Clin Lab Final review Flashcards
1
Q
Whole blood is comprised of ___ and ___
A
Fluid and cells
2
Q
The fluid component of blood is comprised of _____
A
Plasma
3
Q
The cellular component is comprised of ____, ____, and ____
A
RBCs, WBCs, platelets
4
Q
If it is a heparin plasma sample that has been stored overnight in the refrigerator it should be _____to remove any possible _____
A
respun to remove fibrin strands
5
Q
Plasma from which fibrinogen has been removed
A
Serum
6
Q
During clotting process, soluble fibrinogen is plasma is converted to what?
A
An insoluble fibrin clot
7
Q
Used to run chemical assays
A
Anticoagulated blood (plasma)
Serum
8
Q
What is the preferred anticoagulant for chemistry tests?
A
Heparin
9
Q
May cause falsely increased inorganic phosphate levels in the blood
A
Heparin
10
Q
May interfere with lactate dehydrogenase activity
A
Heparin
11
Q
Should not be used if plasma samples are needed for chemistries
A
EDTA
12
Q
Interferes with color development in some alkaline phosphate tests
A
EDTA
13
Q
Binds metallic ions that may be necessary for enzyme activity, and binds calcium unavailable for assays
A
EDTA
14
Q
Alters the makeup of serum/plasma
A
Hemolysis
15
Q
Assays should be done ideally within ____ hr(s)
A
1 hours
16
Q
Total Protein, Albumin, Globulin, Albumin/Globulin Ratio, Fibrinogen are all examples of _____ assays
A
Protein assays
17
Q
Help form cells, organ, tissues, maintain osmotic pressure, act as buffers in acid-base balance, serve as hormons, function in blood coagulation, defend body against pathogenic microorganisms
A
Functions of Plasma in the body
18
Q
Serve as transport/carrier molecules for most constituents of plasma
A
Function of protein in the body
19
Q
Total plamsa protein include _____
A
Fibrinogen
20
Q
Total serum proteins do not include _____
A
Fibrinogen
21
Q
Total protein may be affected by alatered hepatic synthesis, altered protein distribution, breakdown/excretion, and _____ or _____
A
Dehydration or overhydration
22
Q
Dehydration causes _____ total protein concentration
A
elevated
23
Q
Overhydration causes ______ total protein concentration
A
Decreased
24
Q
What are two methods in measuring TP?
A
Refractrometer, Biuret
25
Important protein in plasma/serum
Albumin
26
Makes up 35-50% of total plasma protein
Albumin
27
Responsible for maintaining osmotic pressure of plasma
Albumin
28
Albumin is made by \_\_\_\_
Hepatocytes
29
What may cause decrease in albumin synthesis
Liver disease, renal disease, dietary intake, intestinal protein absorption
30
What may increase albumin levels?
Hemolysis
31
Globulin estimate is equal to the difference between what?
TP and albumin
32
Complex group of proteins made in the liver
Globulins
33
Primarily transport and bind proteins
Globulin
34
Make up 3-6% of the total plasma protein made by hepatocytes
\*Important in horses
Fibrinogen
35
Elevated by acute inflammatory/tissue damage
Plasma fibrinogen
36
There is no fibrinogen in \_\_\_\_
Serum
37
What are the 4 most common liver assays?
Alanine/Aspartate Aminotransferase
Sorbitol/Glutamate Dehydrogenase
38
Species in which hepatocytes are a major source of ALT
Dogs, cats, primates
39
In horses, ruminants, pigs, and birds hepatocytes do not contain enough ____ and are not a good indicator of disease
ALT
40
Renal cells, cardiac cells, skeletal muscles and pancreas are all sources for \_\_\_\_
ALT
41
Most accurate indicator of liver disease in small animals
Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT)
42
True or false, ALT is specific enough to identify specific liver disease
False
43
Hemolysis and lipemia can artifically ______ ALT levels
Increase
44
Only found in cases of severe liver disease
Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST)
45
AST is found where?
RBC, cardiac muscles, skeletal muscles, kidneys, and pancreas
46
Liver disease, hemolysis, strenuous exercise and IM injection may all result in elevated \_\_\_
AST
47
Primary source of Sorbitol Dehydrogenase (SDH)
Liver cells
48
Useful in determining liver damage in large animals
SDH
49
SDH is unstable in \_\_\_\_
Serum
50
Plasma level of SDH rise with _____ damage/necrosis
Hepatocellular
51
Liver specific in all species
Glutamate Dehydrogenase (GLDH)
52
GLDH has increased concentration in what species hepatocytes
cattle, sheep, and goat
53
Ideal choice for measuring liver function in large animals and exotics
GLDH
54
Sensitive and specific indicator of liver disease
GLDH
55
Increased levels of GLDH indicate _____ damage and necrosis
Liver damage
56
Alkaline Phosphatase and GGT are enzymes associated with \_\_\_\_\_
Cholestasis
57
Isoenzyme present in cells within hepatobiliary system, osteoblasts, and chondroblasts
Alkaline Phosphatase (AP, ALKP)
58
Most often used to detect Cholesasis in dogs and cats
Alkaline Phosphatase
59
Primary source of GGT or GT
Liver
60
Higher levels of ____ are found in cattle, horses, sheep, and goats
GGT
61
Elevated levels are seen in liver disease, especially obstructive liver disease
GGT
62
Bile Acid tests are more specific _____ function test
liver function
63
Bile acids have a _______ function
Hepatobiliary
64
Bile acid is made from _____ in the liver cells
Cholesterol
65
Bile acids are stored in the _____ until they move into the duodenum and aid in fat storage
gall bladder
66
Serum level is normally low in ____ \_\_\_\_
Bile acids
67
Liver removes 75-90%
Bile acids
68
Hemolysis and lipemia may falsely _____ bile acid measurements
Decrease
69
Elevated bile acids may indicate what?
Chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, cholestasis, neoplasms
70
Considered a waste material, carried to liver bound to albumin
Bilirubin (TBIL)
71
Bilirubin is insoluble in water until taken to \_\_\_\_
liver
72
Bilirubin becomes water soluble after being conjugated with \_\_\_\_\_
sugars
73
Sensitive to light and must be stored in the dark
Bilirubin
74
Plasma lipoprotein produced primarily in the liver as well as ingested food
Cholesterol
75
Seen in inherited diseases, diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism, cholestais and in the case of some drugs.
Hypercholesterolemia
76
Abnormally low cholesterol values could be due to decreased absorption, production and altered \_\_\_\_\_
metabolism
77
BUN, serum creatinine, urine protein/ creatinine ratio and SDMA are all ____ assays
Kidney assays
78
Used to evaluate kidney function based on its ability to remove nitrogenous wase from blood
BUN
79
This test is not very sensitive and only detects kidney failure at 75%
BUN and Creatinine
80
When the kidney is not functioning properly, ____ is not being removed
Urea
81
\_\_\_\_\_\_ _____ diets may increase BUN
High protein diets
82
BUN may also be elevated due to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Dehydration
83
Diffuses out of muscle cell and into body fluids
Creatinine
84
Creatinine is eliminated in \_\_\_\_\_
Urine
85
Used to evaluate renal function
Creatinine
86
Azotemia is when BUN and creatinine are \_\_\_\_\_
Elevated
87
Measures urinary protein loss
Urine protein/Creatinine ratio
88
Used to screen for early renal disease, monitor the course of renal disease, and assess therapeutic response
Urine protein/creatinine
89
In healthy dogs, the protein/creatinine ratio should be \_\_\_
Less than 1
90
Ratio indicating pre renal or functional origin
1-5
91
Ratio that indicates renal disease
\>5
92
Protein/Creatinine ratio may be falsely elevated due to what?
Fever, exercise, change in temperature
93
Methylated arginine amino acid
SDMA (Symmetric dimethylarginine)
94
SDMA is excreted by \_\_\_\_\_
kidneys
95
SDMA is specific for kidney disease and increases earlier than creatnine allowing detection as early as \_\_\_\_% loss to ____ % loss
25%-40% loss
96
As ____ decreases, SDMA increases
GFR
97
True or false, SDMA is NOT affected by other non-kidney diseases
True
98
Lean muscle mass impacts creatinine but not \_\_\_\_
SDMA
99
Reduced urine SG typically occurs when there is on average a _____ loss of GFR
67%
100
Trypsin, Amylase, Lipase are all ____ assays
Pancreas assay
101
Proteolytic enzyme
Trypsin
102
Trypsin is more readily detected in ___ than in blood
Feces
103
True of false, absence of trypsin in feces is abnormal
True
104
Two fecal tests used for Trypsin
Test tube method utilizing Knox Gelatin
X-Ray Film Test
105
Using the test tube method, failure to gel indicates \_\_\_\_\_
presence of trypsin
106
Primary source for Amylase
Pancreas (exocrine)
107
Increased levels of ______ indicate acute pancreatitis, flare ups of chronic pancreatitis, and obstruction of pancreatic ducts
Amylase
108
Primary source of Lipase
Pancreas (exocrine)
109
Functions to break down long chain fatty acids of lipids
Lipase
110
Lipase assays are more sensitive to pancreatitis than \_\_\_\_
amylase
111
Other pancreas tests include endocrine function of ____ and \_\_\_\_
Glucose and Fructosamine
112
Utilization of glucose depends on the amount of ____ and ____ produced by the pancreas
insulin and glucagon
113
For glucose tests what should be separated from serum/plasma immediately after collection
RBCs
114
What happens if plasma is left in contact with RBCs at room temperature?
Glucose levels may drop 10%/hr
115
What pancreas test is not effected by hemolysis
Glucose
116
More specific indicator of pancreatic endocrine activity than glucose
Fructosamine
117
Fructosamine represents binding between glucose and ____ \_\_\_\_
serum protein
118
Provides an indication of the average glucose levels over the life span of the protein (1-2 weeks)
Fructosamine
119
Fructosamine is not affected by \_\_\_\_
stress
120
Increased levels of Fructosamine indicate what?
Persistent hypergylcemia - diabetes mellitus
121
Used to diagnose Addison's disease (Hypoadrenocorticism) or Cushing's disease (Hyperadrenocorticism)
ACTH stimulation test
122
If ACTH results are low, it indicates
Hypoadrenocorticism
123
If ACTH results are high, it indicates
hyperadrenocorticism
124
Dexmathasone suppression tests evaluate adrenal glands differently by using the adrenal ______ \_\_\_\_
Feedback loops
125
Measures and compares levels of cortisol in an animals blood stream before and after it receives an injection of dexamethasone
Dexamethasone suppression test
126
Confirms or replaces the ACTH test for Cushing's disease
Dexamethasone suppression test
127
Measure and compares levels of cortisol in an animal's bloodstream before and after it receives an injection of dexamethasone
Dexamethasone suppresion test
128
Post injection, healthy animals show suppressed _____ levels
cortisol
129
\_\_\_\_\_ hormones influence metabolic rate, growth, and differentiation of all body cells
Thyroid
130
Assay that function for the maintenance of water balance
Electrolyte assays
131
Most commonly analyzed in electrolyte assays
Calcium, inorganic phosphorus, potassium, sodium, chloride, magnesium
132
Maintenance of neuromuscular excitability and tone as well as activity of many enzymes
Calcium
133
Functions in facilitation of blood coagulation
Calcium
134
Calcium is usually ______ related to inorganic phosphorus concentration
inversely
135
What does hypercalcemia indicate?
Young, growing animals
Renal failure, Addison's disease, Vitamin D toxicity, and in some cases cancer
136
What does hypercalcemia indicate?
Muscle tremors, weakness, convulsions
Milk fever, eclampsia
137
Found 80% in bones
Inorganic phosphorus
138
Composition of inorganic phosphorus
Nucleic acids, phospholipids
139
As phosphorus concentration \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, calcium concentration \_\_\_\_\_
decreases, increases
140
Hyperphosphatemia may indicate
hemolysis, hyperthyroidism, renal disease
141
Hypophosphatemia may be indicated due to
Lab error (#1 cause), renal loss, transcellular shifting, decreased absorption
142
Major cation of plasma and interstitial fluid
Sodium
143
Sodium is vital in _____ and \_\_\_\_\_\_
pH balance, and acid-base balance
144
What are some causes of Hypernatremia?
PD, CHF, Gi losses, liver disease
145
What are some causes of hyponatremia?
Excessive water loss, inadequate intake, salt gain
146
Major intracellular cation
Potassium
147
What is hypokalemia associated with?
Alkalosis, inadequate intake, and fluid loss
148
What is hyperkalemia associated with?
renal failure, urinary tract obstruction or rupture, cardiac arrythmia
149
Found in all body tissues, 50% in bones
Magnesium
150
Activates enzyme systems and involved in production and decomposition of acetylcholine
Magnesium
151
What is associated with hypomagnesemia
Decreased intake, GI losses, sweating in endurance horses
152
What is associated with hypermagnesemia?
Hemolysis, increased intake
153
Main extracellular anion
Chloride
154
Important in water distribution, osmotic pressure, and normal anion/cation ratio
Chloride
155
What is associated with hyperchloremia
Acidosis, chloride retention, and drug administration
156
What is associated with hypocholemia?
Alkalosis, V/D, fluids, sweating
157
Aids in transport of carbon dioxide from tissues to lungs
Bicarbonate
158
Frequently estimated from blood carbon dioxide levels
Bicarbonate
159
What blood is preffered for Bicarbonate measurement?
Arterial blood
160
Creatine Kinase (aka creatine phosphokinase (CPK) is primarily produced in _______ muscles and the \_\_\_\_\_
striated muscles and brain
161
One of the most organ specific enzymes available
CPK
162
What does it mean if you aspirate blood during a FNA
Blood vessel was hit, or tumor is extremely vascular
163
\_\_\_\_ cell tumors bleed a lot more
Mast cell
164
What is seen with suppurative (purulent) inflammation
Primarily neutrophils
165
What is seen with pyogranulomatous inflammation?
Primarily neutrophils and macrophages
166
What is een with Eosinophilic inflammation
Eosinophils with neutrophils
167
Neutrophils are seen in _____ and non _____ inflammation
septic and non-septic
168
Eosinophils are often seen in the presence of
allergies, forein protein, inflammation
169
Cells that are round with eccentric nucleus
Mast cells
170
Benign tumors of the adipocytes
Lipoma
171
True or false, cells present in neoplasia are of different tissues
False, cells present are of same tissue
172
Any unusual variation in overall cell size
Anisokaryosis
173
Variability in size and shape of the same cell
Pleomorphism
174
Anisokaryosis and pleomorphism are both indicators of what?
Malignancy
175
Indications for abdominocentesis
evaluating abdominal disease, obtain fluid sample
176
For abdominocentesis, introduce the needle into the _____ cavity
Peritoneal
177
For thoracocentesis, introduce the needle into the ____ cavity
pleural
178
Indications for transtracheal wash
evaluate respiratory disease
179
Indication for arthrocentesis
aspiration of joint fluid or injection of medication
180
Indications for a CSF tap
collection of fluid for diagnostics or to deliver medications
181
Arthrocentesis samples should be placed in \_\_\_\_
LTT
182
CSF tap samples should be placed in
RTT
183
For CSF taps, ____ ml collected for cytological analysis, and ___ ml for bacterial culture
1-5 ml, 0.25 ml
184
What procedures are used for thick fluids?
Wedge smear, compression smear, line prep, combination prep
185
Thin fluids should be ____ for 5 minutes at ______ rpm
centrifuged, 1000-2000 rpm
186
Clear to straw yellow, transparent, odorless, low numbers
Normal body fluids
187
Transudates, exudates and chylous effusion are all ____ fluids
abnormal
188
Primarily macrophages, lymphocytes, and mesothelial cells
Transudates
189
Feline infectious peritonitis, chylothorax, CHF and liver disease are all causes of \_\_\_\_\_\_
Transudates
190
Transudates have very low ____ levels and _____ cell counts
low protein and nucleated cell counts
191
Exudates often have high numbers of \_\_\_\_\_
neutrophils
192
Very high cell counts, high protein levels and may be maldorous
Exudates
193
Exudates are usually caused by acute or chronic \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
inflammation
194
Appears milky or like "strawberry milkshake"
Chylous fuid
195
Chylous fluid is most common in the ____ cavity
Pleural
196
Chylous fluid may be caused by ____ disease
Heart disease
197
Chylous fluid contains a predominance of normal, small \_\_\_\_
lymphocytes
198
Chylous fluid contain ____ \_\_\_\_\_ which are visible if stained
Fat droplets
199
What species are seasonal polyestrus
Cats, sheep, goats, and horses
200
Dogs have what type of cycle?
Nonseasonal monoestrus
201
What species are induced ovulators?
Cats
202
Gestation length in cats and dogs
63 days
203
Gestation length in cows
280 days
204
Gestation length in cattle
330 days
205
Gestation length in elephants
22 months
206
Hormone of the pituitary gland
Oxytocin
207
Released during parturition and sucking of mammary glands
oxytocin
208
Oxytocin stimulates ___ let down and ___ of uterus
Milk let down and contractions of uterus
209
Pregnancy testing at 21 days
ultrasound, hormone testing
210
Pregnancy testing at 45-48 days, looking for development of bone
radiograph
211
First stool of newborns that consists of material collected in the intestines of the fetus
Meconium
212
Thick fluid containing nutrients and antibodies
Colostrum
213
More reliable test for breeding
Progesterone
214
Number of microorganisms needed to cause disease
Infective dose
215
Gram negative bacteria within a cell and are excreted when the cell dies
Endotoxins
216
Immunizing agents in vaccines; good antigen
Exotoxins
217
Excreted from bacteria into the surrounding medium or tissues
Exotoxins
218
Basic unit of measure for bacterial cell morphology
Micrometer or micron (u)
219
Shape ranging from cocci to rods
Pleomorphic
220
"Chinese letter" pattern of bacteria
Palisades
221
Intracellular bodies that are resistant to heat, chemicals and radiation
Endospores
222
Can survive in the presence of oxygen but their growth is limited
Faculatative anaerobic
223
Used primarily to detect Mycobacterium and Nocardia species
Acid-Fast Stain
224
Identified lactose-fermenting organisms and only gram negative bacteria growth
MacConkey agar
225
Positive simmons citrate is \_\_\_\_\_, negative is \_\_\_\_
Deep blue, same color (green)
226
Growth on Triple sugar iron slant and butt indicate fermentable sugar. Acidic is \_\_\_\_\_, alkaline is ____ and means no fermentation
Yellow, Red
227
Positive Urea media is \_\_\_\_\_
pink
228
Liquid media used to grow anaerobic bacteria to detrmine oxygen tolerance
Thiglycollate
229
Used to culture for antibiotic susceptibility testing
Tripticase Soy
230
Tests that differentiate staphs, streps, and coliforms
Catalase test
231
Used to tell staph aureus from environmental staph
Coagulase test
232
Used to tell environmental streps from strep agalactiae
CAMP test
233
Arrowhead formation of this test indicates positive results
CAMP test
234
Contagious pathogens in milk
S. aureus, S. agalactiae
235
Gram postive cocci clusters, usually gray/white color with no hemolysis
Environmental staph
236
Found on infected udder, dirty bedding; appears gray/white, doubgle zone of beta hemolysis; catalase/coagulase positive; Gram positive cocci clusters
Staph aureus
237
Catalase negative, CAMP test negative; Gram positive cocci chains
Environmental strep
238
Found on cow's udder; contagious; beta hemolysis; catalse negative, CAMP positive; gram postive cocci chains
S. agalactiae
239
Large, gray and round, mucoid, occasional beta hemolysis; round pink colonies with pink precipitate (MacConkey agar); catalase negative; gram negative rods in chains
E. coli
240
Also known as coliforms; large, gray mucoid, occasional beta hemolysis; Round pink colonies that look like fish eyes (MacConkey agar); catalase negative; gram negative rods in chains
Klebsiella
241
Not as common pathogens in milk:
Yeast, Prothetica, Mycoplasma bovis (contagious)
242
Can be caused by penicillin treatment; looks like staph; catalase positive; gram positive buds
yeast
243
Incubation time of yeast
48 hours
244
Considered to contaminate; spread through milking procedures; cow's milk will be "clinical"; look like wax droplets on agar plate; catalase positive; large gram positive ovals
Prototheca
245
Cows must be isolated for life; source of infection is cows with URIs; requires routine screening of bulk tank and milk strings to identify
M. bovis
246
Most common bacteria found in bulk tanks
E. coli
247
Used to identify cows with asymptomatic mastitis
Somatic cell counts
248
An increase in leukocytes causes elevated \_\_\_\_
SCC
249
Bulk tank SCC should be between
150,000 cells/ml to 200,000 cells/ml
250
Causes bumble foot in avians
Staphylococcus
251
Seen in food poisoning, skin infections and post surgical infections
Staphylococcus
252
Associated with Lancefield groups. Do not form endospores, aerobic, purple cocci in chains; grow best on blood agars
Streptococcus
253
Strep pyogenes
sore throat in people
254
Strep agalactiae
Major cause of bovine mastitis
255
Srep disgalactiae
Minor cause of mastitis
256
Strep equi
Strangles in horses
257
Strep zooepidemicus
Genital infection, wound infection
258
Strep fecalis, strep equismilis
Urinary infections, Infection in young pigs
259
Strep duran, strep suis
Diarrhea in foals, cervical lymphadentitis in pigs
260
It is important NOT to culture this organism due to anthrax
Bacillus
261
Aerobic, non-motile, gram positive bacilli
Bacillus
262
Bacillus spore can live up to ____ years
40 years
263
Anaerobic, gram positive bacilli; spore forming; invasive and noninvasive
Clostridium
264
Aerobic, motile, gram positive bacilli, transmitted in soil, feces, genital secretions and moldy hay
Listeria
265
Most prevalent during summer months as it is spread by house flies
Erysipelothrix
266
Gram Negative Facultative Anaerobic Bacilli
E. coli, Salmonella, Klebsiella, Pasteurella, Hemophilus, Actinobacillus
267
Ferment lactose with gas production
E. coli
268
2 forms of Salmonella infections
Enteric and Septic
269
Stain is concentrated on ends of rods, 2 major species important in vet med
Pasteurella
270
Two important forms of pasteurella
Pastuerella multocida. hemolytic
271
Snuffles in rabbits, Fowl cholera, cattle pneumonia, normal flora in cats/dogs mouths
Pasteurella multocida
272
Shipping fever in cattle, pneumonia, associated with stress
Pasteurella hemolytic
273
Infection thromboembolic meningoencephalitis in cattle, Glasser's disease in young pigs
Hemophilus
274
Wooden tongue in cattle, septicemia, purulent infection of joints and kidneys
Actinobacillus
275
Slightly curved or straight rods; cigar shaped rods; Blue-green pigment with fruity odor
Pseudomonas
276
Brucella, Bordetella, Francisella are all what kind of bacteria?
Gram negative aerobic bacilli
277
Tularemia in rabbits sheep and wild animals spread through wood ticks and contaminated food and water
Francisella
278
Gram negative cocci responsible for bovine KCS (pink eye)
Moraxella
279
Bacillus with beaded appearance, calf diptheria, foor rot, liver abcesses
Fusobacterium
280
Contagious foot rot in sheep
Bacteroides
281
True venereal disease; slender curved rods or spiral commas; spontaneous abortion in cattle, hemorrhagic enteritis, swine dysentery
Campylobacter
282
Lumpy jaw in cattle, pleuritis in dogs, mastitis in sows. Yellow sulfer like granules
Actinomyces
283
Acid fast positive; Gram postive rods; systemic and local infection in dogs and cats and mastitis in cattle
Nocardia
284
Johne's disease, chronic disease with lesion in lungs and lymph nodes
Mycobacterium
285
Mode of transmission may be Congenital via umbilical vein
Mycobacterium
286
Smallest free living cells
Mycoplasma
287
Tightly coiled spiral rods, transmitted in urine
Leptospira
288
Flagella, cause lyme disease and borreliosis in birds
Borrelia
289
Intracellular bacteria associated with RMSF, Q fever in humans, and mastitis
Rickettsia
290
Intracellular bacteria causing psittacosis in birds, abortion in ewes, and diarrhea in calves with inadequate colostrum
Chlamydia
291
All birds entering the US must be quarantines for _____ days due to this disease
30-45 days, Chlamydia
