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BOARD EXAM > CLINICAL CHEMISTRY > Flashcards

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY Flashcards

(125 cards)

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1
Q

in AAS, _____ interferes with calcium and _______ is used to inhibit it

A

phosphate

lanthanum

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2
Q

gold standard for calcium and magnesium measurement

A

lanthanum/stronium

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3
Q

turbidimetry

A

light blocked
based on concentration and size
uses spectrophotometry

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4
Q

nephelometry

A

light scattered
based on wavelength and size
nephelometer

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5
Q

why is the nephelometer more sensitive than the spectro

A

measures mg/dL

has photomultiplier tube

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6
Q

electrophoresis

A

migration of charged particles

most important initial diffrential ID of isoenzymes

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7
Q

buffer commonly used in electrophoresis

A

barbital (veronal)

pH 8.6

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8
Q

using barbitalin electrophoresis, the proteins are

A

negatively charged, thus move anodal

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9
Q

in proteins, acidic AA are ______ charged and basic AA are

A

positive

negative

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10
Q

most used supporting media in SPe

A

cellulose acetate

based on molecular size

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11
Q

supporting media that moves acccdg toelec charge

A

agarose gel

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12
Q

supporting media when used on lipoproteins and those with >15 bands

A

PAGE

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13
Q

isoelectric focusing

A

pH gradient
those with same size,but diff. charge
used to detect oligoclonal bandings
uses densitometer

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14
Q

stains used in isoelectric focusing

A

for proteins electrophoresis and enzymes: amido black, ponceau S

for lipoproteins: oil red o, sudan black, fat red 7B

for CSF proteins: coomasie blue

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15
Q

in SPE, this acts as the protein carrier

A

buffer

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16
Q

chromatography

A

separation

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17
Q

TLC

A

for drug testing

based on Rf value

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18
Q

distant of point application to the point of saan sya tumigil

A

retention factor

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19
Q

gold tandard for drug testting

A

GC-MS

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20
Q

gas chromato

A

separation of alcohols

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21
Q

mass spectrophotometry

A

paired with gas chrom

based on fragmentation

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22
Q

___ separates the substances while ____ allows ID of the substances truly present by comparison to a known fragmented pattern

A

GC

MS

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23
Q

fluormetry

A

light emiited with excitation by electromagnetic radiation

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24
Q

light sources of fluorometry

A

xenon

merucry arc

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25
2 monochromators in fluorometry
primary - isolates light | secondary - prvents incident light
26
____ effect due to pH, temp, extreme UV light
quenching
27
diff. bet. max wavelength, excitation and emitted fluorescence
stokes effect
28
chemiluminescence
light from chem rxn
29
potentionmetry
measure of diff in voltage & constant current
30
equation used in potentiometry
Nernst
31
reference electrodes used in potentiometry
saturated calomel silver-silver chloride glass electrode
32
ionic selectivity depends in the membrane brane composition
ISE
33
membrane used in ISE to measure Na
aluminum silicate
34
coulometry
amount of electricity | uses amperometer
35
method or principle used for chloride test and testing for cystic fibrosis
coulometry
36
______ is used to induce sweat and collect ______ sweat
pilocarpine | 75mg
37
law in coulometry
Faraday's
38
amperometry
measurement of current
39
polarography is used for
pO2, glucose
40
equation used in polarography
Ilkovic's
41
used to measure lead in mg/dL
anodic stripping voltametry
42
automated pipet that uses piston
air displacement
43
automated pipet that doesn't require tip
positive displacement
44
glass pipet for transferring
oswald folin
45
glass pipet for fractional something
serological
46
automation that can perform batch analysis
centrifugal analyzer
47
automation that can perform sequential testing and random access capability
discrete analyzer
48
the advantage of discreet over centrifugal analyer
random access capability
49
no exercise _______ before XT
at least 8 hrs | ideally 24hrs
50
blood collection before rising in the morning
basal state
51
px should be in stable position ______ before XT
10-20mins
52
XT after prolonged standing causes
false inc. potassium
53
XT after prolonged bed rest causes
false dec, albumin
54
effects of prolonged torniquet appli
hemocon | anaerobiosis
55
potassium increase by ____ with fist exercise
1mmol/L
56
the protein mainly affected by prolonged torniquet application
albumin
57
the one most affected by prolonged torniquet application
potassium
58
ammonia increases by ______ per cigar
100-200 ug/L
59
smoking prohibited at elast _______ before XT
2hrs
60
alcohol intake prohibited _______ before xT
24hrs
61
ano ung ayos ng mga affected ng prolonged torniquet
K > albumin > ammonia > cholr > TAG > lactate > Ca > enzymes
62
opiates increase
liver and pancreatic enzymes
63
_____ affects oxid-redox rxns
ascorbic acid
64
1st step in sx collection
patient ID
65
order of priority of XT sites
median > cephalic > basilic > wrist > dorsal hand > ankle
66
BP cuff as torniquet inflated @
60mmHg
67
skin cleanser in ethanol teesting
benzalkonium chlroide
68
bevel angle in XT
15-30
69
order of draw
yellow(SPS) > light blue (sodium citrate) > serum tubes > green > lav > gray
70
NaF and iodoacetate in gray tubes act as
antiglycolytic
71
filled after LBC because silica activate clotting
red and SST
72
TDM samples should not be collected in SST because
some gel absorb some drugs
73
common clot activators
thrombin silica diatonite
74
the gel in gold top is called
thixotropic gel
75
explain how thixotropic gel
sp.gr. of gel is between that of | serum (1.03) and PRBC (1.05)
76
corrective measures when collecting from IV
discard 2-5mL first
77
effect of 10% contam with 5% dextrose
glucose increased by >500mg/DL
78
antiacoag recommended for lacte test and ethanol tseting
NaF
79
lenght of lancet
1.75mm
80
depth of puncture in infants
81
depth of punture in adults
82
where to puncture in newborns
lateral and median heel
83
order of draw using microtubes
lav > tube w/ additive > nonadditive tube
84
initial and preffered site for arterialized capillary blood
earlobe
85
explain arterialization
warming the site of puncture to 39-42 oC
86
separation of blood should be done
87
NaF of _____ prevents glycolysis by preventing _____
2mgNaF/mL of blood | enolase
88
the enzyme most affected by hemolysis
LD
89
when is there visual hemolysis
starting at 20mg/dL of hgb
90
when does lipemia occur
>400 mg/dL
91
effects of increased centrifugation
inc. LD and K
92
anticoag action of oxalate
forms insoluble salt
93
anticoag action of fluorides
dissocation
94
best choice of anticoag for K measurement
heparin
95
anticoag not recommended for DNA testing
heparin
96
respinning of SSTs causes
false elev K
97
main promoter of gluconeogenesis na hormone
cortisol
98
hyperglycemic hormones
``` glucagon cortisols and corticosteroids catechols GH T3T4 ACT somatostatin ```
99
screening test for DM
FBS
100
FBS value for DM
>126mg/dL
101
in type1 DM, the ____ are destroyed
beta cells in pancreas
102
markers for multiple Abs for DM
GAD65 | IAA
103
recommedations for DM
> 45y/o checked every 3yrs
104
the early indicator of glomerular dysfunction assoc. w/ type 1 DM
microalbuminuria
105
clinical albuminuria when
>300 mg/dL
106
method for microalbuminuria test
random spot albumin-crea ratio
107
confirmatory test for DM
OGTT
108
when are preggies tested for GDM
24-28wks gestation
109
criteria for GDM
FBS >92 GCT >180 2hrOGTT > 153
110
fetal risk from GDM
RDS
111
antiepileptic drug that may cause DM
dilantin
112
glucose in WB is ______ than serum/plasma
15% lower
113
decrease of gluc at RT
7mg/dL/hr
114
decrease of gluc at 4oC
2mg/dL/hr
115
_______ is 60% of plasma glucose
CSF glucose
116
leukocytosis may lead to
excessive glycolyis
117
most common method for glucose
Nelson Somogyi
118
GOD measures ____ and uses _____
B-D-glucose | mutarotase
119
converts .glucose to B-D-glucose
mutarotase
120
the reference and most specific test for glucose
hexokinase
121
most specific rgt for glucose
G6PD
122
false decrease in GOD and hexokinase are caused by ____ and ____ respectively
ascorbic acid | hgb
123
best indicator of glucose homeostasis
FBS
124
test that evaluates only hypo and hyperglycemia
2hr PPBS
125
confirmatroy test for impaired fasting glucose
GTT

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