Clinical Chemistry: Maam Peewee Lecture Notes Flashcards

(491 cards)

1
Q

Base quantity and their based units

A

“LTM TALE”

Length = meter
Time = seconds
Mass = kilogram
Temperature = Kelvin
Amount of substance = mole
Luminosity = Candela
Electric Current = Ampere

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2
Q

All of the base quantities are expressed in based unit except for:

A

Mass —> kilogram

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3
Q

Enzyme assay base unit
KATAL= _______
International Unit = _______

A

KATAL = mol / L / sec
International Unit = umol / min / L

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4
Q

Enumerate the prefixes and their corresponding factors:

A

exa = ^18
peta = ^15
tera = ^12
giga = ^9
mega = ^6
kilo = ^3
hecto = ^2
deka = ^1
deci = ^ -1
centi = ^ -2
milli = ^ - 3
micro = ^ -6
nano = ^ -9
pico = ^ -12
femto = ^ -15
atto = ^ -18

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5
Q

Factor for prefix femto

A

10^-15

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6
Q

Factor for prefix mega

A

10^6

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7
Q

Factor for prefix milli

A

10^-3

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8
Q

Analytes with 1 as their conversion factor

A

“Bi CLOPS”

Bicarbonate
Chloride
Osmolality
Potassium
Sodium

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9
Q

Analytes with 10 as their conversion factor

A

“ HAT “

Hemoglobin
Albumin
Total Protein

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10
Q

Conversion factors of:
Glucose
Uric Acid
Ammonia
Magnesium

A

“GUAM”

Glucose = .0555
Uric Acid = .0595
Ammonia = .587
Magnesium = .5

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11
Q

Conversion factors of:
Thyroxine (T4)
Bilirubin
Folic Acid
Creatinine

A

“The Big Fat Cock”

Thyroxine (T4) = 12.9
Bilirubin = 17.1
Folic Acid = 2.27
Creatinine = 88.4

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12
Q

Conversion factor of:
Triglycerides
Cholesterol
BUN

A

Triglycerides = .0113
Cholesterol = .026
BUN = .357

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13
Q

Conversion factors of:
AST
Creatinine Clearance
Cortisol
Vit. B12
Iron
Calcium
Phosphorus

A

“ACC to VIC P”

AST= .0167
Creatinine Clearance = .0167
Cortisol = .0276
Vit. B12 = .0738
Iron = .179
Calcium = .25
Phosphorus = .323

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14
Q

Conversion factor of Albumin

A

10

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15
Q

Conversion factor of bilirubin

A

17.1

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16
Q

Conversion factor of BUN

A

0.357

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17
Q

Conversion factor of Chloride

A

1

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18
Q

Conversion factor of Cholesterol

A

0.026

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19
Q

Conversion factor of Creatinine

A

88.4

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20
Q

Conversion factor of Creatinine Clearance

A

0.0167

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21
Q

Conversion factor of Glucose

A

0.0555

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22
Q

Conversion factor of lithium, potassium, sodium

A

1

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23
Q

Conversion factor of Uric Acid

A

0.0595

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24
Q

BUN representation of urea measures the _____ content

A

Nitrogen

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25
BUN to Urea conversion factor
2.14
26
Urea to BUN conversion factor
0.467
27
Convert 5.5 g to mg
5,500 mg
28
Convert 555 mm to m
0.555
29
Grade of a particular chemical is dependent on the ______ of chemical
Purity
30
Grade of Purity of Analytic Chemicals is established by _______.
American Chemical Society (ACS)
31
Type of reagent suitable for most of analytical laboratory procedures, and second purest
Analytic Reagent
32
Put through additional purification steps —> extremely pure chemicals, and is the purest of the pure, and is for special procedures like HPLC (High-Performance Liquid Chromatography)
Ultrapure
33
Used for manufacture of drugs (medicine); sole criterion is should not be injurious to individuals; may be pure enough for used in medical (chemical) procedures; and is not based on the needs of the laboratory
United States Pharmacopeia (USP)
34
Type of analytic chemical used in manufacturing; should never be used in clinical laboratories
Technical or Commercial Grade
35
Grading system of analytic chemicals is established by ______.
International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC)
36
Grading A in the grading system by IUPAC
Atomic Weight Standard
37
Grading B in the grading system by IUPAC
Ultimate Standard
38
Grading C in the grading system by IUPAC
Primary Standard
39
Grading D in the grading system by IUPAC
Working Standard
40
Grading E in the grading system by IUPAC
Secondary substances
41
Most highly purified chemical or reagent that can be measured directly in order to produce of exact purity; tolerance level is 100 +/- .02 %; 99.98 % pure, but not applicable to laboratory
Primary Standards Reagent
42
Used in the laboratory, NIST certified standard materials in place of primary standards; it is utilized by manufacturers in order to produce calibrators and standard materials utilized in the laboratory
Standard Reference Material
43
Lower purity compared to primary standard
Secondary Standard
44
Grades of water - Highest; utilized in procedures that require maximum water purity like standard solution preparation, ultramicrochemical analyses measurements at nanogram or subnanogram, and tissue and cell cultures
Type I
45
Used for most laboratory methods; for quantitative and qualitative determinations in CC,, HEMA, MICRO, IMMUNOSERO and other chemical laboratory areas
Type II
46
Used for qualitative measurements only; most procedure in Urinalysis, PARA, and HISTO; and is used for washing glasswares
Type III
47
Parts er hundred or amount f solute per 100 total units of solution
Percent Solutions
48
Most common expression of concentration as to percent solution
Weight per volume (w/v)
49
Molarity Formula
M = mol of solute / L of solution
50
Molality Formula
m = moles of solute / kg of solution
51
Normality Formula
N = gram equivalent weights / Liter of solution
52
Pipets according to graduations or purpose
- Transfer Pipets: - Volumetric - Ostwald-folin - Pasteur - Automatic Pipet - Measuring Pipets: - Mohr - Serological
53
Pipets according to use or design
- To contain - To delver
54
Pipets according to drainage
- Blow out - Self-draining
55
Designed to dispense volume only and has one graduation
Transfer Pipets
56
Transfer pipet that has a highest degree of accuracy and precision, and the value is near the midway of stem and is self-draining
Volumetric
57
Pipet used for high-viscosity and a type of blow out pipet
Ostwald-Folin
58
Automatic pipet that uses piston commonly used in laboratory
Air displacement
59
Pipet used for carry over problems and requires rinsing and blotting in between samples / reagents
Positive displacement
60
Measuring pipet that has no graduations and is self-draining
Mohr
61
Measuring pipet that has a graduated tip and is a blow out pipet
Serological
62
Pipet that HOLDS a particular volume but DOES NOT DISPENSE EXACT VOLUME and it requires rinsing
To contain
63
Pipet that DISPENSES the exact volume and DOES NOT require rinsing
To deliver
64
Pipet that uses pipettol; last drop should be expelled; has 2 etched rings r 2 small continuous rings
Blow out pipet
65
Pipet in which contents drain by gravity ; no etched rings or markings; no need to expel
Self draining
66
In cleaning of glasswares, what do we use or pre-soaking?
soapy water or dilute bleach
67
Serves as decontamination process in cleaning glaswares
Pre-soaking
68
Used in Cleaning Glasswares
Acid Dichromate
69
Acid Dichromate contains
Potassium dichromate and Sulfuric acid (H2SO4) or nitric acid (HNO3)
70
Acid Dichromate contains
Potassium dichromate and Sulfuric acid (H2SO4) or nitric acid (HNO3)
71
In cleaning glasswares, what is used for final rinsing?
Type I or Type II water
72
Used for washing of glasswares
Type III water
73
What is used for sterilization of glasswares?
Dry heat oven with temp >140 C or 160-180 C; for 1.5 to 2 hrs
74
Utilized to separate components or substances via differences in density
Centrifuge
75
RPM ((Revolution per minute) is referred to as
Speed
76
Calibration of centrifuge / Checking for speed of RPM
Tachometer or Strobe light
77
How often is the Disinfection for Centrifuge
Weekly
78
How often is the checking of timer of centrifuge and what is used to check the timer
Monthly; Stopwatch
79
RCF (relative centrifugal force) is determined by
Nomogram
80
This centrifuge is not in motion when vertical, in motion when horizontal; capable of the speed of up to 3000 RPM; recommended for serum separator tubes; has high air friction and resistance which result to high heat generation
Horizontal Head or Swinging Bucket
81
Desk or bench type centrifuge; less air friction and resistance —> less heat regenerated —> prevent lysis and disintegration of sediment; angle of tubes: 25 - 50 degrees or 52 degrees centrifugal force : outward force; speed: 7000 rpm; most commonly used in the laboratory —> faster to separate sample
Fixed Angle / Angle Head
82
Reference method for lipoprotein analysis
Ultracentrifugation / Refrigerated Box
83
Reference method for protein synthesis
Electrophoresis
84
Reference method for lipoprotein analysis; highest speed —> very tight sediment; tubes are held at a fixed angle; refrigeration serves as an advantage: serves to decrease or counteract the heat, enhances separation of lipoproteins
Ultracentrifugation / Refrigerated Box
85
Ultracentrifugation tube (from top to bottom)
“C (si) V Laging Highblood” Chylomicrons VLDL LDL HDL
86
Lipoprotein referred to as the largest and the lightest
Chylomicrons
87
Lipoprotein referred to as the smallest but the heaviest
HDL
88
For the maintenance of centrifuge Disinfection: _____ by using _____ Checking for unusual vibrations, braking mechanisms and TIMER: ____ by using _____ Calibration: ____ using ____
Disinfection: Weekly by using 10% bleach or lysol Checking or unusual vibrations, braking mechanisms and timer: Monthly by using Stopwatch Calibration: Quarterly using Tachometer or Strobe Light
89
Centrifuge breakage hazard
Aerosol
90
Purpose of capping of tubes
Prevent aerosol and evaporation
91
Goal of Quality Management
To provide high quality services at low cost
92
A complete system of creating and following procedures and policies to aim for providing the most reliable patient lab results and to minimize errors in the pre-analytical , analytical, and post-analytical
Quality Assurance
93
Concept involving total/overall testing in the laboratory
Quality Assurance
94
An aspect of quality assurance that is used o assess the analytical phase of patient testing; it is under quality assurance and focuses on analytical phase
Quality Control
95
A step higher than quality assurance; it goes beyond monitoring and detecting errors seeks to achieve a new level of performance; addresses chronic problems in the laboratory
Quality Improvement
96
A concept or strategy used in Quality Improvement
Lean Six Sigma
97
Phases of Lean Six Sigma
“DMAIC” Define Measure Analyze Improve Control
98
Involves describing the Quality Improvement issues —> to address chronic problems
Define
99
Collecting data to measure he process; Measure by determining the difference between the current process and the desired process
Measure
100
Searches the root causes of inefficiencies in the process
Analyze
101
Piloting or implementing the process changes that seek to remove the identified root problems from analyze phase
Improve
102
Continues to measure the process and ensures that changes are maintained
Control
103
What are the 3 most common team roles and the 1 not common team role
3 most common - black belt - green belt - blue belt 1 not common - purple belt
104
Project coaches / leaders; they dedicate their 100% time
Black Belt
105
Project team members; they dedicate 20% of their time
Green belt
106
Project sponsors review the projects and encourage team members; mid-level and senior-level sponsors
Blue belt
107
Heads smaller scale improvement projects; duration is 1 week
Purple belt
108
Duration of full six sigma improvement project
6 to 8 months
109
This is applied to detect laboratory errors
Lean Six Sigma
110
Percentage of Pre-Analytical Errors
32 - 75 %
111
Percentage of Analytical Testing Errors
4 - 32 %
112
Percentage of Post-Analytical Errors
9 - 55 %
113
Performance improvement program; It’s goal is improvement by eliminating process variations (defects)
Six Sigma
114
It is anything that does not meet customer’s equirements; aka process variations
Defect
115
Strategy used in Six Sigma
DMAIC -define -measure -analyze -improve -control
116
The unit used for Six Sigma
DPMO ( defects per ion opportunities)
117
A system that reduces “waste” in the laboratory
Lean
118
Includes non-valued activities in the lab
Waste
119
2 strategies in Lean
5S & PDCA
120
5S stands for:
“SoSeShStSu” Sort Set in order Shine Standardize Sustain
121
PDCA stands for:
Plan Do Check Act
122
Pre-Analytical Errors
Test order Patient Identification Specimen Collection
123
Analytical Errors
Instrument Selection Assay validation Sample identification Laboratory staff competence Quality Control
124
Also known as Intralab; daily/short term; inside laboratory
Internal QC
125
Also known as Interlab ; monthly/long term ; outside or other laboratory
External QC
126
Post-Analytical Errors
Results Reports Px and Physician satisfaction TAT
127
Used in measuring central tendency
Mean, median and mode
128
It represents the true value
Central Tendency
129
It refers to the closeness to the true value
Accuracy
130
The average ; most commonly used
Mean
131
The middle value; mid-point in a given et of data
Median
132
The most frequently obtained value
Mode
133
Measuring Dispersion of Values
Range Standard Deviation Variance Coefficient of Variation
134
How close your values to one another
Precision
135
Simplest measure of dispersion
Range
136
Considered to be the indicator of precision
Standard Deviation
137
Merely a modification of Standard Deviation
Variance
138
Relative indicator of precision; expressed in percentage
Coefficient of Variation
139
Ideal CV is:
< 5 %
140
Normal distribution in Gaussian Curve
Mean=Median=Mode
141
The most commonly used interval is
+/- 2SD
142
Percentage of +/- 1SD that fall inside
68.3 %
143
Percentage of +/- 2SD that fall inside
95.5 %
144
Percentage of +/- 3SD that fall inside
99..7 %
145
Most commonly used significance —> p value:
5 % or 0.05
146
If the p value is < 0.05 it is considered as
Statistical Significance / Statistically Significant
147
If the p value is > 0.05 it is considered as
No statistical significance / Non-statistically significant
148
A significant difference between two means, and helps evaluate accuracy
T-test
149
A significant difference between two variance or standard deviations; helps evaluate precision
F-Test
150
Closeness to the true value
Accuracy
151
Closeness to a repeated value
Precision
152
Maintain accuracy and precision over an extended period of time
Reliability
153
Determining the ability of the method or machine to detect small quantities of the analyte
Analytical Sensitivity
154
Ability of the machine to detect the only analyte designed to detect or measure
Analytical specificity
155
Proportion of individuals with the disease
Diagnostic Sensitivity
156
Proportion of individuals without the disease
Diagnostic Specificity
157
Probability that a positive test indicates the presence of a disease
Positive Predictive Value
158
Probability that a negative test indicates the absence of a disease
Negative Predictive Value
159
It is also known as calibrator; A reagent or material of known concentration; Used for calibration of instruments
Standard
160
Material of known value that is analyzed with patient samples; It is treated like a patient sample —> it resembles patient sample; Used to determine the acceptability of the results
Control
161
Performed by laboratory personnel using controls of known values; Control reference values & MSDS from manufactureres
Internal Quality Control
162
Performed by laboratory personnel using specimens sent by another institution (NRL)
External Quality Control
163
Individuals necessary to establish a reference interval
120 - 700 individuals
164
Individuals necessary to verify a reference interval
20 individuals
165
QC chart in which you are to plot different control values
Levy-Jennings Chart
166
Determine plotted control value to detect or evaluate any violation
Westgard Multirule
167
If there is an outlier ____
Reject the run —> recalibrate —> rerun
168
X-axis
Abscissa or Horizontal axis Independent variables (time, age, gender)
169
Y-axis
Ordinate or Vertical axis Dependent variables
170
Sudden or abrupt change in the values; Values distribute themselves on the same side of the mean; Main cause: Improper Calibration of Instruments / Methodologies
Shift
171
A gradual deviation of control values that either increase or decrease; Values has either increasing or decreasing pattern; Main cause: deterioration of reagent
Trend
172
Random Errors
12S 13S R4S
173
Systematic Errors
22S 41S 10X
174
One control observation that exceed +/- 2SD
12S
175
One control exceeds 3SD
13S
176
Two consecutive values differ by more than 4SD
R4S
177
Two consecutive control observations fall more than 2SD on the same side of the mean
22S
178
Four consecutive control observations fall more than 1 SD away from the mean in the same direction
41S
179
Ten consecutive control observations are on the same side of the mean
10x
180
Error with no trend and occurs unpredictably; Does not recur; No pattern and occurs by chance
Random Error
181
Error seen as a trend that occurs predictably; Recurring error; Predictable because it has a pattern recognition
Systematic error
182
Color Blue in NFPA symbol
Health Hazard
183
Color Red in NFPA symbol
Fire Hazard
184
Color Yellow in NFPA symbol
Reactivity / Stability
185
Color White in NFPA symbol
Specific hazard
186
Health Hazard from 0-4
“No SHED” 0 - Normal material 1 - Slightly hazardous 2 - Hazardous 3 - Extreme danger 4 - Deadly
187
Fire Hazard from 0-4
0 - Will not burn 1 - Above 200 F 2 - Below 200 F 3 - Below 100 F 4 - Below 75 F
188
Reactivity or Stability from 0-4
“SUV in SM” 0 - Stable 1 - Unstable if heated 2 - Violent chemical change 3 - Shock and heat may detonate 4 - May detonate
189
The single most effective way to prevent the spread of infection
Handwashing
190
Handwashing should be done for at least
15 - 20 seconds
191
All patients should be considered as possible carriers of infection
Universal Precaution
192
All specimens are included even moist substances; Treat all as potentially infectious; Requires wearing of gloves (as its most important regulation); does not require handwashing
Body Substance Isolation (BSI)
193
Combination of Universal Precaution and BSI; requires the use of gloves and PPE
Standard Precaution
194
Different type of safety controls in laboratory according to Henry
Engineering Work Practices PPE
195
Different type of safety controls in laboratory according to WHO
“ESEAP” Elimination Substitution Engineering controls Administrative controls PPE
196
RACE stands for
Rescue Alarm Contain Evacuate / Exit / Extinguish
197
PASS stands for
Pull Aim Squeeze Sweep
198
Class A fire is used for what material
“A tigas” Solid Material
199
Class B fire is used for what material
“B - basa” Liquids
200
Class C fire is used for what material
“C - current” Electrical
201
Class D fire is used for what material
“MeDal” Metal
202
Class K fire is used for what material
“K - kitchen” Cooking liquids
203
Class E fire is used for what material
“ArsEnal” Arsenal
204
Red container is used for
Sharps Needles Empty aerosol containers Pressurized containers
205
Yellow container
Infectious waste
206
Yellow with black band container
Chemical waste
207
Orange container
Radioactive waste
208
Green container
Non-infectious wet
209
Black container
Non-infectious dry waste
210
What color of container is used for Biodegradable Wastes?
Green Container
211
What color of container is used for Non-biodegradable Wastes?
Black Container
212
Wavelength is expressed in
Nanometers (nm)
213
Wavelength of Visible Light
400 - 700 nm
214
Wavelength of UV light
<400 nm
215
Wavelength of Infrared Light
>700 nm
216
Highest energy and shortest wavelength
Violet / UV
217
Lowest energy and longest wavelength
Red / Infrared
218
According to the Beer’s law, concentration is _____ proportional to absorbed light, and is _____ proportional to transmitted light
Concentration is DIRECTLY proportional to ABSORBED light; but INVERSELY proportional to transmitted light
219
Provides a continuous spectrum of polychromatic light
Light source
220
What are the lamps visible to infrared region
“Tungsten HIL” Tungsten-halogen Tungsten-iodide lamp Tungsten lamp
221
What are the lamps visible to UV region
“MXD” Mercury arc Xenon Deuterium-discharge
222
Allows entry of a narrow beam of radiant energy or light energy; It also minimizes stray light or unwanted light
Entrance Slit
223
What type of light passes through the entrance and exit slit?
Polychromatic
224
Known as a wavelength selector; Has 2 functions: to disperse polychromatic light into a separate wavelength and isolates a specific wavelength
Monochromator
225
What type of light passes through monochromator
Polychromator
226
What type of light is from the monochromator
Monochromatic
227
This controls the width of light beam (bandpass)
Exit slit
228
Hold the solution to containing the analyte to be measured
Cuvette or Sample Holder
229
The most preferred type of cuvette
Square-end Cuvette
230
This measures and converts the transmitted light into an equivalent amount of electrical energy
Detector
231
Most sensitive type of detector
Photo Multiplier Tube (PMT)
232
It measures the magnitude of the current or electrical energy that is generated by the detector
Read-out Device or Meter
233
What type of light reaches the cuvette
Monochromatic Light
234
Contains 2 cuvettes or sample holders; All are duplicated except the light source
Double Beam in Space
235
Contains 2 cuvettes or sample holders; Only cuvette is duplicated
Double Beam in Time
236
Light source of fluorometry
Xenon / Hydrogen Discharge Lamp
237
Has 2 monochromators (primary and secondary)
Fluorometry
238
Receives light energy from the light source / receives excited light
Excitation Filter / Primary Monochromator
239
Receives fluorescence / emitted light
Emission Filter / Secondary Monochromator
240
Receives fluorescence / emitted light
Emission Filter / Secondary Monochromator
241
Charcteristics of excited lighht
High energy ; Short wavelength
242
Characteristic of fluorescence or emitted light
Low energy; Longer wavelength
243
The reason why the filter or the secondary monochromator is arranged at a right angle (90 degree angle) is that:
Emission filter is arranged at a 90 degree in reference to the excitation filter; Emission is arranged in 90 degree angle in order to avoid any interference from the transmitted excited light or; to avoid detecting light from the light source and assure accuracy
244
Presence of molecules that absorbs or steals the fluorescence of the analyte
Quenching
245
What instrument contains 2 monochromators
Fluorometer (Second answer: Spectrophotometer (if there is no fluorometer in the choices)
246
What components are the filters?
Can be used as monochromators
247
It is base on the characteristic emission of light by analytes which are easily excited when exposed to sufficient heat energy
Flame Emission Phtometry
248
What are the easily excited analytes
Na, K, Lithium
249
Color Emissions Lithium: Rubidium: Potassium: Sodium: Magnesium:
Color Emissions Lithium: “Litem ni Ruby” — lithium RED Rubidium: “Litem ni Ruby” — rubidium RED Potassium: “PoV” — potassium VIOLET Sodium: “SOY” — sodium YELLOW Magnesium: “Mlue” — magnesium BLUE
250
The dilution of serum for sodium or potassium flame emission photometry (FEP) analysis:
1:100 or 1:200
251
The reference method for Calcium and Magnesium determination; Measure light that is absorbed by atoms at a ground state; Intended for analytes which are NOT easily excited by the flame (such as calcium)
AAS (Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry
252
The light source used in AAS
Hollow Cathode Lamp
253
Measures light scattered
Nephelometry
254
In nephelometry the detector is at what degree angle
At 90 or 30 degree angle
255
Nephelometry is usually applied in what sections in the laboratory
Measurement of Immune Complexes — Ag-Ab Reaction Cell counting procedures — Hematology
256
Forward scatter:
Volume / size
257
Side scatter:
Internal characteristic or Granulation
258
Measures light blocked by particles or reduction of light
Turbidimetry
259
Turbidimetry is usually applied in what sections of the laboratory
Microbiology and Hematology
260
Specimen are separated by air-bubbles in between reaction system; Multiple samples in single test
Batch Analysis
261
Primary source of error of batch analysis; It is the presence of remnant from the previous sample that will affect succeeding sample
Carry Over
262
Remedy for Carry-over
Washing out adequately
263
It uses a spinning rotor to generate centrifugal force to transfer and contain liquids in separate cuvettes for analysis; Transfer reagent and sample by acceleration and deceleration; Capable of performing one test in multiple samples — batch analysis
Centrifugal Analyzer
264
Each sample and the corresponding reagent is handled separately in its respective vessel; Runs multiple tests on one sample (parallel testing) or one test on multiple samples (batch analysis) Most popular and versatile analyzer; It can perform all type of testing
Discrete Analyzer
265
Multiple sample in one test
Batch Analysis
266
Test in a particular order or multiple tests one after the other
Sequential Analysis
267
One sample for multiple tests
Parallel Testing
268
System perform the reconstitution; Reagent from other manufacturer can be used
Open Reagent System
269
System with no reconstitution; it is fully prepared; It only uses the manufacturer’s reagent
Close Reagent System
270
Anticoagulant used in Arterial Blood Gas Analysis
Heparin
271
Other term for capillary blood
Arteriolized blood
272
Capillary puncture should not be more than what temperature
Should NOT be more than 42 degrees C
273
Sample collection and process done in POCT and Newborn Screening
Capillary Puncture
274
Newborn Screening is done through
Blood spot on filter paper or Heel stick puncture or Capillary puncture
275
What are the preferred sites for venipuncture
Antecubital Veins: - Median Cubital - Cephalic - Basilic
276
It is caused by medicine or procedure done to the patient by the health care worker
Iatrogenic
277
Reflective of analytes taken early morning before the patient becomes physically active
Basal State
278
Fasting hours for Glucose: Lipid Profile:
Fasting hours for Glucose: 8 - 10 hrs Lipids: 12 hrs
279
Term used if there is high concentration of lipid
Lipemic
280
Term used if there is high concentration of bilirubin
Icteric
281
Bilirubin interferes with what methods:
HABA method — Albumin Assays using FeCl3 — Cholesterol Biuret Reaction — Total Protein
282
Routinely used in Antiseptic Technique
Isopropyl Alcohol or Isopropanol
283
Used for ethanol testing
Benzalkonium Chloride
284
Motion recommended in cleaning of site
Friction
285
Order of Draw
“BB Real Girl Love Gray” “SCSHEG” Blood culture ( Sterile tube ) Blue ( Coagulation ) Red ( Serum tube ) Green ( Heparin ) Lavender ( EDTA) Gray ( Glycolitic inhibitor )
286
Need protection from light
Bilirubin and CK
287
Needs chilling
Ammonia and Blood Gas
288
Acid mucopolysaccharide that has affinity to methylene blue —> produce bluish background in PBS; Prevent in vivo and in vitro clotting; Substance that maintains the liquid state of blood
Heparin
289
Complication of Venipuncture
Anemia
290
Antecubital vein that tends to roll
Basilic and Cephalic
291
What is the minimum PPE to be worn during phlebotomy?
Acc to WHO: tight fitting gloves Acc to Bishop: Gloves, Facemask and Lab gown
292
Enumerate the 4 Biomolecules
“CaP LiN” Carbohydrates Proteins Lipids Nucleic Acids
293
These are organic chemicals that contain CHO in varying amounts
Crabohydrates
294
Primary source of energy
Carbohydrates (CHO)
295
Secondary source of energy
Lipids
296
It is broken down to amino acids
Protein
297
Storage form of carbohydrates from plants
Starch
298
Carbohydrates storage form from humans/animals
Glycogen
299
Enzyme needed for digestion of carbohydrates
Amylase
300
Dextrins and disaccharides are broken down by ______ turning now into monosaccharides which are absorbable
Maltase
301
It is the only CHO which can be directly utilized for energy production, and only CHO that can be directly stored as glycogen
Glucose
302
CHO that is routinely assayed
Glucose
303
Processes that decreases blood glucose concentration
Glycolysis and Glycogenesis
304
Processes that increases blood glucose concentration
Gluconeogenesis and Glycogenolysis
305
Involves the metabolism of glucose into pyruvate or lactate for energy production
Glycolysis
306
Involves formation of the phosphorylated form of glucose G6P from non-carbohydrate sources
Gluconeogenesis
307
Formation of glycogen
Glycogenesis
308
Glycogen is broken down into glucose for energy
Glycogenolysis
309
What is the purpose of glycogenesis?
For energy storage
310
The only hormone that will decrease blood glucose level or the only hormone that is hypoglycemic
Insulin
311
Promote cellular uptake of glucose; increases glycogenesis and glycolysis
Insulin
312
Enumerate the hyperglycemic agents or the hormones that increases blood glucose level
“GCGET” Glucagon Cortisol Growth Hormone Epinephrine Thyroid Hormone
313
Promote gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis
Glucagon
314
Promote gluconeogenesis
Cortisol
315
Inhibit the action of Insulin
Growth Hormone
316
Promote glycogenolysis
Epinephrine and Thyroid Hormone
317
Standard clinical specimen for glucose
Fasting venous plasma (Standard Clinical Specimen) Others: Capillary, arterial, venous and whole blood
318
It binds magnesium and inhibits enolase; is more on antiglycolytic than being anticoagulant
Sodium Fluoride
319
Main anticoagulant for glucose determination and is capable of preventing glycolysis from 48-72 hours
Potassium Oxalate
320
Venous blood is ____ mg/dL lower than arterial blood
5 mg/dL
321
Whole blood is _____ % lower than serum or plasma
10 - 15 %
322
Time of collection for glucose
Morning
323
Fasting hours for glucose
8 - 10 hours
324
Failure to separate cells from serum, it will cause
Glycolysis
325
Glycolysis rate at _____ mg/dL/hr in room temperature
7 mg/dL/hr
326
Glycolysis rate at _______ mg/dL/hr in ref temp or 4 degrees celcius
2 mg/dL/hr
327
In contamination, 10% contamination with 5% dextrose increases _____ mg/dL or more
500 mg/dL
328
In OGTT, the patient should intake _____________ for _____ days
Normal to high carbohydrate intake for 3 days
329
Fasting hours for OGTT
8 - 14 hrs (best fasting time is 12 hrs)
330
Glucose load recommended by WHO is ____ g and taken within ___ mins
75 g taken for 5 mins
331
Samples for OGTT should be collected every _______
30 mins (Maam Gili Notes) 1 hour (Doc Gab)
332
Glycosylated Hemoglobin is also known as
Ketoamine / HBA1c
333
It is the most accurate test for glucose
Glycosylated Hgb / Ketoamine / HBA1c
334
It is used for long term glucose monitoring
Glycosylated Hgb / Ketoamine / HBA1c
335
It is the index of average blood glucose level for the past 2-3 months due to lifespan of RBCs (120 days)
Glycosylated Hgb / Ketoamine / HBA1c
336
Sample used for HBA1c
EDTA whole blood
337
___ % is indicative of diabetes mellitus
>6.5 %
338
A 1% increase in HBA1c can cause ___ mg/dL plasma glucose change
5 mg/dL
339
Glycosylated Albumin is also known as
Fructosamine
340
It is used for short term glucose monitoring (2-3 weeks — lifespan of albumin)
Glycosylated Albumin / Fructosamine
341
Folin-Wu: ________; color: ______ Nelson-Somogyi: _______; color: ______ Neocuproine: ______; color: ______
Folin Wu: Phosphomolybdenum; color blue Nelson Somogyi: Arsenomolybdenum; color blue or greenish blue Neocuproine: Cuprous-neocuproine; color yellow or yellow orange
342
Also known as Campbell and King Method
Neocuproine
343
Reagent name for neocuproine
2,9 dimethyl - 1,10 phenanthroline (hydrochloride)
344
Dubowski Method: ______ ; color: ______; measured by ____
Orthotoluidine - N glycosamine; color green; measured by 630 nm or 620 - 630 nm
345
Glucose Oxidase Method coupling enzyme:______ Measured at: ____
Peroxidase 480-520 nm
346
This method detects only beta-D glucose (represents 5 % of the total glucose)
Glucose Oxidase Method
347
What reagent is used to convert alpha to beta?
Mutarotase
348
It is the reference method for glucose determination
Hexokinase Method
349
Coupling enzyme for Hexokinase Method
Glucose 6-Posphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD)
350
POCT uses _____.
Potentiometry
351
It is primarily recommended for Type 1 Diabetes
POCT
352
Criteria for diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus Fasting Blood Glucose: ________ Random Blood Glucose: ________ 2-hour Postprandial : ________ Glycosylated Hgb: _______
Fasting Blood Glucose: >/= 126 mg/dL Random Blood Glucose: >/= 200 mg/dL 2-hour Postprandial : >/= 200 mg/dL Glycosylated Hgb: >/= 6.5 % or 48 mmol/mol
353
Random blood glucose and classic symptom of hyperglycemia is used to monitor_____
Insulin Shock
354
_______ is used to monitor patient compliance
Glycosylated Hgb / Ketoamine / HBA1c
355
This has autoantibodies that will destroy beta cells therefore low insulin levels
Type 1 DM
356
The population of cells in islet of Langerhans in pancreas that produces insulin
Beta Cells
357
Cells that are present in islet of Langerhans in pancreas that produces glucagon
Alpha Cells
358
Also known as progressive insulin deficiency (chronic stage)
Type II DM
359
Type of DM where in the beginning or early stage there is insulin resistance
Type II DM
360
Substance that is produced in the synthesis of insulin which is seen only in endogenous insulin production
C-peptide
361
Previous names for Type I DM
Insulin Dependent DM Juvenile Onset
362
Previous names for Type II DM
Insulin-Independent DM Progressive Insulin Deficiency Adult Onset
363
Pathogenesis of Type I DM
Autoimmune —> Autoantibodies that destroy beta cells
364
Pathogenesis of Type II DM
Lifestyle related
365
Risk factors
Genetic (HLA-DR/DQ)
366
Risk factors of Type II DM
Genetic Obesity Sedentary lifestyle Race / Ethnicity
367
Onset of Type I DM
Juvenile Onset
368
Onset of type II DM
Adult onset
369
Frequency of Type I DM and Type II DM
Type I DM — 5-10 % Type II DM — 90-95 %
370
Ketoacidosis: TYPE I — TYPE II —
TYPE I is ketoacidosis prone TYPE II is ketoacidosis not prone
371
C-Peptide Level TYPE I — TYPE II —
Type I — low TYPE II — normal
372
Mediation TYPE I — TYPE II —
TYPE I — Insulin injections TYPE II — Oral hypoglycemic agents
373
What is the BMI of obese?
>/= 30 kg/sqm
374
Hypoglycemic blood glucose level
375
Blood glucose level: symptoms of hypoglycemia appear
50-55 mg/dL
376
Blood glucose level of hypoglycemic infants is ____; adults: _____
377
Hypoglycemia is associated with
Whipple’s Triad
378
It is a concept for diagnosing hypoglycemic disorders
Whipple’s Triad
379
Whipple’s Triad:
Fasting hypoglycemia (<50 mg/dl) Symptoms of hypoglycemia Immediate relief of symptoms with IV glucose
380
Panic values for Glucose
<40 mg/dl 65 - 70 mg/dl >500 mg/dl
381
Blood glucose level where hyperglycemic factors are released
65-70 mg/dl
382
Most common glycogen storage disorder
Von gierke
383
Enumerate the Glycogen Storage Diseases and their defective enzymes
“Viagra Pill Causes A Muscle Hardening Tight” : “GL Di Ba MaLi Po?” I — Von Gierke : G6P II — Pompe : Lysosomal-alpha glucosidase III — Cori : Debranching enzyme IV — Anderson : Branching enzyme V — McArdle : Muscle phosphorylase VI — Hers : Liver phosphorylase VII — Tarui : Phosphofructokinase
384
Tests for hypoglycemia 5 hr OGTT: 72 hr fasting:
5 hr OGTT: (+) low glucose level around hr 4 and hr 5 72 hr fasting: (+) low blood glucose level within 3 days (72 hrs)
385
Soluble in nonpolar organic solvents and insoluble in polar solvents
Lipids
386
Organic nonpolar agents
Chloroform and Ether
387
Polar solvent
Water
388
Water soluble macromolecules that carries lipids / is considered as the carrier of lipids
Lipoproteins
389
More amphiphilic form of cholesterol
Free Cholesterol
390
Hydrophobic form of cholesterol
Cholesterol ester
391
Formation of cholesterol is facilitated by _____
LCAT (Lecithin-Cholesterol Acyltransferase)
392
3 fatty acids + glycerol
Triglyceride / Triacylglycerol
393
Least reliable indicator for Coronary Heart Disease
Triglyceride / Triacylglycerol
394
Triglyceride level or value that indicates lipemia
> 400 mg/dl
395
Fatty acid + choline / serine
Phospholipids
396
Most of these are bound to albumin
Fatty acids
397
Backbone of lipoproteins
Apolipoprotein
398
This component determines density
Protein
399
Most to least content of protein among the lipoproteins
4321 HDL LDL VLDL Chylo
400
Heaviest and highest amount of protein
HDL
401
Second highest concentration of protein
LDL
402
Lightest and least amount of protein
Chylomicrons
403
Most to least content of cholesterol
3241 LDL VLDL HDL Chylo
404
Most to least content of Triglyceride
1234 Chylo VLDL LDL HDL
405
Carries exogenous TAG
Chylomicrons
406
Carries endogenous TAG
VLDL / Pre-beta lipoprotein
407
Carries TAG from the diet
Chylomicrons
408
Carries TAG from the body
VLDL / Pre-beta lipoprotein
409
Lipoprotein responsible for post-prandial turbidity / nonfasting turbidity / after eating
Chylomicrons
410
Responsible for fasting turbidity
VLDL / Pre-beta lipoprotein
411
Chylomicrons is produced by the ____ and VLDL is produced by the _____ .
Chylo — intestine VLDL — liver
412
Apolipoprotein present in Chylomicrons is ___ and in VLDL is ____
Chylo — Apo B48 VLDL — Apo B100
413
____ % of triglyceride carried by chylomicrons and ___ carried by VLDL
80-95 % by Chylo 45-60 % by VLDL
414
Causes turbid or milky appearance of plasma; accumulate as a floating creamy layer in standing plasma test
Chylomicrons
415
Causes turbid appearance of plasma during fasting
VLDL
416
Carrier of exogenous cholesterol
LDL
417
Carrier for endogenous cholesterol
HDL
418
Carries cholesterol in the different parts of the body
LDL
419
Carries cholesterol from cells and back to the liver
HDL
420
Referred to as bad cholesterol
LDL
421
Referred to as good cholesterol
HDL
422
Lipoprotein that has a direct relationship to atherosclerosis and CHD risk
LDL
423
Lipoprotein that has an inverse relationship to atherosclerosis and CHD
HDL
424
Apolipoprotein present in LDL
Apo B100
425
Lipoprotein present in HDL
Apo A1
426
Byproduct breakdown of VLDL
LDL
427
HDL is produce by _______
intestine and liver
428
LDL contains how many % of cholesterol ester
45-55 %
429
HDL contains how many % of cholesterol ester
15-20 %
430
Which among the lipoproteins does not contain Apo B?
HDL
431
Also known as the floating beta lipoprotein
Beta VLDL
432
Also known as the sinking pre-beta lipoprotein
Lp(a)
433
Lipoprotein associated with Type 3 Hyperlipoproteinemia
Beta-VLDL
434
Associated with coronary disease and stroke; independent risk factor for atherosclerosis
Lp(a)
435
Associated with Obstructive biliary disease and Familial LCAT deficiency
Lp(X)
436
Major lipoproteins
Chylo VLDL LDL HDL
437
Minor lipoproteins
IDL Lp(a)
438
Abnormal lipoproteins
Beta VLDL LpX
439
Ideal fasting for lipoproteins / lipid profile
12 hrs
440
Lipids that requires fasting
TG and LDL
441
Lipids that do not require fasting
TC and HDL
442
Standing plasma test for lipoprotein - ____ ml of plasma; temp: ______ overnight and undisturbed
2 ml of plasma at 4 degrees celcius or ref temp
443
Possible results / observation: Floating creamy layer: caused by ______ Turbidity: caused by _________ Floating creamy layer + turbid plasma: caused by ______ Absence of creamy layer: ______ Absence of turbidity: _______
Possible results / observation: Floating creamy layer: caused by chylomicrons Turbidity: caused by TG Floating creamy layer + turbid plasma: caused by Chylo and TG + VLDL Absence of creamy layer: Normal level of chylo Absence of turbidity: Normal level of TG
444
Performed in fasting individuals: ________ Performed in non-fasting individuals: _______
Fasting: “Good Life” — TG and LDL Non-fasting: “Cool Hype” — TC and HDL
445
The reference method for lipoprotein synthesis
Ultracentrifugation
446
It is the ability of a substance to float
Buoyant density
447
From high to low (floating or buoyant density)
CM — VLDL — LDL — HDL
448
It is the heaviness of substance or the ability of a substance to sink
Density
449
From highest density to lowest density
CM — VLDL — LDL — HDL
450
It is used for the separation of proteins
Electrophoresis
451
Support medium used in electrophoresis are:
Polyacrylamide gel and Agarose gel
452
The most commonly used support medium for lipoprotein: _______; protein: ______
Agarose gel ; Cellulose acetate
453
Dyes used for the visualization of lipoprotein
“FSO” Fat Red Sudan black Oil Red
454
Dyes used for the visualization of proteins
“CPA” Coomasie Ponceau Amido???
455
Arrangement of lipoproteins in electrophoresis (slowest to fastest)
Chylo Beta (LDL) Pre-beta (VLDL) Alpha (HDL) —> most anodal (fastest)
456
The previous reference method for total cholesterol determination
Abell-Kendall
457
The new reference method for total cholesterol determination
GC-MS
458
Definitive method for total cholesterol
IDMS
459
The reagent used in Abell-Kendall method
Liebermann-Burdchardt
460
Reference method for triglyceride measurements
GC-MS
461
ATP III Classification for HDL
< 40 — LOW > 60 — HIGH
462
ATP III Classification for LDL
< 100 — OPTIMAL 100 — NEAR OPT OR ABOVE OPT 130 — BORDERLINE HIGH 160 — HIGH >/= 190 — VERY HIGH
463
ATP III Classification for TAG
<150 — NORMAL 150 — BORDERLINE HIGH 200 — HIGH >/= 500 — OBESE
464
ATP III Classification for TC
<200 — DESIRABLE 200 — BORDERLINE HIGH >/= 240 — HIGH
465
Recommended cut-off points for serum cholesterol Age; moderate risk; high risk
2-19 — >170 mg/dl — >185 mg/dl 20-29 — >200 mg/dl — >220 mg/dl 30-39 — >220 mg/dl — >240 mg/dl 40 and above — >240 mg/dl — >260 mg/dl
466
Disease associated with the inability to effectively transfer cholesterol into Apo A1; complete absence of HDL
“Apple Tang” Apo A1 — Tangier’s disease
467
Defective gene in Tangier’s disease is
ABCA1 gene (chromosome 9)
468
Extremely rare autosomal recessive defect in which plant sterols (phytosterols) accumulate in the plasma
Sitosterolemia
469
Also known as Abetalipoproteinemia; undetectable plasma apo B containing lipoproteins
“Abeta Bassen-Korn” Bassen Kornzweig disease/syndrome
470
Macromolecules that are made up of amino acids and are linked with each other by _______
Proteins; peptide bonds
471
Building blocks of proteins
Amino acid
472
Functions of proteins
“EW BuT SE” Energy production Water distribution or balance Buffers Transporters or carriers of diff. substance Structural function Enzymes
473
What type of biomolecules are enzymes?
Proteins
474
It is based on electric charge densities
Serum Protein Electrophoresis
475
It detects monoclonal gammopathies (an abnormal increase in immunoglobuin)
Serum protein electrophoresis
476
Point of application for serum protein electrophoresis
Cathode
477
Support medium medium for protein electrophoresis
Cellulose acetate
478
Cellulose acetate ph
Alkaline buffer (8.6)
479
Charges in serum protein electrophoresis Alkaline medium: exist as ______ Acidic medium: exist as ______
alkali-N-e — aNions ( - charge) acidi-C — Cations ( + charge)
480
Electrodes Cathode: ____ charge; attracts _____ Anode: ____ charge; attracts _____
Cathode — neg charged; attracts cations (positive ions) Anode — pos charged; attracts anions (negative ions)
481
Plasma protein fractions from most anodal to least anodal
Prealbumin/Transthyretin Albumin Alpha 1 globulin Alpha 2 globulin Beta-globulins Gamma-globulins
482
Decreased in poor nutrition / malnutrition
Pre-albumin / transthyretin
483
It is a transport protein; thyroid hormone (thyroxine) and retinol-binding protein —> transport retinol
Pre-albumin / Transthyretin
484
Major contributor to oncotic pressure
Albumin
485
Increased albumin is associated to
Dehydration
486
Alpha1-antichymotrypsin increases in cases of
Alzheimer’s
487
Alpha-fetoprotein or AFP increases in cases of
Trisomy 21
488
Transports vitamin D
Gc-globulin
489
Alpha2-macroglobulin increased concentration is seen in _______ —> 10x increased
Nephrotic Syndrome
490
Marker for Wilson’s disease
Ceruloplasmin “Siraulo si Wilson”
491