CLIA and OSHA Flashcards

1
Q

Labs that are exempt from CLIA *

A

Forensic labs, research labs, drug testing labs (NIDA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

CMS Definition: *

A

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CMS applies to: *

A

Laboratories billing medicare and medicaid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Certificate of registration *

A

Lab’s that are just starting out will get this until they are inspected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Certificate of compliance *

A

Required for labs performing moderate of high complexity testing. Given by STATE CMS inspectors after the lab has met requirements for certification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Certificate of accreditation *

A

Issued to labs that meet the standards of a private non-profit accreditation program approved by CMS. Issued in lieu of other certificates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Accreditation agency must be More or Less strict than CLIA*

A

More

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If the lab changes ownership, name, location, director or technical supervisor, they must notify CMS within: *

A

30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If the lab adds, subtracts, or changes test menu, they must notify CMS within: *

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Provider performed microscopy *

A

Are subject to their own certification, considered moderately complex, are subject to inspection. Must be done in the office on live specimens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Unsatisfactory PT

A

Failure to attain a passing score in one testing event, requires corrective action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Unsuccessful PT

A

Unsatisfactory performance in two consecutive or two out of three testing events.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Successful Participation in PT

A

Satisfactory performance is considered 80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Quality Systems required for non-waived testing. List 7 *

A
  1. Confidentiality of PHI
  2. Competency of personnel and review corrective action.
  3. Complaint investigations and documentation.
  4. Communication between lab and physicians, document
  5. Specimen Identification and integrity
  6. Evaluate PT performance
  7. General Lab Systems Assessment, document review
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Technical Supervisor (high complexity) must evaluate competency how often? *

A

On hire (after training), again in 6 months, and annually after that, unless methodology changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The Test Requisition must include what 5 components: **

A
  1. Patient name or other identifier
  2. Sex and age or DOB
  3. Name and address of requestor/ contact
  4. The test to be performed
  5. The date and time of collection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pap samples must also include: *

A

Date of last menstrual period and whether the patient has had previous abnormal results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Oral requests for tests are permitted only if: *

A

The laboratory requests written authorization within 30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How long do you have to save test requisition *

A

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How long do you have to save QC records *

A

2 years or 5 years for immunohematology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How long do you have to save test records and test reports *

A

2 years or
5 years for immunohematology and cytology slides
10 years for pathology records

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Test records must include: *

A
  1. ID of tech performing test
  2. ID of patient
  3. Date and time of specimen receipt
  4. Condition of specimen
  5. Date and time of testing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The test report must include: *****

A
  1. Patient’s name or ID number
  2. Name and address of the lab
  3. Report date
  4. Test performed
  5. Specimen source
  6. Result, units, and interpretation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

True or False: CLIA labs that are also HIPPA covered entities must provide the patient with a copy of their test report within 30 days of their request? *

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Reagent label must include: *****
1. Identity 2. Concentration 3. Storage Requirements 4. Date made and expiration 5. Lot number
26
PPM Personnel Requirements
1. Director 2. Testing personnel
27
Moderate Complexity Personnel Requirements
1. Director 2. Technical Consultant 3. Clinical Consultant 4. Testing personnel
28
Requirements to be a moderate complexity lab director: *
1. Pathologist 2. Physician with experience 3. Ph.D with certification and experience 4. M.S. or B.S. with experience
29
High Complexity Personnel Requirements*
1. Director 2. Technical Supervisor 3. Clinical Consultant 4. General Supervisor 5. Testing personnel
30
Requirements to be a High Complexity Director: *
1. Pathologist 2. Physician with experience 3. Ph.D with certification and experience
31
OSHA requires that clinical laboratories should have these three separate, but coordinated plans.
1. Bloodborne Pathogen Plan 2. Hazard Communication Plan 3. Chemical Hygiene Plan
32
As part of the Bloodborne Pathogens Plan labs must appoint
Appoint a safety officer to train employees to protect themselves
33
Exposure control plan must describe:
Must describe potential risks in the laboratory, measures taken to protect employees, and procedures to follow if exposed to bloodborne pathogens.
34
Required engineering controls
Sinks for hand washing, sharps containers, red bags for waste, leak proof containers for blood storage, shields, and safety cabinets.
35
Examples of BSL-1 bugs *
E. coli and other nonpathogenic
36
Examples of BSL-2 bugs *
Staph, HBV, HIV, post biohazard warnings
37
Examples of BSL-3 bugs *
Tuberculosis, anthrax, must decontaminate waste and clothing
38
Examples of BSL-4 bugs *
Ebola, Marburg, clothing change before entering and shower on exit.
39
OSHA requires that employee exposure medical records be kept for: *
The term of employment plus 30 years
40
If the entity cannot afford to store employee exposure medical records:*
Notify employees and give them one year to pick them up Pay a company to scan and store them electronically. Destroy them.
41
OSHA requires that bloodborne pathogen records be kept for: *
Three years
42
The Hazard Communication Plan *
1. ensure proper labelling of hazardous chemicals 2. maintain safety data sheets that are accessible 3. Ensure personnel are aware of hazards, training
43
The Hazard Communication Plan *
1. ensure proper labelling of hazardous chemicals 2. maintain safety data sheets that are accessible 3. Ensure personnel are aware of hazards, training
44
Hazard determinations must evaluate
a chemical's carcinogenicity
45
What are the seven classes of hazardous substances?
1. Carcinogen or health hazard 2. Corrosive 3. Explosive 4. Flammable 5. Irritant 6. Sensitizer 7. Toxic
46
Hazardous chemical labeling requirements *
Name, address, and phone number of manufacturer, chemical name and batch, Signal word, Hazard statements, precautionary statement, pictograms, and supplementals.
47
Flame over circle *
Oxidizers
48
Exclamation mark *
Irritant, sensitizer, toxic
49
Skull and crossbones *
Acute toxicity
50
Chemical Hygiene Plan (CHP) *
Lists procedures, equipment, PPE, and work practices that protect employees from hazardous chemical exposure in the workplace.
51
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and the Department of Transportation (DoT) require what documentation for hazardous waste transport?
A uniform hazardous waste manifest
52
The atmospheric oxygen must be in what range? *
19.5 - 23.5% Important if liquid Nitrogen is used.
53
Symptoms if oxygen is 16-19.5%? *
Symptomatic
54
Symptoms if oxygen is 12-16%? *
Tachycardia, Impaired attention and coordination
55
Symptoms if oxygen is 10-14%? *
Impaired judgement, intermittent respiration, exhaustion
56
Symptoms if oxygen is 6-10%? *
Nausea, Vomiting, lethargic movements, unconsciousness
57
Symptoms if oxygen is <6%? *
Convulsions, apnea, cardiac standstill
58
A Class A fire extinguisher is used for what types of fires? *
paper, wood, cloth, (green triangle)
59
A Class B fire extinguisher is used for what types of fires? *
flammable liquids, ethanol, acetone, xylene, methanol (red square)
60
A Class C fire extinguisher is used for what types of fires? *
electrical equipment, analyzers, wiring, circuit breakers, and outlets (blue circle)
61
A Class D fire extinguisher is used for what types of fires? *
combustible metals, magnesium, sodium, lithium, and potassium (yellow decagon)
62
Carbon dioxide fire extinguishers are used for *
Class B and C fires, leaves no residue, so good for laboratories with expensive electronics. Not good for outdoor, cold or windy situations.
63
Bromochlorodifluoromethane (Halon 1211) fire extinguishers are used for *
Class A, B and C fires, leaves no residue, so good for laboratories with expensive electronics. These have been phased out because they destroy ozone.
64
Bromochlorodifluoromethane (Halon 1211) fire extinguishers are used for *
Class A, B and C fires, leaves no residue, so good for laboratories with expensive electronics. These have been phased out because they destroy ozone.
65
Fire Plan R A C E
Remove anyone from danger Activate fire alarm Confine fire by closing doors Extinguish fire or evacuate area
66
Fire extinguisher operation P A S S
Pull the pin Aim hose at base of fire Squeeze handle Sweep side to side
67
ALARA for radiation safety
As low as reasonably achievable
68
As part of OSHA Noise Exposure and hearing conservation program, employers must provide PPE, hearing protectors if the noise level is above what? *
>85 dBA over an 8 hour period
69
If noise is >85dBA, the employer must develop
A monitoring program to monitor noise levels