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Flashcards in Clicker questions Deck (83)
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1
Q

Following are associated with Trypanosoma cruzi

a. American trypanosomiasis
b. Armadillos
c. Kissing bugs
d. Chagas disease
e. All of the above

A

E - all of the above

2
Q

Which of the following is not known as Nagana?

a. T. brucei
b. Cruzi
c. Congolense
d. Vivax

A

B - cruzi

3
Q

Leishmania spp. Lives in macrophages (in the phagolysosome)

a. True
b. False

A

a - true

4
Q

Leishmania infantum is

a. Found naturally in dogs in the Old World
b. Found in cats in the New World
c. Has been found in foxhounds in the US
d. A and b
e. A and c

A

e - a and c

5
Q

Xenodiagnosis is

a. Serological test similar to ELISA
b. Observational, observing organism on blood smear
c. Test where alternate host is inoculated and then attempting to recover organism

A

c

6
Q

Autochthonous infection

a. Indigenous
b. Disingenuous
c. Foreign
d. Infrequent

A

a - indigenous

7
Q

Apicomplexan life cycles do not include:

a. Gametogony
b. Sporogony
c. Polyogony
d. Schizogony
e. B and c

A

c- polyogony

8
Q

Oocyst of Eimeria sp. Has:

a. 8 sporocysts
b. 4 sporocysts
c. 16 sporozoites
d. 4 sporozoites
e. 1 sporocyst

A

b - 4 sporocysts

9
Q

Schizogony will significantly increase number of merozoites?

a. True
b. False

A

a - true

10
Q

Clinical signs of coccidiosis include

a. Diarrhea
b. Dehydration
c. Anorexia
d. A and b
e. A, b and c

A

e - a, b, c

11
Q

Coccidiosis control may be achieved by

a. Sanitation
b. Chemoprophylaxis
c. Chemotherapy
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

A

e - all of the above

12
Q

Eimeria maxima is the most pathogenic of the chicken coccidian

a. True
b. False

A

b - false

13
Q

Coccidia Eimeria species are generally shared between host species

a. True
b. False

A

b - false

14
Q

Which of the following are effective for treatment of clinical coccidiosis?

a. Amprolium
b. Metronidazole
c. Decoquinate
d. A and b
e. All three drugs listed

A

a - amprolium

15
Q

Cryptosporidium is an apicomplexan?

a. True
b. False

A

a - true

16
Q

All apicomplexans have an apical complex?

a. True
b. False

A

a - true

17
Q

Apical complex does NOT include:

a. Polar ring
b. Conoid
c. Nucleus
d. Micronemes
e. Rhoptries

A

c - nucleus

18
Q

Best treatment for a cryptosporidium infections is:

a. Monensin
b. Deccoquinate
c. Supportive therapy
d. Paromomycin
e. Penicillin

A

c - supportive therapy

19
Q

At risk groups for Crypto infections include:

a. Veterinary works
b. Day care
c. Immunocompromised
d. Health care
e. All of the above

A

e - all

20
Q

Crypto is monoxenous, which is:

a. One required host
b. Two required hosts
c. One required and one facultative

A

a - one host

21
Q

Sarcocystis is heteroxenous, which is:

a. one required host
b. two required hosts
c. one required and one facultative

A

b - two required hosts

22
Q

Sarcocystis neurona uses the horse as an accidental intermediate ost?

a. True
b. False

A

a - true

23
Q

Which of the following is not an intermediate host for Sarcocystis neurona

a. Armadillo
b. Skunk
c. Raccoon
d. Opossum

A

d - opossum

24
Q

Which is the definitive host for Sarcocystis neurona

a. Armadillo
b. Skunk
c. Raccoon
d. Opossum

A

d - opossum

25
Q

Toxoplasma is shed in cat feces for how long?

a. 2 weeks
b. 4 weeks
c. 8 weeks
d. Forever

A

a - 2 weeks

26
Q

Cats become infected with Toxoplasma by

a. Ingestion of oocysts
b. Organ transplant
c. Ingestion of dung beetles
d. None of the above
e. All of the above

A

a - ingestion of oocyts

27
Q

Humans may become infected by Toxo

a. Ingestion of oocysts (litter box)
b. Ingestions of under cooked pork
c. Organ transplantation
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

d - all of the above

28
Q

9 yr old spayed female indoor only cat brought to clinic because client is 4 months pregnant, concerned with toxo, which is NOT appropriate

a. Submit serum sample from cat for toxo titer and recommend euth cat if titer pos
b. Instruct client to only eat cooked meat
c. Encourage client to continue to keep cat indoors
d. No raw meant to cat
e. Someone else change litter box

A

a - serum sample

29
Q

Definitive host for Neospora caninum is thought to be

a. Cat
b. Dog
c. Cow
d. Armadillo
e. Human

A

b - dog

30
Q

Intermediate hosts for neospora caninum include

a. Horses
b. Cows
c. Sheep
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

d - all

31
Q

Drugs like the ionophores (lasalocid and monensisn) are thought to be effective for Neospora caninum in cattle?

a. True
b. False

A

b - false

32
Q

Neospora caninum infection in cattle causes

a. Weight loss
b. Bloat
c. Sterility in bulls
d. Abortion
e. Chorioretinitis in aged (>10 yrs) animals

A

d - abortion

33
Q

Vertical transmission is important in the life cycle of Theileria and Babesia

a. True
b. False

A

b - false

34
Q

Smith and Kilborne, along with Curis disovered the life cycle of what in 1893?

a. Theileria parva
b. Theileria annulat
c. B. bigemina

A

c - b bigemina

35
Q

Human malaria is still a major disease in the world today

a. True
b. False

A

a - true

36
Q

Which mosquiteo genus is the primary vector of himan malaria

a. Culex
b. Anopheles
c. Aedes

A

b - anopheles

37
Q

Paroxysms are due to the organisms, plasmodium releasing prodcuts such as hemozin when the shczonts cause the RBCs to rupture

a. True
b. False

A

a - true

38
Q

Simulium flies serve as vector for Haemoproteus

a. True
b. False

A

b - false

39
Q

Balantidium often uses an anophiline mosquito as a vector (intermediate host)

a. True
b. False

A

b - false

40
Q

In severe disease Balantidium coli may be mistaken for Entamoeba coli

a. True
b. False

A

b - false (histolytical not coli)

41
Q

Ichthyopthirius multifiliisi, Ich is the most common ectoparasite of aquarium fish

a. True
b. False

A

a - true

42
Q

Trophonts live in and are found primarily

a. In or on the skin
b. May be found in the GI tract
c. Attached to rocks and vegetation
d. Other intermediate hosts

A

a - in or on skin

43
Q

Encephalitozoon cuniculi (Nosema cuniculi) will be seen primarily in rabbits

a. True
b. False

A

a - true

44
Q

Macracanthorhynchus is generally considered to be non-pathogenic

a. True
b. False

A

a - true

45
Q

Macracanthorhynchus is best controlled by manipulating the environment

a. True
b. False

A

a - true

46
Q

While most flukes are hermaphroditic they still rely on sexual reproduction

a. True
b. False

A

a - true

47
Q

The fluke life cycle is typically

a. Egg –> redia –> sporocyst –> redia –> cercaria –> metacercaria –> adult
b. Egg –> miracidium –> sporoyst –> redia –> cercaria –> metacrecaria –> adult
c. Adult –> miracidium –> redia –> cercaria –> metacercaria
d. Adult –> egg –> cercaria –> sporocyst –> redia –> miracidium –> metacercaria

A

b

48
Q

Moecious refers to both sexes housed in the same body while diecious refers to each sex housed in a different body

a. True
b. False

A

a - true

49
Q

While most flukes are hermaphroditic they still rely on sexual reproduction

a. True
b. False

A

a - true

50
Q

Fasciola hepatica is endemic in Minnesota

a. True
b. False

A

b - false

51
Q

Which of the following antiparasitic agents is most suitable for use against immature stages of Fasciola hepatica

a. Fenbendazole
b. Ivermectin
c. Praziqu
d. The one that is no longer available (curatem?)

A

d

52
Q

Fascioloides magna is endemic in Minnesota

a. True
b. False

A

a - true

53
Q

Dicroceoelium dendriticum is endemic in New York and Minnesota

a. True
b. False

A

b - false

54
Q

Infection of the definitive host by the rumen fluke is by ingestion of

a. Snail intermediate host
b. Miracidium
c. Cercariae
d. Metacercariae

A

d - metacercariae

55
Q

Adults of Paragonimus kellicoti live in

a. Lung parenchyma
b. Liver parenchyma
c. Intestinal lumen
d. Kidney parenchyma

A

a - lung parenchyma

56
Q

Paragonimus kellicotti hosts include

a. Mink
b. Aquatic snails
c. Fresh water crayfish
d. Dogs
e. All of the above

A

e - all

57
Q

The most prominent diagnostic feature of eggs of Paragonimus kellicottis is

a. Reddish brown color
b. Shoulders that surround the operculum
c. Absence of operculum
d. Absence of color of the shell

A

b - shoulders around operculum

58
Q

Paragonimus kellicotti uses two intermediate hosts, they are

a. Aquatic snail and ant
b. Land snail and crayfish
c. Land snail and ant
d. Aquatic snail and crayfish
e. None of the above

A

d - aquatic snail, crayfish

59
Q

Alaria is the most common fluke found in dogs in MN

a. True
b. False

A

a - true

60
Q

Alaria uses

a. One intermediate host
b. Two intermediate hosts
c. Three intermediate hosts
d. No intermediate host

A

b - two IH

61
Q

Prosthogonimus macrorchis may be found in

a. Bursa
b. Small intestine
c. Eye
d. Liver

A

a - bursa

62
Q

Prosthogonimus macrorchis uses which of the following as an intermediate host

a. Land snail
b. Aquatic snail
c. Dragon fly
d. A and c
e. B and c

A

e - b and c

63
Q

Echinostoma revolutum causes a disease primarily of wild waterfowl

a. True
b. False

A

a - true

64
Q

Schistosomes are unique flukes in that they are monecious

a. True
b. False

A

b - false

65
Q

Swimmers itch is caused by the penetration of human skin by a bird schistosome

a. Miracidium
b. Sporocyst
c. Redia
d. Cercaria
e. Metacercaria

A

c - cercaria

66
Q

Diphyllobothrium latum uses which of the following as intermediate hosts

a. Snails and blugills
b. Dragon fly larvae and salmon
c. Copepods and pike
d. Copepods and annelid worms
e. None of the above

A

c - copepods, pike

67
Q

Spirometra mansonoides (adult worms) may be found in which definitive hosts

a. Cats
b. Copepods
c. Amphibians
d. Reptiles

A

a - cats

68
Q

Parasitism is a relationship where:

a - where one member benefits while the other neither benefits nor is harmed
b - where an organism lives in or on the body of another organism, at the expense at the expense of that organism
c - where two organisms depend on each other physiologically and both members benefit from the relationship.

A

b

69
Q

An obligate host which alternates with the definitive host and harbors a larval stage of the parasite. Usually where asexual reproduction occurs is the:

a - definitive host
b - intermediate host
c - paratenic or transport host

A

b

70
Q

Motile feeding form

a - trophozoite
b - cyst

A

a

71
Q

<p>

| Most flagellates divide by: a - transverse binary fission b - longitudinal fission</p>

A

<p>

| B - longitudinal</p>

72
Q

Schizogony is:

a - nuclear division followed by cytokinesis
b - cytokinesis followed by nuclear division
c - internal budding
d - external budding

A

a

73
Q

The amoebae are important parasites in humans as well as dogs

A) True
B) False

A

a

74
Q

Naegleria typically infects humans via:

A) ear canal
B) nose
C) orally
D) a and c
E) none of the above
A

b - nose

75
Q

Entamoeba coli cysts can be differentiated from E. histolytica. E. coli cysts have:

A) 2 nuclei
B) 4 nuclei
C) 6 nuclei
D) 8 nuclei

A

d - 8

76
Q

Tritrichomonas foetus is found in what hosts:

A) dogs
B) cats
C) cattle
D) a and b
E) b and c
A

e - b and c

77
Q

Which of the following trichomonads are sexually transmitted?

A) Tritrichomonas foetus
B) Tritrichomonas gallinae
C) Trichomonas vaginalis
D) a and c
E) b and c
A

d - a and c

78
Q

Histomonas meleagridis may be transmitted between birds:

A) directly between birds
B) in the egg of Heterakis gallinarum
C) In an earthworm that ingested a H. gallinarum egg
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
A

d - all

79
Q

Histomonas meleagridis is quite pathogenic in which of the following species

A) chickens
B) cats
C) turkeys
D) pheasants

A

c - turkeys

80
Q

Histomonas meleagridis liver lesions may be pathognomonic

A) True
B) False

A

a - true

81
Q

Giardia is easily diagnosed?
A) True
B) False

A

a - true

82
Q

The following tests are available for the successful ID of Giardia

A) IFA (meriflour)
B) Cassette (snap test)
C) Fecal flotation ( ZnSO4)
D) None of the above
E) A, B, and C
A

e - a, b, c

83
Q

Which of the following drugs is effective for treating Giardia and has the least toxicity problems associated with its use in dogs and cats?

A) ivermectin
B) milbemycin
C) metronidazole
D) albendazole
E) fenbendazole
A

e - fenbendazole