the entry of default is set aside * Amount of damages must still be determined before default judgment and defaulting party can be heard at hearing for damages—even 1 appearance before court is entitled to 7 days of notice. * If no appearance after receiving summons, ct can enter default judgment without notice. * Clerk can enter if no dispute as to how much is owed. * An entry of default may be set aside for “good cause shown.” Although not specifically required by the Federal Rules, a majority of courts also will require some showing of a meritorious defense
36
Voluntary Dismissal
P may voluntarily dismiss an action without prejudice only once, a second voluntary dismissal operates as adjudication on the merits
37
Plea in Abatement
A plea to delay a case alleging that another suit is already pending with the same claim and parties. Should be verified (aka sworn).
38
Class Actions
Class must have numerosity, commonality, typicality, and adequate representation ``` o Class cert— Can be appealed within 14 days of order and court of appeals has complete discretion to decide whether or not to hear appeal right now. o Any defendant, even if she is a citizen of the forum state, may have a class action removed from state court to federal court under the Class Action Fairness Act. There is no requirement that all defendants agree to the removal. There is also no in-state defendant limitation on removal o Notice of the pendency of a class action to all members of the class is required in "common question" class actions. The notice must state the nature of the action, the definition of the class, the class claims, issues, or defenses, and the binding effect of a class judgment. ```
39
Post Trial Motions
Renewed JMOL— Must make a motion for JMOL during trial. When a reasonable jury could not support verdict based on the evidence. A renewed motion for judgment as a matter of law must be filed no later than 28 days (same as motion for new trial) after the judgment is entered, not 21 days. • Grant a new trial when verdict counter to law or weight of evidence. (Q182) A motion to amend a judgment must be made within 28 days after entry of judgment and the time period to file may not be extended.
40
Claim Preclusion
Once a final judgment on merits has been rendered on a particular cause of action, claimant is barred by claim preclusion from asserting same cause of action in a later action. • Q11: Arose from same T/O—(1) final judgment; (2) same parties; (3) same cause of action
41
Issue Preclusion (can be offensive)
In a previous lawsuit b/w P and D or their proxies, any judgment binds them in subsequent actions on different causes of action as to issues actually litigated and essential to judgment of that first action. Offensive: a court can allow a non-party in the previous suit to use the prior judgment to avoid liability to avoid liability in a subsequent suit (can use prior judgment as exception to traditional mutuality rule
42
Fraud
A court may relieve a party from a final judgment or order based on fraud, misrepresentation, or other misconduct of an adverse party, and such a motion must be made within a reasonable time not to exceed one year.
43
Clerical Error
There is no time limit to file a motion for relief from judgment to correct clerical mistakes, and the court order correcting the error dates back to the time judgment was entered
44
Motion for Protective Order
To seal secrets (like trade secrets) in the court from public view; only can be seen between the parties