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Y3 - Trauma > Classifications- Midterm > Flashcards

Classifications- Midterm Flashcards

(51 cards)

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1
Q

What is the Gustilo-Anderson classification used for?

A

Open Fractures

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2
Q

Grade 1 Gustilo-Anderson description and antibx choice

A

Clean wound <1cm in diameter (more so “trauma from within”)

Antibx choice: 1st gen cephalosporin (Ancef)

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3
Q

Grade 2 Gustilo-Anderson description and antibx choice

A

Wound 1-5cm in diameter w/ soft tissue damage

Antibx choice: Ancef and aminoglycoside (gentamycin)

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4
Q

Grade 3 Gustilo-Anderson description and antibx choice

A

Wound >5cm in diameter w/ extensive soft tissue damage
IIIA- adequate soft tissue coverage
IIIB- extensive soft tissue damage w/ periosteal stripping and massive contamination
IIIC- arterial damage requiring primary repair

Antibx choice: Ancef/High dose PCN, clindamycin (not Moore), aminoglycoside

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5
Q

A patient presents with a gunshot wound, how would you classify this with the Gustilo-Anderson classification?

A

Controversial-
Dr. Moore believes that GSWs are automatically considered a GA grade III.
Some believe that these injuries could be as low as a grade I

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6
Q

What is the Resnik classification used for?

A

Depth of foreign body w/ respect to surgical layers

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7
Q

Resnick Grade I description

A

Superficial/cutaneous (usually visible and w/o local signs of infection)

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8
Q

Resnick Grade II description

A

Subcutaneous or articular w/o signs of infection

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9
Q

Resnick Grade IIIA description

A

Subcutaneous or articular w/ signs of infection

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10
Q

Resnick Grade IIIB description

A

Bone penetration w/o signs of infection

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11
Q

Resnick Grade IV description

A

Bone penetration w/ known OM

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12
Q

What is the Patzakis classification used for?

A

It describes the anatomy where OM occurs/is occurring

*Dr. Moore uses this when asking where a puncture wound/foreign body is located

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13
Q

What is a Patzakis zone 1?

A

Toe to MT head (50% incidence of OM)

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14
Q

What is a Patzakis zone 2?

A

Midfoot (17% incidence of OM)

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15
Q

What is a Patzakis zone 3?

A

Calcaneus (33% incidence of OM)

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16
Q

What is the Jahss classification used for?

A

1st MPJ injury

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17
Q

Jahss Grade I

A

intersesamoidal ligament intact, no sesamoid fracture

**Only one to require open reduction for treatment (all others are closed/conservative)

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18
Q

Jahss Grade IIA

A

intersesamoidal ligament and plantar capsule distal to the sesamoids ruptured, and no sesamoid fracture

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19
Q

Jahss Grade IIB

A

rupture of intersesamoidal ligament and fracture of at least one sesamoid

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20
Q

Jahss Grade II Variant

A

rupture of intersesamoidal ligament and separation of bipartite sesamoid

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21
Q

What is the Stewart classification used for?

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A

Proximal 5th MT base fractures

22
Q

Stewart classification Type I

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A

Jones fracture, transverse fracture of metaphyseal/diaphyseal junction

23
Q

Stewart classification Type II

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A

Intra-articular avulsion fracture

24
Q

Stewart classification Type III

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A

Extra-articular avulsion fracture

25
Stewart classification Type IV
Intra-articular comminuted fracture
26
Stewart classification type V
Extra-articular fracture through the epiphysis
27
What is the Hardcastle classification used for?
Lisfranc's fractures
28
Hardcastle Type A
Homolateral or homomedial (every single MT has disarticulated from proximal attachment)
29
Hardcastle Type B
Partial incongruity (1st MT is stable, but lesser MTs are displaced or vice versa)
30
Hardcastle Type C
Divergent (some MTs are going one way and others are going a different way)
31
What are the two classification systems used for Lisfranc's fractures?
Hardcastle | Quenu & Kuss (types A-C, very similar to Hardcastle)
32
What is the Watson&Jones classification used for?
Navicular fractures
33
Watson&Jones Type I
Avulsion fracture off tuberosity by PT tendon
34
Watson&Jones Type II
Dorsal lip fracture
35
Watson&Jones Type III
Body fracture IIIa- transverse fracture, non-displaced IIIb- transverse fracture, displaced
36
Watson&Jones Type IV
Stress fracture
37
What is the AMA Standard Nomenclature System used for?
Ankle sprains
38
AMA Standard Nomenclature System Grade I
Microscopic tear of ligament, mild swelling/tenderness, no joint instability, WB w/ minimal pain
39
AMA Standard Nomenclature System Grade II
Incomplete tear of ligament, moderate pain/swelling/ecchymosis, mild to moderate joint instability, WB w/ pain
40
AMA Standard Nomenclature System Grade III
Complete tear of ligament, severe pain/swelling/ecchymosis, significant joint instability, unable to WB
41
What is the O'Donaghue classification used for?
Ankle sprains | **Most commonly used**
42
O'Donaghue Type I
Single tear (ATFL only)
43
O'Donaghue Type II
Partial rupture (ATFL and CFL)
44
O'Donaghue Type III
Complete rupture (ATFL, CFL, PTFL)
45
What is the Mann&Coughlin classification used for? What makes it special?
Ankle sprains--> describes injury AND suggests treatment
46
Mann&Coughlin Type I
Stable ankle, via clinical testing, treat symptomatically only
47
Mann&Coughlin Type II, Group 1
Type II: unstable ankle, (+) anterior drawer and/o (+) talar tilt Group 1: non-athelete or older patient--> functional treatment (RICE, physical therapy, heel raises, exercises w/ resistance band, ankle brace
48
Mann&Coughlin Type II, Group 2, Type A
Type II: unstable ankle, (+) anterior drawer and/o (+) talar tilt Group 2: young and very active Type A: negative stress radiograph (functional treatment)
49
Mann&Coughlin Type II, Group 2, Type B
Type II: unstable ankle, (+) anterior drawer and/o (+) talar tilt Group 2: young and very active Type B: (+) anterior drawer and (+) talar tilt
50
Mann&Coughlin Type II, Group 2, Type C
Type II: unstable ankle, (+) anterior drawer and/o (+) talar tilt Group 2: young and very active Type C: (+) anterior drawer and talar tilt, w/ 2mm+ displacement of calcaneus on the talus
51
Which Mann&Coughlin classifications indicate open surgical repair?
Mann&Coughlin Type II, Group 2, Type B & C

Y3 - Trauma (8 decks)

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