CL-65 Study Guide Flashcards
1
Q
Maximum ramp weight
A
82,750 lbs
2
Q
Maximum takeoff weight (MTOW)
A
82,500 lbs
3
Q
Maximum landing weight (MLW)
A
73,500 lbs
4
Q
Maximum zero fuel weight (MZFW)
A
70,000 lbs
5
Q
Minimum flight weight
A
45,000 lbs
6
Q
Maximum aft cargo bay capacity
A
4,375 lbs
7
Q
Maximum forward cargo bay capacity
A
850 lbs
8
Q
Maximum center cargo bay capacity
A
850 lbs
9
Q
Maximum pressure refueling fuel capacity (total, mains, center)
A
19,594 lbs
7,492 lbs
4,610 lbs
10
Q
Maximum gravity refueling fuel capacities (total, mains, center)
A
14,810 lbs
7,405 lbs
N/A
11
Q
Maximum operating airspeed (VMO)
A
335 KIAS
12
Q
Maximum operating Mach number (MMO)
A
0.85 Mach
13
Q
RVSM maximum cruise Mach number
A
0.82 Mach
14
Q
Maximum Flap Extension Speeds
(1°, 8°, 20°, 30°, 45°)
A
- 1° - 230 KIAS
- 8° - 230 KIAS
- 20° - 220 KIAS
- 30° - 185 KIAS
- 45° - 170 KIAS
15
Q
Maximum landing gear operating speed for extension (VLO)
A
220 KIAS
16
Q
Maximum landing gear operating speed for retraction (VLO)
A
200 KIAS
17
Q
Maximum landing gear extended speed (VLE)
A
220 KIAS
18
Q
Maximum turbulence penetration speed
A
280 KIAS or 0.75 Mach
(whichever is lower)
19
Q
Maximum windshield wiper operation speed
A
250 KIAS
20
Q
Maximum operating altitude
A
41,000 feet
21
Q
Maximum airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing
A
8,000 feet
22
Q
Maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing
A
35 kts / 32 kts
23
Q
Maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing on a slippery runway
A
15 kts
24
Q
Maximum tailwind for takeoff or landing
A
10 kts
25
Maximum tire speed
195 kts (groundspeed)
26
Maximum altitude for flight with flaps/slats extended
15,000 feet
27
Maximum runway slopes for takeoff and landing
+2% uphill
-2% downhill
28
Wingspan
76 ft, 3 in
29
Height of tail
24 ft, 1 in
30
Turning radius
(minimum pavement width)
80 ft, 1 in
31
Minimum obstacle clearance for a 180° turn
126 ft, 5 in
32
Length
118 ft, 11 in
33
Horizontal stabilizer width
28 ft, 4 in
34
Main landing gear to main landing gear, center width
13 ft, 6 in
35
What type of floatation equipment is provided for passengers?
Seat cushions
36
What type of flotation equipment is provided for the Flight Attendants?
Life vests located near the Flight Attendant's jump seats
37
How many life vests are in the flight deck?
3
(1 under each pilot seat & to left of jump seat)
38
What is the minimum crew oxygen system pressure for dispatch?
Listed on a chart in CFM, Chapter 4
(Cockpit Safety Inspection)
39
What is the full charge pressure of the crew oxygen system?
1,850 psi
40
When will the OXY LO PRESS caution appear on EICAS?
\< 1,410 psi
41
When will the crew oxygen system pressure relief occur?
2,800 psi
42
Where can the crew oxygen system pressure be read?
EICAS Status Page
43
Where is the crew oxygen bottle located?
In a compartment just forward of the main entrance
44
What is indicated if the green oxygen blowout disc is missing?
Possible overpressure has occurred in the crew oxygen system
45
Where are the crew smoke goggles located?
Either part of oxygen mask or stored under oxygen mask
46
What supplies oxygen to the passenger oxygen masks?
Chemical oxygen generators
47
How many passenger oxygen masks are there in each row?
2 masks per row on the left side;
3 masks per row on the right side
48
How many emergency flashlights are there in the flight deck?
2
(1 each behind CAPT & FO seat)
49
What is the power source for the emergency lighting system?
5 battery packs
(NOTE: all emergency light batteries are 6 VDC and located throughout the cabin)
50
How long will the emergency lights illuminate if the battery packs are fully charged?
~ 10 minutes
51
Can the Flight Attendant turn on the emergency lights if the flight deck switch is off?
Yes
52
How many passenger emergency exits are there & where?
* 6 total
1. Main Passenger Door (Type I Exit)
2. Galley Service Door (Type I Exit)
3. 4 Overwing Emergency Exits (Type III Exit)
53
Where are the VHF communication antennae located?
* VHF 1 antenna: topside of fuselage
* VHF 2 antenna: underside of fuselage
54
Will the flight deck PA override the Flight Attendant PA?
Yes
55
How are the Flight Attendants contacted in an emergency?
* Turn the ACP selector knob to PA
* Press the EMER call switchlight
* This will generate a high/low chime in the cabin
* Flash an amber EMER switchlight on the Flight Attendant's handset cradle
* Flash a red light on the mid-cabin, overhead exit sign
56
What indication does the flight deck get if a Flight Attendant is calling?
* A high/low chime sounds in the flight deck, and either the CALL or EMER light will illuminate on the center pedestal depending on the selection made on the Flight Attendant's handset cradle
57
How many Air Data Computers (ADCs) are installed?
2
58
How many AHRS or IRS computers are installed?
2
59
In MAG mode, how long does it take the AHRS system to initialize?
30 - 70 seconds
60
In DG mode, how long does it take the AHRS System to initialize?
10 - 11 minutes
61
What sends information to the Captain's flight instruments?
Air Data Computer 1 (ADC 1)
62
What sends information to the First Officer's Flight Instrument?
Air Data Computer 2 (ADC 2)
63
What sends pitot-static information to Air Data Computer 1?
Pitot-static probe 1 (P1-S1) on left side of nose
64
What sends pitot-static information to Air Data Computer 2?
Pitot-static probe 2 (P2 - S2) on right side of nose
65
From which source does the integrated standby instrument receive pitot-static information?
* Pitot probe 3 (P3) under the left, side window
* Two static ports (S3) on either side of the lower, forward fuselage
66
Where is the total air temperature (TAT) probe located?
Under the right, side window
67
What is the definition of Total Air Temperature (TAT)?
Air temperature corrected for compressibility and friction
68
On the ground with the probe heat switch selected ON, which air data probes are heated?
* All 3 pitot probes are heated at 50% power while their bases remain unheated
* The angle of attack vanes, and system 3 static ports are heated at full heat
* NOTE: the TAT probe and pitot bases will always remain unheated on the ground
69
Which air data probes are heated in flight with the probe heat switch selected OFF?
All air data probes and pitot bases are fully heated in flight, regardless of probe heat switch position
70
Is there a LOC and GS indication on the integrated standby instrument (ISI)?
Yes
(NOTE: the ISI receives navigation data from NAV 1 only)
71
When will the radio altitude digital readout be displayed?
0 - 2,500 ft AGL
72
When will the green radio altitude tape be displayed?
0 - 1,000 feet AGL
73
When will the yellow hashed rising runway indication be displayed on the radio altitude tape?
0 - 200 feet AGL
74
What does the speed trend vector indicate?
Predicted airspeeds in 10 seconds
75
When will the MACH readout appear above the airspeed tape?
Appears when accelerating through 0.45 M
Disappears when decelerating through 0.40 M
76
What does the green line on the airspeed tape indicate?
1.27 VS
77
Where is the slip and skid indicator located?
A solid rectangle located just under the sky pointer ("the brick")
78
How many flight directors are installed?
2
79
How many autopilots are installed?
1
80
What provides guidance to the autopilot?
Flight directors
81
What controls the flight directors?
* Flight Control Computer 1 (FCC 1) controls Flight Director 1 (FD 1)
* Flight Control Computer 2 (FCC 2) controls Flight Director 2 (FD 2)
82
Which flight director is the default?
Flight Director 1
83
What does pressing the XFER button on the flight control panel (FCP) do?
Transfers the autopilot and flight directors to Flight Director 2
84
What happens when a TOGA button is pushed on the ground?
* Autopilot is disengaged
* Lateral and vertical takeoff modes are activated (TO/TO)
85
What does the lateral TO mode do?
* Updates FMS with current location
* Generates a heading hold command at weight off wheels
* Limits flight director steering commands to 5° bank
86
What does the vertical TO mode do?
Generates an optimized flight director pitch up command
87
What happens when a TOGA button is pushed in flight?
* Autopilot is disengaged
* Lateral and vertical go-around modes are activated (GA/GA)
88
What does the lateral GA mode do?
* Generates a heading hold command
* Limits flight director steering commands to 5° bank
89
What does the vertical GA mode do?
Commands the flight director to a 10° pitch up attitude
90
Where are the selected lateral and vertical flight director modes displayed?
On the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) at the top left of the PFD
91
Autopilot minimum use heights
* 600 ft AGL for takeoff or go-around
* 400 ft AGL for non-precision approaches
* 80 ft AGL for precision approaches
92
Autopilot minimum use height for a single engine precision approach?
110 ft AGL
93
How can the autopilot be manually disconnected?
* AP/SP DISC button on either control wheel is pressed
* AP ENG button on the FCP is pressed when A/P is already engaged
* AP DISC switch bar on the FCP is pressed down
* TOGA button on either thrust lever is pressed
* STAB TRIM manually operated on either control wheel
* YD DISC button is pressed
94
When will the autopilot automatically disconnect?
* Both yaw dampers fail
* During windshear avoidance procedures
* During a stall warning
95
What type of APU is used on the CRJ900?
Allied-Signal RE220
96
What are the priorities of the APU?
Primary: Electrical
Secondary: Pneumatics
97
Max APU Generator load
40 KVA to 41,000 feet
98
Max altitude for APU operation for electrical loading
41,000 feet
99
Max altitude for starting the APU
37,000 feet
100
Max altitude for APU bleed air extraction
25,000 feet
101
Max speed with APU door open
* 220 KIAS if APU not operating
* VMO/MMO if APU is operating
102
What is the minimum battery voltage required before starting the APU?
22 V on both the Main and APU batteries
103
What does the main battery power during an APU start?
APU ECU
104
What does the APU battery power during an APU start?
28 VDC APU start motor
105
When will the START portion of the START/STOP switchlight extinguish?
46% - 60% APU RPM
106
When will the AVAIL portion of the START/STOP switchlight illuminate?
99% RPM + 2 seconds
107
What are the APU starter limits?
* No more than 3 start attempts in one hour
* 2 minute delay required between start attempts
108
What is the CRJ900 Powerplant Model Number
General Electric CF-34-8C5
109
Normal takeoff thrust
13,360 lbs
110
APR thrust rating
14,510 lbs
111
Max continuous thrust (MCT)
13,680 lbs
112
Max temperature for takeoff and landing
ISA +40°C, limited to a maximum OAT of 51°C
113
Min ambient air temperature for takeoff
-40°C
114
Max altitude for a windmill start
21,000 ft MSL
115
Max engine to engine N2 split at ground idle power
2%
116
How much of the thrust is produced by core air?
20%
117
How much of the thrust is produced by bypass air?
80%
118
How many stages of compression are there?
10
119
What accessories are driven off the N2 accessory gearbox?
* Engine driven fuel pump
* IDG
* Air turbine starter
* Engine driven hydraulic pump
* Oil pump
* FADEC alternator
120
What stages of bleed air supply the common bleed air manifold?
Normally 6th stage; 10th stage is available when demand exceeds capacities of the 6th stage
121
What allows 10th stage bleed air availability?
Air Conditioning System Controller (ACSC) automatically opens the High Pressure Valve (HPV)
122
What is the engine bleed air used for?
* Engine start
* Air conditioning / pressurization
* Wing and cowl anti-ice
123
What is the minimum bleed air pressure required for a cross bleed start?
42 PSI at a maximum of 80% N2 for the operating engine
124
What is the normal air source used for engine starting?
APU bleed air
125
What source is used for engine starting if the APU is INOP or shut down?
* A ground air cart or high-pressure bottle may be attached to the external high pressure, ground air supply connection.
* Cross bleed starts from an operating engine may be used to start the other engine
126
Where is the high pressure, ground air supply connection located?
On the fuselage, aft of the aft cargo bay door
127
When will the starter cut out during an engine start?
50% N2 RPM
128
What are the engine starter cranking limits?
* Attempt 1-2: 90 seconds ON / 10 seconds OFF
* Attempt 3-5: 90 seconds ON / 5 minutes OFF
129
What are the dry motoring limits?
* Attempt 1: 90 seconds ON / 5 minutes OFF
* Attempt 2-5: 30 seconds ON / 5 minutes OFF
130
What would cause FADEC to automatically abort a start?
Hot start or hung start
131
How many ignitors are installed on each engine?
2
132
What supplies power to the ignitors?
* IGN-A: AC ESS Bus
* IGN-B: Static inverter on the battery bus
133
When must continuous ignition be used?
* Takeoffs and landing on contaminated runways
* Flight through moderate or heavier intensity rain
* Flight through moderate or heavier intensity turbulence
* Flight in the vicinity of thunderstorms
134
When is continuous ignition automatically activated?
When approaching a high angle of attack
135
What conditions are required before advancing the thrust levers to IDLE during an engine start?
N2 20% or greater and ITT below 120°C
136
What conditions would cause Takeoff Configuration Warning?
* Parking brake SET
* Autopilot ON
* Spoilers extended (flight or ground)
* Stab trim out of green range
* Flaps not 8° or 20°
* Aileron trim out of green range
* Rudder trim out of green range
137
What is APR?
Automatic Performance Reserve thrust
138
When is APR armed for takeoff?
When N1 RPM of both engines is within 8% of scheduled takeoff power
139
When is APR armed for landing?
* Flaps greater than 20°, and
* Landing gear is down
140
When will the APR system be activated?
* Thrust levers in TOGA and N1s differ by 15% or greater after APR has been armed
* When thrust levers are set in the MAX POWER detent
* When the HIGH PWR SCHEDULE switchlight is selected ON
141
What occurs when the APR system activates?
FADEC commands a thrust increase dependent on thrust lever position
142
What indication is displayed when APR is activated?
Green APR icon on the N1 gauge
143
If an engine fails during go-around, will the APR system activate?
Yes
144
What is used to deploy and stow the thrust reversers?
* L reverser - hydraulic system #1
* R reverser - hydraulic system #2
145
What indications will be displayed during thrust reverser deployment?
* Amber REV icon on the N1 gauges during cowl transition
* Green REV icon on the N1 gauges when reversers are fully deployed
146
What is occurring during thrust reverser deployment?
* Translating cowls move aft, block rearward flow of bypass air
* The fan discharge airflow is redirected forward through the cascade vanes
147
When do the thrust reversers need to be either stowed or at idle?
60 knots
148
What are the indications of an inadvertent thrust reverser deployment?
* Amber REV icon on affected N1 gauge
* REV UNLOCKED caution message
* FADEC commands idle thrust on affected engine
* Thrust levers will not move when FADEC commands idle thrust
149
Min oil temperature for start
-40°C
150
Max continuous oil temperature
155°C
151
Max permissible oil temperature
163°C (15 minutes max)
152
Max oil consumption
0.05 gallons/hour
153
Where can the oil quantity be checked?
EICAS Menu page
154
When should the engine oil level be replenished?
15 minutes to 2 hours after shutdown
155
When should the oil capacity be checked?
3 minutes to 2 hours after shutdown
156
Max oil refill before dry motoring is required
2 quarts
157
How is the oil cooled?
Fuel / oil heat exchanger
158
What is the total quantity of the engine oil tanks?
7.2 quarts
159
How is the fuel moved from the center tank to the wing tanks?
Transfer ejectors
160
How is the fuel moved from the wing tanks to the collector tanks?
Scavenge ejectors and gravity
161
How is the fuel moved from the collector tanks to the engine driven high pressure fuel pumps?
Main ejectors (backed up by DC electric boost pumps)
162
What is the function of the electric boost pumps?
To supply fuel to the engines when main ejector pressure is low
163
Will an engine continue to run with a failed engine driven fuel pump?
No
164
Max fuel imbalance
300 lbs for takeoff
800 lbs for all other phases
165
How many ways are available to crossflow fuel?
3
Auto
Manual
Gravity
166
When will the auto crossflow system begin transferring fuel?
200 lb fuel imbalance
167
When will the auto crossflow system stop transferring fuel?
When the fuel quantity of the low tank exceeds the other tank by 50 lbs
168
When are the boost pumps automatically energized?
Low pressure detected at the main ejectors (if the boost pumps are armed)
169
Where is bulk fuel temperature measured?
Right main tank
170
What is the minimum bulk fuel temp for takeoff (Jet A)?
-30°C
171
What is the minimum bulk fuel temp during flight (Jet A)?
Above -40°C
172
How is engine fuel heated?
Fuel/oil heat exchanger
173
What is the minimum engine fuel temperature for takeoff?
+5°C
174
What is the takeoff limitation if the center tank has over 500 lbs of fuel?
Each wing tank must be above 4,400 lbs
175
Which Bus powers the refuel/defuel panel and refuel/defuel SOVs?
APU Battery Direct Bus
176
Where is the refuel/defuel panel located?
On the fuselage, forward of right wing
177
Where is the single point adapter located?
Right wing root
178
What message will be displayed on EICAS whenever the refuel/defuel panel is switched on?
AUTO XFLOW INHIB status message
179
Max single PACKS altitude
25,000 ft
180
What does the OVBD COOL caution message mean?
* The ground valve has failed in the open position
* NOTE: Do not takeoff with an OVBD COOL caution message; the aircraft will not be able to pressurize properly
181
How many pressurization controllers are installed?
2 (PC1 and PC2)
182
When do the pressurization controllers swap automatically?
Weight on wheel plus 3 minutes, or
If one PC fails, the redundant controller takes over
183
When operating in auto mode, what is the normal cabin rate of climb and descent?
500 FPM climb
300 FPM descent
184
When operating in the manual mode, what cabin rate of climb or descent range can be selected using the MAN RATE knob?
50 FPM to 3000 FPM +/- 1000 FPM
185
Normal pressure differential
8.5 psi
186
Max pressure differential
8.7 psi
187
Max pressure differential during taxi, takeoff, and landing
0.1 psi
188
Max negative pressure differential
-0.5 psi
189
When will the CABIN ALT caution message appear?
Cabin altitude above 8,500 ft but below 10,000 ft
190
When will the CABIN ALT warning message appear?
Cabin altitude above 10,000 ft
191
When will CPAM automatically deploy the passenger oxygen masks?
Cabin altitude above 14,000 ft
192
When will CPAM turn on the NO SMOKING/FASTEN SEATBELT sign?
Cabin altitude above 10,000 ft when the switches are in the AUTO position
193
Max altitude for using RAM AIR during unpressurized flight
15,000 ft
194
Can live animals be transported in the cargo bay?
Yes, aft cargo bay only
195
What causes the FAULT portion of a PACK switchlight to illuminate?
Over pressure or over temperature condition
196
When will the FAULT portion of the PRESS CONT switchlight illuminate?
When both pressurization controllers have failed
197
What is used for wing and cowl anti-ice?
6th and 10th stage bleed air
198
When is cowl anti-ice required to be ON during ground operations?
* When OAT is 10°C or below, and visible moisture in any form is present
* When OAT is 10°C or below while operating on ramps, taxiways or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush is present
199
When is cowl anti-ice required to be ON during flight?
* When icing conditions exist or are anticipated, or
* When ICE is annunciated by the ice detection system
* NOTE: icing conditions exist in flight when TAT is 10°C or below and visible moisture in any form is encountered, except when the SAT is -40°C or below
200
When is wing anti-ice required to be ON during ground operations?
* When OAT is 5°C or below, and visible moisture in any form is present
* When OAT is 5°C or below, and the runway is wet or contaminated
* NOTE: If Type II, Type III, or Type IV deicing fluid has been applied, delay turning wing anti-ice on until just prior to takeoff to preserve the integrity of the fluid
201
When is wing anti-ice required to be ON during flight operations?
* When icing conditions exist and airspeed is less than 230 KIAS, or
* When ICE is annunciated by the ice detection system
* NOTE: Icing conditions exist in flight when TAT is 10°C or below and visible moisture in any form is encountered, except when the SAT is -40°C or below
202
What will indicate a satisfactory test when the ICE DET TEST switchlight is pressed?
* ICE switchlight illuminates
* ICE caution message is displayed on EICAS
* ADS HEAT TEST OK advisory message is displayed on EICAS
203
What is the purpose of the Wing A/I cross-bleed switch?
To allow the bleed air from one engine to anti-ice the opposite wing
204
What occurs with the Windshield Heat on LOW?
All 4 panels are heated to 24°C
205
What occurs with the Windshield Heat on HIGH?
Side windows are heated to 24°C and both windshields are heated to 41°C
206
When should the Windshield Heat by switched of OFF?
When OAT is 30°C or above
