Clin Mic Flashcards

(72 cards)

1
Q

First morning urine specimens are for?

A
  • orthostatic proteinuria
  • PT
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2
Q

Catheterized urine specimens are for?

A
  • cultures
  • routine urinalysis
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3
Q

Urine specimens that can provide quantitative results

A

24-hour

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4
Q

Drug screening should follow what requirements?

A

Chain of custody

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5
Q

PRESERVATION OF URINE SPECIMENS

should be tested within —- and if not, should be?

A

Tested within 2 HRS and if not, REFRIGERATE

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6
Q

basic structural and functional unit of the kidney

A

Nephron

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7
Q

Urine formation (in order)

A

Glomerulus > PCT > loop of Henle > DCT > CD

Strasinger:
Glomerulus - Bowman’s - PCT - loop of Henle - DCT - CD

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8
Q

Renal blood flow (in order)

A
  1. Renal artery (blood in)
  2. Afferent arteriole
  3. Peritubular capillaries
  4. Vasa recta
  5. Efferent arteriole
  6. Renal artery (blood out)
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9
Q

The gold standard clearance test in glomerular filtration.

A

Inulin clearance

Most common: creatinine clearance

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10
Q

Ideal sample for routine UA

A

First morning

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11
Q

Reagent/chemical used to lyse RBC and enhance the morphology of WBC

A

Acetic acid

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12
Q

Major constituent of cast and mucus threads

A

Uromodulin

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13
Q

Also known as renal failure cast

A

Broad cast

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14
Q

Crystals seen in ethylene glycol poisoning

A

Calcium oxalate

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15
Q

Give the principle and positive color of GLUCOSE in reagent strip

A

REAGENT STRIP
Principle: double sequential enzyme
(+) color: GREEN to BROWN

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16
Q

Change of unpreserved urine (INCREASE)

A
  • pH
  • bacteria
  • odor
  • nitrate
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17
Q

Change of unpreserved urine (INCREASE)

A
  • pH
  • bacteria
  • odor
  • nitrate
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18
Q

Change of unpreserved urine (DECREASE)

A

Glucose
Ketones
C,arity
Bilirubin
Urobilinogen
RBC, WBC cast

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19
Q

Confirmatory test for phenylketonuria

A

Guthrie bacterial inhibition test

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20
Q

Confirmatory test for phenylketonuria

A

Guthrie bacterial inhibition test

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21
Q

MALTESE CROSS formation on polarizing microscope

A

starch granules

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22
Q

MALTESE CROSS formation on polarizing microscope

A

starch granules

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23
Q

Sweaty foot odor in urine refers to what disease?

A

Isovaleric acidemia

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24
Q

Screening test for porphyrias that detects D-ALA and porphobilinogen

A

Ehrlich’s reaction test

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25
Screening test for porphyrias that detects D-ALA and porphobilinogen
Ehrlich’s reaction test
26
Most common parasite due to fecal contaminant in urine
E. vermicularis
27
Chemical compound responsible for the yellow color of urine
Urochrome
28
enumerate the parasites that can be seen in urine
- T. vaginalis - S. haematobium - E. vermicularis (fecal contamination)
29
differentiate glitter cells and clue cells
- **GLITTER** CELLS - *swollen neutrophils* - **CLUE** CELLS - *squamous epithelial cells* covered with G. vaginalis
30
largest cells in the urine sediment
squamous cells
31
# reagent strip this should be read 2 minutes after urine exposure
leukocyte esterase
32
major protein in mucus
Tamm-Horsfall (uromodulin) protein | **casts** are also composed of Tamm-Horsfall protein
33
enumerate the *normal* crystals seen in **acidic** urine
- Uric acid crystals - Amorphous urates - Calcium oxalate (also in alkaline urine)
34
enumerate the *normal* crystals seen in **alkaline** urine
- triple phosphate - amorphous phosphate - calcium carbonate - ammonium biurate
35
enumerate the *abnormal* crystals seen in **alkaline** urine
- cystine - cholesterol - tyrosine - leucine - bilirubin - sulfonamide - ampicillin
36
# crystals yellow-brown, flat-sided rhombic plates wedges, and rosettes | CS: chemotherapy patients, Lesch-Nyhan disease
URIC ACID *normal crystals in acidic urine*
37
# crystals oval or dumbbell shaped calcium oxalate | calcium oxalate crystals may be seen in --- urine
**monohydrate form** | seen in ALKALINE urine
38
# crystals envelope shaped calcium oxalate that indicates renal calculi
**dihydrate form**
39
# crystals coffin-lid shaped | associated with vv high pH and bacteria
TRIPLE PHOSPHATE *normal crystals in alkaline urine*
40
# crystals produce a white precipitate after refrigeration
amorphous phosphate
41
# crystals dumbbell and spherical shapes
CALCIUM CARBONATE *normal crystals in alkaline urine*
42
# crystals yellow-brown thorny apple-shaped | seen in old specimens with bacteria
AMMONIUM BIURATE *normal crystals in alkaline urine*
43
# crystals hexagonal flat plates
cystine
44
# crystals rectangular plates with notched corners | CS: nephrotic syndome
cholesterol
45
# crystals yellow **needle-shaped** forms in clusters or rosettes | CS: severe liver disease
tyrosine
46
# crystals yellow-brown spheres with concentric circles | CS: severe liver disease
leucine
47
# crystals bright yellow **clumped needles** and granules | CS: liver damage often from viral infections
bilirubin
48
# crystals needle, rosette, and rhombic shapes
sulfonamide | CS: patients taking sulfonamide medications
49
# crystals colorless needles that form clumps
ampicillin | CS: patients taking ampicillin medications
50
enumerate the artifacts in urine | what is the source of error?
- starch granules - oil droplets - air bubbles - pollen grains - fibers | RED BLOOD CELLS
51
nephrons that remove waste products and reabsorb nutrients | location: **cortex** of the kidney
cortical nephrons
52
nephrons that concentrate the urine | location: extend into the **medulla** of the kidney
juxtaglomerular nephrons
53
enumerate the process of renal blood flow
1. renal artery 2. afferent arteriole 3. efferent arteriole 4. PCT 5. vasa recta/loop of henle 6. DCT 7. renal vein
54
# normal ranges normal **renal** blood flow normal **plasma** flow
**renal** - 1200 mL/min **plasma** - 700 mL/min
55
# normal ranges pH | pH that indicates **old specimen**
4.5 - 8.0 | **9.0** - old specimen
56
# GFR type of specimen for creatinine clearance
24-hour (timed) | calculated GFR do **not require** timed urine specimen
57
primary tests for renal tubular reabsorption
serum and urine osmolarity
58
# CSF enumerate the three tube distribution
T1 = **chemistry/immunology** T2 = **microbiology** T3 = **hematology**
59
# CSF - three tube distribution tube that is least affected by blood or bacteria contamination
**tube 1** for immunology/chemistry
60
# CSF - three tube distribution tube less contamination of cell count from the puncture
**tube 3** for hematology
61
# CSF - four tube distribution tube that provides a comparison between the cells from the puncture with the cells in the fourth tube collected
**tube 1** for hema
62
# CSF - four tube distribution tube has less chance of outside contamination
**tube 3** for microbio
63
# CSF - four tube distribution the tube that the results compared with those of tube 1 for possible outside interference from the tap
**tube 4** for hema
64
# CSF enumerate the 4 tube distribution
1 for **hema** 2 for **chem** 3 for **microbio** 4 for **hema**
65
# semen how many days of abstinence needed for the collection?
2-3 days but not more than 5 days
66
# semen **NORMAL** - appearance - liquefaction - volume - viscosity - pH - concentration
- appearance = **gray-white, translucent** - liquefaction = **30-60 mins** - volume = **2-5 mL** - viscosity = **pours in droplets** - pH = **7.2 - 8.0** - concentration = **>20 million/mL**
67
# semen components provides substances for coagulation and liquifaction
prostate fluid
68
enumerate the composition of semen (w/ percentage)
- spermatozoa = 5% - seminal fluid = 60-70% - prostate fluid = 20-30% - bulbourethral glands = 5%
69
# semen components provides alkaline mucus to neutralize the acidity of prostate fluid and the vagina | provides nutrients and fructose for sperm energy?
bulbourethral gland fluid | **seminal fluid**
70
specimen used for screening for colorectal cancer
occult blood
71
enumerate the causes of nonpathologic turbidity
- squamous epithelial cells - mucus - amorphous phosphates, carbonates, and urates - semen - feces - radiographic contrast media - powder and creams
72
enumerate the causes of pathologic turbidity
- RBCs - WBCs - yeast - urothelial and renal tubular epithelial cells - abnormal crystals - lipids (milky)