Clinical Flashcards

(171 cards)

1
Q

Which therapist trait is related to most successful therapy outcome

A

empathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Treatment for chronic pain

A

hypnotherapy
CBT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Mental disorder most consistently linked with genetic factors

A

bipolar I (65-80% for mz twins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Parallel process in supervision

A

When therapist feels and acts towards supervisor like the patient acts to the therapist (process of supervision is paralleling the process of therapy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Projective identification

A

involves both loving and hateful feelings being transferred from the client into the therapist in an unconscious effort to evoke empathy and understanding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Acting out (psychoanalysis)

A

patient acting out on transference feelings as opposed to talking about transference in session

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Factitious disorder

A

characterized by intentional feigning symptoms or creating a disorder, motivation to be in sick role (not motivated by external gains)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Malingering

A

feigning or creating symptoms for secondary gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Key symptoms of schizoaffective disorder

A

Concurrent schizophrenia symptoms with major mood episode, with delusions/hallucinations also present without mood symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

primary prevention

A

preventing onset of disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

secondary prevention

A

early identification and prompt treatment of disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

tertiary prevention

A

reducing residual effects or optimizing functioning of patients with chronic condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Essential features for autism diagnosis

A

persistent deficits in social communication and interaction, and restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

According to Howard’s meta-analytic psychotherapy outcome research: __% of patients demonstrate measurable improvement in 6 months; __% by end of 8 sessions

A

75% of patients demonstrate measurable improvement in 6 months; 50% by end of 8 sessions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Most effective treatment for older adults with paranoia?

A

Neuroleptics/antipsychotics and managing the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Signs of opioid intoxication

A

pupillary constriction,
drowsiness,
slurred speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Substances which cause hallucinations during withdrawal

A

alcohol,
sedatives,
hypnotics, and
anxiolytics
withdrawal can be fatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Symptoms of amphetamine withdrawal

A

dysphoria,
fatigue,
unpleasant dreams,
increased appetite,
psychomotor agitation or retardation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Symptoms of opioid withdrawal

A

flu-like symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Jungian definition of transference

A

part of the personal or collective unconscious that is projected out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

James-Lange theory (of emotions)

A

emotions result from perceiving bodily reactions or responses (e.g., notice heart pounding, assume you are anxious)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cannon-Bard theory

A

emotions and bodily responses occur simultaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Schacter’s two-factor theory (of emotion)

A

emotion results from both internal information and external information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Selye’s general adaptation syndrome

A

a model or response to severe stress consisting of three stages (alarm, resistance, exhaustion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Concordance rates for monozygotic and dizygotic twins for schizophrenia
MZ=50% DZ=10-15%
26
Concordance rates for monozygotic and dizygotic twins for bipolar disorder
MZ=80% DZ=20-25%
27
Sleep changes related to MDD
Decreased REM latency, reduced slow-wave (stage 3-4) sleep, prolonged sleep latency, increased REM density (more rapid eye movements)
28
Most common type of dyslexia
phonological dyslexia (aka dysphonic, dysphonetic, auditory dyslexia) - inability to sound out words
29
Symptoms of neurocognitive disorder with Lewey bodies
fluctuating cognition that involves changes in attention and executive functions recurrent and detailed visual hallucinations spontaneous features of parkinsonism
30
Perseverative, stereotyped, or compulsive/ritualistic behavior is a diagnostic criterion for _______neurocognitive disorder.
frontotemporal
31
Relation between stimulant medication for ADHD and children and SUD later in life
stimulant use does not increase nor decrease risk for SUD some evidence that stimulant treatment at younger ages and higher dose less likely to develop SUD than those who started stimulants at older ages and lower doses
32
According to Moffitt, life-course persistent antisocial behavior is due to ______, where as adolescence-limited antisocial behavior is explained by ________.
neuropsychological vulnerabilities and an adverse social environment a maturity gap
33
Role of dopamine in schizophrenia: DA _____ in subcortical regions of brain causes ______ symptoms; DA _____ in cortical regions causes _____ symptoms
DA hyperactivity.... positive symptoms (subcortex) DA hypoactivity... negative symptoms (cortex)
34
Medication treatment for Tourette's and other tic disorders (med class, neurotransmitter affected)
anti-psychotics block dopamine receptors
35
Peripartum depression rates according to DSM vs other estimates
DSM: 3-6% others: 10-20%
36
Psychogenic nonepileptic seizures (PNES) are best detected using which imaging technique?
Video electroencephalography (vEEG)
37
Trauma-focused CBT used to treat _______
children/adolescents with sexual trauma or other trauma
38
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is categorized in the DSM-5 as a neurocognitive disorder due to prion disease. It’s caused by ________ that has a ____ latency period; deterioration in functioning is _____.
a slow-acting virus long rapid
39
Externalizing the problem is a core strategy of _______ and involves “reframing the problem from an internal deficiency or pathological condition in the individual to an objectified external and unwelcome narrative with a will of its own to dominate their lives”
narrative family therapy
40
Meichenbaum’s (1977) self-instructional training to help impulsive children control their behaviors while completing certain tasks involves five steps:
cognitive modeling, overt external guidance, overt self-guidance, faded overt self-guidance covert self-instruction
41
A primary goal of _______ family therapy is to disrupt destructive family games (“dirty games”) that involve deceit and power struggles and lead to and maintain symptoms.
Milan systemic
42
Helms’s White racial identity development model distinguishes between six stages (statuses):
(in order) contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion-emersion, and autonomy
43
3 phases of stress inoculation training (SIT)
conceptualization, skill acquisition and rehearsal
44
Boyd-Franklin developed the _________ family therapy specifically for African American families. It consists of two main axes: Axis I consists of ____, while Axis II consists of ____.
-multisystems model of -the components of the treatment process (e.g., joining, assessing, restructuring) -the various levels at which the components can be applied (e.g., individual, family, nonblood kin, friends, church, community)
45
Nonpharmacological evidence-based treatment for autism
early intensive behavioral intervention (EIBI)
46
Gender ratio of ADHD in adults
1.6 males : 1 females
47
Up to __% of school-age children with ADHD continue to meet the diagnostic criteria for the disorder in adolescence, and up to __% continue to do so into adulthood
80% 30%
48
Neurotransmitters implicated in ADHD
dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin
49
Criteria for Tourette's
1+ vocal tic multiple motor tics persisted more than one year onset before 18
50
Typical age of onset of tics
4-6 years old
51
Medication treatment for tic disorders (class)
antipsychotics
52
3 components of Beck's cognitive triad
negative beliefs about self, the world, and the future
53
Self-instructional training (Meichenbaum, 1977) was initially developed to teach ______ skills to ______.
problem-solving children with high levels of impulsivity
54
5 stages of Self-Instructional Therapy (Meichenbaum)
Cognitive Modeling Overt External Guidance Overt Self-Guidance Faded Overt Guidance Covert Self-Instruction
55
4 skills taught in Self-instructional training
-identifying the nature of the task -focusing attention on the task and the behaviors needed to complete it -providing self-reinforcement that sustains appropriate behavior -evaluating performance and correcting errors
56
3 phases of stress inoculation training (Meichenbaum)
conceptualization/education skills acquisition and consolidation application and follow-through
57
Six core processes of ACT (hexaflex)
-(Experiential) acceptance -(Cognitive) defusion -Being present/Contact with the present moment -(Awareness of) self-as-context -Values (-based actions) -Committed action
58
Format of mindfulness-based stress reduction (MBSR)
eight-session group program
59
mindfulness-based stress reduction (MBSR) is used to treat
stress, pain, and illness
60
MBCT was originally designed to treat ____.
Recurrent Depression
61
According to Holzel, what 4 mechanisms are responsible for the effectiveness of mindfulness-based interventions?
-attention regulation -emotion regulation -body awareness (awareness of one's internal states) -decentering (reperceiving; the ability to separate oneself from one's thoughts and emotions)
62
Cognitive therapy for suicide prevention (CT-SP) was designed for _____. Brief cognitive-behavioral therapy for suicide prevention (BCBT) was designed for ____. Cognitive-behavioral therapy for suicide prevention (CBT-SP) was developed for _____.
-adults who recently attempted suicide -active-duty members of the military -adolescents and combines strategies of CBT and dialectical behavior therapy
63
Three phases of cognitive therapy for suicide prevention (CT-SP) and brief cognitive-behavioral therapy for suicide prevention (BCBT) target ___, ____, and ____.
emotion regulation cognitive flexibility relapse prevention
64
Criteria for Brief Psychotic Disorder
1 of 3 symptoms below present for more than 1 day but less than 1 month -delusions -hallucinations -disorganized speech -(grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior also possible)
65
Criteria for schizophreniform disorder
at least 2 of 5 symptoms below (1 must be of first 3 listed) for more than 1 month, but less than 6 months -delusions -hallucinations -disorganized speech -also: grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior -negative symptoms
66
Criteria for schizophrenia
an active phase that lasts for at least one month and includes at least two of five characteristic symptoms, with at least one symptom being -delusions, -hallucinations, or -disorganized speech. The other two characteristic symptoms are -grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior -negative symptoms There must also be continuous signs of the disorder for at least six months that may include prodromal and/or residual phases in addition to the required active phase. Prodromal and residual phases consist of two or more characteristic symptoms in an attenuated form or negative symptoms only.
67
Concordance rates of schizophrenia: Parent Bio sib Child of one parent with schizophrenia Dizygotic twin Child of two parents with schizophrenia Monozygotic twin
Parent 6% Biological sibling 9% Child of one parent with schizophrenia 13% Dizygotic (fraternal) twin 17% Child of two parents with schizophrenia 46% Monozygotic (identical) twin 48%
68
Over half of individuals with schizophrenia also meet criteria for ______
Tobacco Use Disorder
69
Onset of schizophrenia symptoms tends to occur ___ for men and ___ for women
in early-mid twenties for men late twenties for women
70
Factors associated with better prognosis for schizophrenia
-female gender -acute and late symptom onset -comorbid mood symptoms -predominantly positive symptoms -precipitating factors -family history of mood disorder -good premorbid adjustment
71
"Immigrant paradox" of psychological disorders (define, and identify disorders)
newly arrived immigrants have better health outcomes than much more acculturated immigrants (with longer US residence) or even US born natives of the same ethnicity -schizophrenia, alcohol use disorder
72
Western vs non-Western differences in schizophrenia
non-Westerners are more likely to experience an acute onset of symptoms, a shorter course, and a higher rate of remission
73
Psychosocial treatments for schizophrenia
assertive community treatment cognitive-behavior therapy for psychosis cognitive remediation for schizophrenia family psychoeducation social skills training supported employment acceptance and commitment therapy.
74
Criteria for schizoaffective disorder
concurrent symptoms of schizophrenia and a major depressive or manic episode for most of the duration of the illness, but with the presence of delusions or hallucinations for two or more weeks without mood symptoms.
75
Criteria for delusional disorder
(a) the person have one or more delusions for a duration of at least one month and (b) the person’s overall functioning has not been markedly impaired except for any direct effects of the delusion.
76
5 types of delusions
erotomanic grandiose persecutory jealous somatic
77
Symptoms of tourettes have been linked to abnormalities in which brain area
basal ganglia
78
Which brain area is responsible for procedural memories?
cerebellum
79
Severe damage to the ________ is often fatal because of its role in the regulation of respiration and cardiovascular functioning.
medulla oblongata
80
Neuroimaging studies have linked ADHD to a:
smaller-than-normal prefrontal cortex.
81
The most effective intervention for children with childhood-onset fluency disorder is likely to be which of the following?
habit reversal training
82
Gestalt therapy techniques
Paradoxical change (need for self-acceptance) "Here" and "now" Empty chair technique/role plays Exaggeration technique (ask pt to exaggerate a behavior or emotion) "I" statements Locating emotion in the body
83
Key concepts in Gestalt therapy
Experience influences perception Context matters Focus on the present Working through pain Self-awareness/experiential exercises
84
Gestalt therapy: contact boundaries and modifications to contact
contact boundaries limit how fully they experience themselves, others, and the world modifications to contact interrupt normal developmental processes and person gets stuck into fixed beliefs about themselves, others, and world, limiting their ability to experience contact
85
Gestalt therapy: polarity continuums to modify contact
(Both extremes cause problems) Retroflection - Impulsiveness Deflection - Reception Desensitization - Sensitivity Confluence - Withdrawal Egotism - Spontaneity Projection - Ownership Introjection - Rejection
86
Beck's model of "suicide mode" is activated by _____ (4 components)
Cognitive Affective Motivational Behavioral
87
Primary goal of CBT-SP
Deactivate the suicide mode, replace with more adaptive mode that promotes desire to live
88
Howard's model for improvement in therapy (3 phases)
remoralization (increased hopefulness) remediation (of symptoms) rehabilitation
89
Helm's white racial identity development model (6 stages/statuses)
CONTACT - oblivious to racism DISINTEGRATION - not acknowledging racial oppression while witnessing it; conscious of their whiteness; dissonance between own group and humanism REINTEGRATION - resolution of dissonance moves in the direction of dominant ideology; a regression; idealization of whiteness and intolerance of minorities PSEUDO-INDEPENDENCE - painful/insightful event jars person from reintegration; interaction with minority individuals based on how "similar" they are; understanding of privilege tends to be an intellectual exercise IMMERSION-EMERSION - personal exploration of self as a racial being; increasing willingness to confront one's own biases and privilege AUTONOMY - increasing awareness of one's whiteness, acceptance of one's role in perpetuating racism, renewed determination to abandon white entitlement; development of a non-racist white identity;
90
Multisystemic therapy is used to treat _____
families with an adolescent with antisocial tendencies at risk for out-of-home placement; also used for adolescents with serious psychiatric disturbance, substance use, or history of child maltreatment
91
Multidimensional family therapy is used to treat
families that include a member who is 11 to 21 years old and has a substance use disorder and comorbid internalizing or externalizing symptoms
92
Family-focused therapy is used to treat
families with a member who has bipolar disorder It is based on recognition that high levels of criticism, hostility, and emotional overinvolvement (i.e., high expressed emotion) by family members can trigger relapse in the family member with this disorder.
93
Transference-focused psychotherapy is used to treat _____.
borderline and other personality disorders highly structured, twice-weekly modified psychodynamic treatment based on Otto F. Kernberg's object relations model of borderline personality disorder
94
According to Carl Rogers personality theory, problems are due to ______, which means ____.
Incongruence discrepancy between a person's sense of self and their experience (occurs due to conditions of worth)
95
Research has found that culturally competent interventions for members of racial and ethnic minority groups are more effective for ____ than ____.
Adults Children & adolescents
96
Yalom's five stages of group therapy
Forming/orientation Storming/transition Norming/cohesiveness Working/performing Adjourning/termination
97
Three types of microaggressions (Sue)
microinvalidation microinsult microassault (closest to "old-fashioned racism")
98
Microassault (Sue)
racial derogation characterized primarily by a verbal or nonverbal attack meant to hurt the intended victim through name-calling, avoidant behavior, or purposeful discriminatory actions
99
Microinsult
communications that convey rudeness and insensitivity and demean a person’s racial heritage or identity. Microinsults represent subtle snubs, frequently unknown to the perpetrator, but clearly convey a hidden insulting message to the recipient of color
100
Microinvalidation
communications that exclude, negate, or nullify the psychological thoughts, feelings, or experiential reality of a person of color.
101
4 stages of Adlerian therapy
creating a relationship assessment insight reorientation.
102
The basic principle of Adlerian theory
humans are social beings and therefore all behavior is socially embedded and has social meaning. Adler emphasized the importance of relationships and being connected to others, including the larger community in which people reside.
103
What drive did Adler believe was the motivating force behind human behaviors, emotions, and thoughts?
every person has a sense of inferiority. From childhood, people work toward overcoming this inferiority by "striving for superiority."
104
Seller et al.’s (1998) multidimensional model of racial identity proposes that there are four dimensions of African American identity _____.
SALIENCE (affected by current situation and centrality of race to that person; self-definition) CENTRALITY (of race in individual's self concept; self-definition) REGARD (a person's affective and evaluative judgment of their race; has private (how they view blacks) and public (how they believe others view blacks) dimensions; qualitative meaning of being black) IDEOLOGY (associated with the racial identity; beliefs about the ways that Blacks should act; qualitative meaning of being black)
105
Sellers 4 identities of racial ideology
NATIONALIST philosophy‚ characterized by a viewpoint that emphasizes the uniqueness of being of African descent; OPPRESSED MINORITY philosophy‚ characterized by a viewpoint that emphasizes the similarities between African Americans and other oppressed groups; ASSIMILATION philosophy‚ characterized by a viewpoint that emphasizes the similarities between African Americans and the rest of American society; HUMANIST philosophy‚ characterized by a viewpoint that emphasizes the commonalties amongst all humans.
106
the four stages of Troiden’s homosexual identity development model
SENSITIZATION - feeling different from peers, view of self as atypical (before puberty) IDENTITY CONFUSION - feelings of difference become more associated with sexuality (adolescence; most difficult stage) IDENTITY ASSUMPTION - less feelings of social and personal isolation; greater integration of self with sexual identity (early adulthood) COMMITMENT & INTEGRATION - Sexual identity becoming a way of being rather than only a description of one’s sexual behavior.
107
Practitioners of motivational interviewing use ________ to elicit change talk
evocative questions
108
three stages of the development of object constancy (Mahler)
normal autistic stage occurs during the first few weeks of life normal symbiotic stage separation-individuation stage.
109
What is narrative therapy? (White & Epston)
a style of therapy that helps people become—and embrace being—an expert in their own lives. In narrative therapy, there is an emphasis on the stories that you develop and carry with you through your life.
110
Techniques of narrative therapy
PUTTING TOGETHER YOUR NARRATIVE EXTERNALIZATION (create distance b/w person and their problems) DECONSTRUCTION (breaking down the story to help clarify the problem) UNIQUE OUTCOMES (helping pt realize their stories are not concrete and consider alternative stories)
111
Structural family therapy (Minuchin)
looks at the structure of a family unit and improves the interactions between family members
112
Techniques in Structural family therapy (Minuchin)
FAMILY MAPPING (each member maps family relationships, family rules, patterns of behavior, and family structure/hierarchies) JOINING BOUNDARY-MAKING ROLE-PLAY REFRAMING
113
Types of boundaries explored in structural family therapy (Minuchin)
diffuse (enmeshed) rigid (disengaged) clear
114
Detouring in family relationships
Detouring occurs when parents, rather than directing anger or criticism toward each other, focus the negativity on the child (overprotecting/fragilizing the child or blaming the child) and the parent-child conflict thus serves to distract from the tension in the marital subsystem. AKA scapegoating
115
Cross-generational coalitions in family relationships
when one or both parents trying to enlist the support of the child against the other parent
116
What is the role/outcome of positive vs negative feedback in systems theory?
-Positive feedback amplifies deviation from the status quo and promotes change -Negative feedback counteracts (attenuates) deviation and maintains the status quo.
117
Berry’s acculturation model distinguishes between four acculturation strategies (identify strategies; how are they defined?)
based on whether a member of a minority group accepts or rejects his/her own culture and the culture of the dominant (majority) group INTEGRATION - values both dominant and native culture ASSIMILATION - values dominant culture; devalues native culture SEPARATION - devalues dominant culture; values native culture MARGINALIZATION - devalues both dominant and native cultures
118
The transtheoretical model (Prochaska and DiClemente) is also known as the ____
stages of change model
119
Stages of the transtheoretical model
PRECONTEMPLATION - do not intend to take action in foreseeable future (~6 months); unaware that their behavior is problematic CONTEMPLATION - intending to start behavior change within next 6 months; recognize their behavior is problematic; ambivalence about making change PREPARATION - aka determination; ready to take action within next 30 days; start taking small steps toward change; believe change will be helpful ACTION - have recently changed their behavior (within last 6 months) and intend to keep moving forward with change MAINTENANCE - people have sustained behavior changes for more than 6 months and work to prevent relapse TERMINATION - people have no desire to return to previous unhealthy behaviors and are sure they will not relapse
120
Ten processes of behavior change (transtheoretical model)
CONSCIOUSNESS RAISING - Increasing awareness about the healthy behavior. DRAMATIC RELIEF - Emotional arousal about the health behavior, whether positive or negative arousal. SELF-REEVALUATION - Self reappraisal to realize the healthy behavior is part of who they want to be. ENVIRONMENTAL REEVALUATION - Social reappraisal to realize how their unhealthy behavior affects others. SOCIAL LIBERATION - Environmental opportunities that exist to show society is supportive of the healthy behavior. SELF-LIBERATION - Commitment to change behavior based on the belief that achievement of the healthy behavior is possible. HELPING RELATIONSHIPS - Finding supportive relationships that encourage the desired change. COUNTER-CONDITIONING - Substituting healthy behaviors and thoughts for unhealthy behaviors and thoughts. REINFORCEMENT MANAGEMENT - Rewarding the positive behavior and reducing the rewards that come from negative behavior. STIMULUS CONTROL - Re-engineering the environment to have reminders and cues that support and encourage the healthy behavior and remove those that encourage the unhealthy behavior.
121
Define autoplastic interventions
making changes in the individual so he/she can successfully adapt to the environment
122
Define alloplastic interventions
altering the environment to fit the needs, desires, or other attributes of the individual
123
Difference between emic vs etic
-Emic perspective believes that some behaviors are affected by culture and are, therefore, culture-specific. -Etic perspective believes that all behaviors are essentially unaffected by culture and are, therefore, universal (cross-cultural)
124
Define reality therapy (Glasser)
-based on choice theory, which views depression, anxiety, and other psychological symptoms as the result of choices a person makes in an attempt to satisfy his/her innate needs -focuses on realism, responsibility, and right-and-wrong, rather than symptoms of mental disorders -psychological pain is caused by ineffective attempts to satisfy one’s needs.
125
Cognitive therapy for suicide prevention (CT-SP) was designed for _____.
adults who recently attempted suicide
126
Brief cognitive-behavioral therapy for suicide prevention (BCBT) was designed for ____.
active-duty members of the military
127
Cognitive-behavioral therapy for suicide prevention (CBT-SP) was developed for _____.
adolescents and combines strategies of CBT and dialectical behavior therapy
128
Define object relations
how experience with another comes to be represented in the mind
129
Stages in Mahler's theory on ego development within the context of object relationships (2 precursors, 4 substages)
Precursors to differentiation: - normal autism (first few weeks of life) - normal symbiosis (starts in week 3-4) Separation-Individuation - differentiation (4-10 months) - practicing (6/10-18 months) - rapprochement (15-24 months) - consolidation of individuality / on the road to object constancy (24-36 months)
130
Five core elements of psychological well-being in Seligman’s PERMA model
POSITIVE EMOTIONS ENGAGEMENT RELATIONSHIPS MEANING ACCOMPLISHMENT
131
Define sublimation
channeling unacceptable impulses into socially desirable (and often admirable) activities.
132
Define displacement (Freud)
when a person shifts his/her impulses from an unacceptable target to a more acceptable or less threatening target.
133
Define reaction formation (Freud)
a defense mechanism in which a person unconsciously replaces an unwanted or anxiety-provoking impulse with its opposite, often expressed in an exaggerated or showy way
134
According to the transtheoretical model, which 3 factors contribute to a person’s motivation to change an undesirable behavior
decisional balance self-efficacy temptation.
135
What are the four problem areas that are targeted by practitioners of interpersonal psychotherapy?
interpersonal role disputes interpersonal role transitions interpersonal deficits grief.
136
Motivational interviewing incorporates concepts and procedures from which four theories?
Rogers’s person-centered therapy Prochaska and DiClemente’s transtheoretical model Bandura’s concept of self-efficacy Festinger’s notion of cognitive dissonance.
137
What is the intrapersonal aspect of differentiation according to Bowen?
a person’s ability to distinguish between his or her own feelings and thoughts.
138
What is the interpersonal aspect of differentiation according to Bowen?
the ability of a person to separate his or her own emotional and intellectual functioning from the functioning of others
139
What is the purpose of circular questioning in Milan's systemic family therapy?
asking each family member the same question to identify differences in perceptions about events and relationships and uncover family communication patterns.
140
What is the primary goal of primary goal of Satir’s conjoint family therapy?
increase congruent communication between family members
141
What is the goal of Bowen’s extended family systems therapy?
increase the differentiation of each family member.
142
What is the goal of Minuchin’s structural family therapy?
create clear boundaries between family members.
143
What is the goal of emotionally focused therapy?
heighten and restructure the emotional experiences of family members.
144
Styles of family communication according to Satir (4 dysfunctional styles, 1 functional style)
Dysfunctional -placating (self-effacing pleasers) -blaming (self-righteous accusers) -computing (emotionally detached, rigidly intellectual) -distracting (unfocused, unable to relate) Functional -congruent (expressive, responsible, genuine, articulate)
145
Who is strategic family therapy used to treat?
families with children or adolescents who are dealing with behavioral issues.
146
What is enactment in strategic family therapy?
family members are asked to talk with each other rather than to the therapist.
147
What is an ordeal in strategic family therapy?
an unpleasant task that a client is asked to perform whenever he or she engages in the undesirable behavior.
148
Based on the results of their meta-analysis of 475 psychotherapy outcome studies, Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) concluded that the average psychotherapy patient is better off than ____% of patients who do not receive psychotherapy.
80%
149
Four obstacles to providing effective mental health services, according to Caplan:
lack of: knowledge, skills, confidence objectivity
150
What is theme interference? (Caplan)
a type of transference in Consultee-centered case consultation that occurs when a past unresolved conflict related to a particular type of client or circumstance is evoked by and interferes with the consultee's current situation.
151
Research evaluating the effects of routine outcome monitoring (ROM) suggests that it:
decreases premature termination and client deterioration during therapy.
152
What is the difference between efficacy and effectiveness clinical research?
Efficacy research is conducted in well-controlled circumstances Effectiveness research is conducted in naturalistic clinical settings
153
Which has better internal validity, efficacy or effectiveness clinical research?
efficacy
154
Which has better external validity, efficacy or effectiveness research?
effectiveness
155
Norcross and Lambert (2011) concluded that _____ accounts for the greatest amount of variability in psychotherapy outcomes, specifically __% of variance
patient contributions 30%
156
Transdiagnostic treatments are used to treat ___.
Multiple disorders that are caused and maintained by similar core mechanisms.
157
Sue suggests that African Americans prefer a therapist who _____. They tend to prefer a _____ approach.
fosters an egalitarian therapist-client relationship. goal-oriented problem-solving approach
158
Communication styles according to Hall (context)
-High-context communication relies heavily on group understanding, nonverbal messages, and the context in which the communication occurs and is characteristic of several cultural minority groups. -Low-context communication relies on the verbal message, is independent of the context, and is characteristic of the White (mainstream) culture.
159
Who is best known for their work on White privilege and provided a list of examples of privileges that Whites take for granted.
Peggy McIntosh
160
4 types of worldview according to Sue, and which represents dominant white perspectives?
Based on Internal vs External judgments of loci of control and responsibility Internal locus of control/internal locus of responsibility (IC-IR) - characteristic of white, mainstream American culture EC-IR - marginalized individuals with internalized self-hate EC-ER - "learned helplessness" IC-ER - pride in one's racial identity; activism
161
Stages of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s R/CID Model
CONFORMITY - positive towards dominant, negative towards own DISSONANCE & APPRECIATING - question identity, appreciate own culture & existence of racism, shift from seeing dominant as all good RESISTANCE & IMMERSION - positive towards own; rejects dominant INTROSPECTION - questions costs of negativity toward dominant; notes that not all aspects of dominant and own are good or bad INTEGRATIVE AWARENESS - secure, confident sense of and pride in cultural identity; appreciating all diverse groups; recognize racism as societal illness
162
What are the five stages of Cross’s original Nigrescence Model?
PRE-ENCOUNTER (+dominant, -blackness; two forms: active, passive) ENCOUNTER (-dominant, reevaluate relationship between blacks and whites; substages: realization, decision) IMMERSION (-dominant, +black making use of dominant stereotypes, anger at blacks not black enough) & EMERSION (+multiple ways of being black; better able to control emotions and behavior when participating in dominant society) INTERNALIZATION (dissonance between old and new self is resolved; nuanced definition of blackness) INTERNALIZATION-COMMITMENT
163
Treatment for bulimia
CBT (most effective), IPT; pharmacotherapy can be helpful, but is not as effective as CBT
164
Exception questions
times when you didn't feel this way Used in solution focused therapy
165
Circular questions
make overt the overall dynamics and interactive patterns in the system, thereby reframing the problem for all participants without the therapist having to verbally provide a reframe; identify alternative options, think beyond available facts Used in Milan family therapy
166
Scaling questions
On a scale of 0-10.... used in solution focused therapy
167
Smith, Glass, and Miller’s (1980) meta-analysis of 475 psychotherapy outcome studies effect size
0.85 average patient who received therapy was better off than 80% of people who did not receive therapy
168
Most effective treatment for OCD
the combination of the tricyclic clomipramine or an SSRI and exposure with response prevention is more effective than either treatment alone.
169
Risk of tardive dyskinesia when taking an antipsychotic is greater for ___ and ____
Older adults women
170
Five types of boundary disturbances, according to Gestalt therapists:
boundary disturbances AKA "resistances" projection, retroflection (withholding of emotions, thoughts, and behavior and their redirection back onto the individual; protecting oneself), confluence (dissolving the contact boundary resulting in lack of differentiation from another, deflection (turning away from an emotional trigger to prevent full awareness), introjection (adopting the beliefs of another without evaluation)
171
Order in which self-conscious emotions emerge
18-24 months: embarrassment, envy/jealousy, empathy 30-36 months: pride, shame, guilt