CLASS 4 - GENERAL SURVEY, LOC, SEDATIVE-HYPNOTICS, + PHARMACODYNAMICS Flashcards

1
Q

How would you observe cognition in terms of a patient’s physical appearance?

A

Age, gender, LOC, skin colour, facial features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How would you observe cognition in terms of a patient’s body structure?

A

Stature, nutrition, symmetry, posture, position, body build, contour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How would you observe cognition in terms of a patient’s behaviour?

A

facial expresson, mood + affect, speech, dress, personal hygiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How would you observe cognition in terms of a patient’s mobility?

A

gait, range of motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a flat (blunted) affect?

A

lack of emotional response, no expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is depersonalization?

A

loss of identity, feeling estranged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some potential causes of delirium?

A

underlying medical condition such as infection or pain
alcohol / substances / medications
environment (ICU, psychosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are 2 physiological conditions that affect LOC?

A

Hypoglycemia, low oxygenation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does it mean if a patient is lethargic?

A

Somnolent, inattentive to voice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does it mean if a patient is obtunded?

A

difficult to awaken, marginal cooperation, incoherent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what does it mean if a patient is stupor?

A

semi-coma, withdraws to pain, maons / mumbles, spontaneously unconscious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the glasgow coma scale?

what are the 3 responses it assesses?

A

scoring system used to describe the level of consciousness in a person following a traumatic brain injury.
eye opening response (4), verbal response (5), and motor response (6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which score ranges on the Glasgow Coma Scale indicate:
Minor brain injury?
Moderate brain injury?
Severe brain injury?

A

minor: 13-15
moderate: 9-12
severe: 3-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the section of the glasgow coma scale used to assess the eye opening response.

A

highest score is 4

4: eyes open simultaneously
3: eyes open to verbal command
2: eyes open to pain
1: do not open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the section of the glasgow coma scale used to assess the verbal response.

A

highest score is 5

5: oriented
4: confused but able to answer questions
3: inapproriate responses, words discernible
2: incomprehensible sounds or speech
1: no response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the section of the glasgow coma scale used to assess the motor response.

A

highest score is 6

6: obeys commands for mvmt
5: purposeful mvmt to painful stimulus
4: withdraws from pain
3: abnormal (spastic) flexion, decorticate posture
2: extensor (rigid) response, decerebrate posture
1: no motor response

17
Q

What is decerebrate posture?

A

results from damage to the upper brain stem.
The arms are adducted and extended w the wrists prinated and fingers flexed/ Lefs are stiffly extended, w plantar flexion of the feet (score of 2 on GCS).

18
Q

What is decorticate posture?

A

results from damage to one or both corticospinal tracts. Arms are adducted and flexed w the wrists and fingers flexed on the chest. Legs are stiffly extended and internally rotated w plantar flexion of the feet (score of 3 on GCS)

19
Q

Why is the PO route preferred of benzodiazepines instead of IV?

A

IV doses may have profound BP drop or respiratory depression

20
Q

what is drug half-life?

A

the amt of time required for the amt of drug in the body to decrease by 50%.

21
Q

do drugs w short half-lives leave the body quickly or slowly?

22
Q

do drugs w long half-lives leave the body quickly or slowly?

23
Q

what is CYP450?

A

CYP450 is the main enzyme system in the liver responsible for drug metbolism.

24
Q

If drug A is metabolized by a CYP450 enzyme and drug B induces that enzyme, what effect will this have on drug A?

A

This will cause drug A to break down faster and therefore reduce the effect of drug A.

25
If drug A is metabolized by a CYP450 enzyme and drug C inhibits that enzyme, what effect will this have on drug A?
Drug A will be broken down more slowly and therefore its effects will be enhanced.
26
how do enzyme inducers change the effects of benzodiazepines | how do enzyme inhibitors change the effect of benzodiazepines?
Enzyme inducers: reduced effect of Benzo by speeding breakdown Enzyme inhibitors: increased effect of Benzo by delaying breakdown
27
what are the 4 types of receptors in the body?
Ligand-gated ion channels G protein-coupled receptors Enzyme-linked receptors Intracellular receptors
28
Where does drug metabolism most often take place?
In the liver
29
what is first pass metabolism?
Drugs given orally may be metabolized in the liver before they reach systemic circulation.
30
What is the relationship between first pass mechanism and administering a drug intravenously?
sometimes first pass mechanism is so dramatic that it necessitates gving a drug intravenously as giving it orally would lead to significantly less active drug in the systemic circulation
31
What is the difference between central and peripheral painful stimuli when assessing a patient's neurological response?
Central painful stimuli: evaluates brain function | Peripheral painful stimuli: evaluates spinal cord
32
Give examples of a central painful stimulus
squeezing trapezius muscle applying supraorbital or submandibular pressure sternum rub
33
which central painful stimulus should be avoided if possible?
sternum rub
34
give an example of a peripheral painful stimulus
applying pressure on the nail plate w a pencil
35
how long should a stimulus be applied to assess a patient's response?
at least 15 seconds but no longer than 30.