CLINICAL DERM Flashcards

(331 cards)

1
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis?
1 Dermatofibromasarcoma protuberans
2 Dermatofibroma
3 Lobomycosis
4 Blastomycosis
5 Keloid

A

Keloid
Keloids are dense overgrowths of fibrous tissue that generally form a response to tissue injury. Lobomycosis and dermatofibromasarcoma protuberans may mimic keloids

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2
Q

You suspect that a patient has acquired angioedema. Levels of which of the following would you expect to be low?
1 C1q, C3
2 C1q, bradykinin
3 C4, C1q
4 bradykinin, C3
5 C4, C3

A

C4, C1q
Initial screening test in angioedema for both inherited and acquired should include C4, which is low. C3 is normal in angioedema. C1q is low in acquired angioedema but normal in the hereditary type. Bradykinin is elevated in both inherited and acquired angioedema.

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3
Q

Cigarette smoking has been shown to:
1 Increase the incidence of BCC
2 Not affect the survival of surgical repairs
3 Demonstrate less solar elastosis than photoaged skin
4 Have no correlation with facial wrinkling
5 Increase cutaneous vasoconstriction

A

Increase cutaneous vasoconstriction
Cigarette smoking accelerated photoaging. Solar elastosis in patients with significant smoking history is present not only in the papillary dermis, but also the reticular dermis. It has also been shown to increase the incidence of skin cancer, decrease the survival of surgical grafts, increase the severity of wrinkling.

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4
Q

What is the diagnosis of this lesion on the penile shaft?
1 Sclerosing lymphangitis
2 Loaloa
3 Varicose vein
4 Syphilis
5 Lymphogranuloma venereum

A

Sclerosing lymphangitis
Sclerosing lymphangitis is a self-limited, cord-like structure on the penile shaft, which typically occurs 24-48 hours after vigorous sexual intercourse.

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5
Q

The differential diagnosis for the attached image should include all of the followings except
1 Candidiasis
2 Lichen planus
3 Contact dermatitis
4 Inverse psoriasis
5 Erythrasma

A

Erythrasma
The image shown is inverse type of psoriasis. Although psoriatic lesions are classically distributed on the extensor surfaces (the elbows, knees, and lumbosacral regions), lesions may also be found in a flexural distribution with involvement of the axillae, groin, perineum, central chest, and umbilical region. Differential diagnosis include all other choices in question. Although erythrasma might be included in differentials in case of groin involvement only, it is unlikly for eryhrasma to presnt on penis with well demarctaed erythamtos plaques. Erythrasma is a superficial bacterial infection of the skin caused by C. minutissimum. It is characterized by asymptomatic, well-demarcated, reddish brown, slightly scaly patches in the groin, axillae, gluteal crease, or inframammary regions, and less often the interdigital spaces of the feet. Erythrasma is frequently confused with a dermatophyte infection, it can be differentiated from tinea infection by the characteristic coral red fluorescence seen when viewed under Wood’s lamp illumination (due to the production of porphyrins by the corynebacteria.

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6
Q

The protein component of nodular amyloidosis is:
1 SAA protein
2 AL protein
3 Keratin
4 Collagen
5 Bp180

A

AL protein
Nodular amyloidosis presents as single or multiple nodules, often on the extremities. The primary protein component is of the AL type.

AMYLOID = AMMO GUN

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7
Q

What is the most common presentation of psoriatic arthritis?
1 Asymmetric oligo- or polyarthritis
2 Symmetric polyarthritis
3 Spondylitis (axial)
4 Distal interphalangeal joint (DIP) disease
5 Arthritis mutilans

A

Asymmetric oligo- or polyarthritis
Psoriatic arthritis affects 20-40% of patients with psoriasis. Most (~80%) of psoriatic arthritis patients are rheumatoid factor negative. All of the answer choices represent possible presentations of psoriatic arthritis, but asymmetric oligo- or polyarthritis is the most common presentation.

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8
Q

Which special stain is utilized to confirm the diagnosis of Langerhans cell histiocytosis?
1 H&E sufficient for diagnosis
2 S100
3 CD20
4 CD1a
5 Chloroacetate esterase

A

CD1a
Langerhan cell histiocytosis includes the diseases Letterer-Siwe, Hand-Schuller-Christian, Eosinophilic Granuloma, and Hashimoto-Pritzker. Cells stain positively with CD1a, S100, and peanut agglutinin. Cells may also be indentified by the presence of Birbeck granules.

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9
Q

What surgical dressing would you use if you wished to debride a wound, reduce pain, and provide a cooling effect?
1 Alginates
2 Foams
3 Hydrocolloid
4 Hydrogel
5 Films

A

Hydrogel
Hydrogels are 70-90% water, decrease pain, provide a cooling effect, and are useful for dry and necrotic wounds. Foams are suitable for use on light-to-medium exuding wounds. Hydrocolloids ensure the moist wound environment, promote the formation of granulation tissue, and provide pain relief by covering nerve endings with both gel and exudate. Large quantities of alginates are used each year to treat exudating wounds, such as leg ulcers, pressure sores, and infected surgical wounds.

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10
Q

What is the recommended allowance of daily vitamin D intake for a 35-year-old female?
1 200 IU
2 400 IU
3 600 IU
4 800 IU
5 1000 IU

A

600 IU
Recommended dietary allowance of vitamin D as established by the Institute of Medicine in 2010 is 400 international units for infants 0 to 12 months, 600 IU for ages 1 to 70 years, and 800 IU for ages 71 and above. Additionally, recommended allowance for pregnant/lactating women is 600 IU.

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11
Q

A 35 year-old otherwise healthy man presents with moderate-to-severe plaque psoriasis, improved on cyclosporine. The patient weighs 70 kilograms and is taking a dose of 300 mg/day. His baseline creatinine was 0.8; on follow-up testing it is 1.1. All other exam and laboratory parameters are within normal limits. The patient is pleased with his treatment and asks to continue it. Which of the following is correct?
1 The patient has exceeded the recommeded dosage of cyclosporine
2 You offer a decrease of the cyclosporine dose to 225 mg/day and close follow-up
3 The change in creatinine is not significant, no change is needed
4 Cyclosporine rarely has renal toxicity in young, healthy individuals; thus you must work-up other causes of the increased creatinine
5 The cyclosporine should be stopped immediately; the patient must avoid cyclosporine in the future

A

You offer a decrease of the cyclosporine dose to 225 mg/day and close follow-up
Cyclosporine is highly effective in most patients with severe chronic plaque-type psoriasis. Doses start at 2.5 to 4mg/kg/day and can go as high as 5.5mg/kg/day. Renal impairment may occur and is often reversible. If the creatinine increases 30% or greater from baseline the dose should be reduced by 25% and the patient followed closely.

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12
Q

A potentially dangerous side effect of spironolactone is:
1 Hypokalemia
2 Hyperkalemia
3 Hypercalcemia
4 Hyponatremia
5 Hypernatremia

A

Hyperkalemia
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing aldactone antagonist. Renal failure predisposes patients to potentially dangerous hyperkalemia.

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13
Q

In the absence of the C1 esterase inhibitor, which of the following proteins mediates angioedema most directly:
1 Kallikrein
2 C1
3 Plasmin
4 C3 convertase
5 C2 kinin

A

C2 kinin
In C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency activated C1 and plasmin generate activated C2 kinin, which mediates angioedema.

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14
Q

Which of the following is true regarding this entity?
1 The subcutaneous variant is most common in children
2 75% of localized lesions are still present 2 years after diagnosis
3 Localized lesions often ulcerate and heal with scarring
4 The perforating variant classically involves the lower extremities
5 Diabetes is present in the majority of patients with the generalized variant

A

The subcutaneous variant is most common in children
Granuloma annulare is the entity pictured. Subtypes include localized GA, generalized GA, macular GA, subcutaneous GA, and perforating GA. The subcutaneous variant is most common in children; there is often a history of trauma to the area. Localized lesions never ulcerate and heal without scarring; 75% of localized lesions clear within 2 years. The perforating variant classically involves the dorsa of the hands. Diabetes is present in 20% of patients with the generalized variant.

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15
Q

Natural infection with which of the following infectious agents has been shown to mitigate atopic dermatitis?
1 Measles
2 S. aureus
3 Varicella
4 Rubella
5 Coxsackie virus

A

Measles
Natural measles infection has been shown to ameliorate atopic dermatitis.

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16
Q

A teenager comes into your office requesting laser hair removal of her significant facial hair. Before you agree to treat her, you order which of the following laboratory analyses?
1 FSH and LH
2 Glucose and hemoglobin A1C
3 Ferritin and TIBC
4 Testosterone and DHEA-S
5 TSH and T3

A

Testosterone and DHEA-S
Hisrutism describes excessive terminal hair growth in areas on women that are normally found only in post-pubescent males (such as beard, chest, inner thigh). Hypertrichosis refers to excessive hair density or length. Hirsutism is under the influence of androgen stimulation. Testosterone and DHEA-S can be used to detect excessive adrenal or ovarian androgen production. Other clinical manifestations of androgen excess in women are acne and virilization.

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17
Q

A 2 year-old boy with crusted skin papules is found to have osteolytic defects and diabetes insipidus. These features are seen in:
1 Osteogenesis imperfecta
2 Conradi-Hunnerman disease
3 Metastatic small cell lung carcinoma
4 Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
5 Epidermal nevus syndrome

A

Hand-Schuller-Christian disease
Hand-Schuller-Christian disease is a chronic multifocal form of Langerhans cell histiocytosis.70% of cases occur between the ages of 2 and 6. The four characteristic clinical findings are bone lesions, diabetes insipidus, exophthalmus, mucocutaneous lesions. Bones lesions are osteolytic and preferentially involve the calvarium.

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18
Q

The joint most frequently affected in acne fulminans is the:
1 Elbow
2 Intervertebral
3 Distal interphalangeal joints of the hand
4 Sternoclavicular
5 Sacroiliac

A

Sternoclavicular
Acne fulminans may be associated with lytic bone changes which are indicative of a sterile osteomyelitis. The sternoclavicular and chest wall joints are most frequently affected

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19
Q

A 16 year old developmentally normal male presents to his pediatrician intermittent vague epidodes of hand and feet paresthesias and non specific episode of GI distress. He is referred to you to evaluate numerous punctate to 5 slightly verrucous, deep-red to blue-black papules distributed diffusely on his trunk in a bathing suit distribution. Polarization microscopy of the sediment of his urine demonstrates birefringent lipid globules (ie, renal tubular epithelial cells or cell fragments with lipid inclusions) with the characteristic Maltese cross configuration. How is this disorder inherited?
1 Autosomal dominant
2 Autosomal recessive
3 X-linked dominant
4 X-linked recessive
5 Not an inherited disorder

A

X-linked recessive
Fabry’s disease is inherited is x-linked recessive. Female carriers often exhibit mild forms of this disorder. It can be establish that a patient has FD by searching for low activity of alpha-galactosyl A in plasma, leukocytes, cultured skin fibroblasts, or dried blood spots on filter paper. Because of the Lyon effect, enzymatic detection of carriers can be misleading; thus, specific genetic analysis can be helpful in making the diagnosis.

Since the age of 10 this 28-year-old man has had multiple progressive dark red papules on the lower half of the body associated with episodic heat-triggered acral pain, decreased sweating, dry skin, abdominal pain and an impaired quality of life. He had relatives with chronic burning pain in the extremities, bowel disorders, red purple papules, psychiatric and cardiac diseases. The clinical suspicion of Fabry disease was confirmed with low alpha-galactosidase A activity in blood and a mutation in the alpha-galactosidase A gene. Additional findings included microalbuminuria, perypheral neuropathy, vascular tortuosity in conjunctiva and retina as well as cornea verticilata.. Fabry disease is a rare X-linked disorder caused by deficient activity of the lysosomal enzyme alpha-galactosidase A. Progresive accumulation of the substrate globotriaosylceramide in cells throughout the body leads to major organ failure and premature death. Enzyme replacement therapy with agalsidase alpha leads to significant clinical benefits in patients with Fabry disease, and treatment is likely to alter the natural history of this disorder.

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20
Q

What complication can occur if this disease is left untreated?
1 Development of a squamous cell carcinoma
2 Testicular torsion
3 Erectile dysfunction
4 Impotence
5 Pseudo-ainhum

A

Development of a squamous cell carcinoma
Lichen sclerosis is most commonly located in the genitalia. Longstanding lichen sclerosis is thought to be a risk factor for the development of a squamous cell carcinoma.

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21
Q

Which enzyme can be a useful adjunct test to diagnose zinc deficiency where the serum zinc level is normal or near normal?
1 Zinc sulfatase
2 Alkaline phosphatase
3 AST
4 ALT
5 Creatinine kinase

A

Alkaline phosphatase
A low serum alkaline phosphatase, a zinc dependent enzyme, may be a valuable adjuctive test where the serum zinc level is normal or near normal. The diagnosis of zinc deficiency should be suspected in at-risk individuals with acral or periorificial dermatitis. It is usually confirmed by low serum zinc levels.

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22
Q

Which of the following is a feature of Sneddon’s syndrome?
1 Venous thromboses
2 Hepatosplenomegaly
3 anti-Scl-70 autoantibodies
4 M. tuberculosis infection
5 C2 deficiency

A

Venous thromboses
Sneddon’s syndrome presents as livedo reticularis and livedoid vasculitis associated with ischemic cerebrovascular lesions, hypotension, and extracerebral arterial and venous thromboses.

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23
Q

A 25 year-old previously healthy man presents with the skin findings shown, urethritis, and one month of peripheral arthritis. Which of the following is true regarding this condition?
1 Females and males are equally affected
2 A chronic deforming arthritis occurs in 20%
3 TNF-alpha inhibiting agents have no role in the treatment of this condition
4 Patients must have urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis for diagnosis
5 Chlamydia cervicitis is not associated with this condition

A

A chronic deforming arthritis occurs in 20%
The patient has Reiter’s syndrome. Reiter’s syndrome is a chronic inflammatory disease similar to psoriasis with psoriatic arthritis, and is thought to be a variant form. The classic triad consists of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis. Few patients present with the classic triad, and thus the syndrome can be diagnosed with peripheral arthritis >1 month duration and associated urethritis (or cervicitis). It occurs in young men with the HLA-B27 genotype and rarely occurs in women. Skin findings include keratoderma blennorrhagicum and circinate balanitis (in men), as well as oral erosions, severe stomatitis, and nail changes. The course of disease is marked by exacerbation and remission; a chronic deforming arthritis occurs in 20%. Treatment includes topical steroids, NSAIDs, methotrexate, acitretin, cyclosporine, and TNF-inhibiting biologics, such as etanercept.

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24
Q

Secondary systemic amyloidosis:
1 Classically involves the tongue and periorbital skin
2 Involves deposition of AL protein
3 Can involve deposition of beta 2-microglobulin in the setting of rheumatoid arthritis
4 Can be noted on biopsy of normal skin
5 Involves deposition of keratin-derived amyloid

A

Can be noted on biopsy of normal skin
Secondary systemic amyloidosis presents with deposition of amyloid in the adrenals, liver, spleen, and kidney as a result of some chronic disease, such as TB, leprosy, Hodgkin’s, Behcet’s, rheumatoid arthritis, ulcerative colitis, schistosomiasis, or syphilis. The skin is not involved. AA amyloid fibrils, derived from SAA protein (an acute phase reactant) are deposited. AA is also seen in Muckle-Wells and familial mediterranean fever. Biopsy of normal skin may be positive for perivascular amyloid. Dialysis-related amyloidosis occurs via deposition of beta 2-microglobulin component altered by uremia, and resuls in carpal tunnel syndrome, bone cysts, and spondyloarthropathy.

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25
Necrobiotic xanthogranuloma is most commonly associated with which of the following: 1 IgA monoclonal gammopathy 2 IgM monoclonal gammopathy 3 IgG lambda monoclonal gammopathy 4 IgG kappa monoclonal gammopathy 5 IgG/IgA polyclonal gammopathy
IgG kappa monoclonal gammopathy Necrobiotic xanthogranuloma is associated with a monoclonal IgG kappa paraproteinemia in approximately 80% of cases. It is less commonly associated with an IgA gammopathy. Myeloma or myelodysplastic syndromes may resultantly occur.
26
Which of the following statements comparing inflammatory lesions from patients with psoriasis and patients with atopic dermatitis is true? 1 Human �efensin 2 (HBD-2) and LL 37 levels in psoriasis lesions are significantly lower than in atopic dermatitis lesions 2 Expression of HBD-2 and LL 37 is negligible in psoriatic lesions 3 HBD-2 and LL 37 are significantly elevated in atopic dermatitis lesions 4 Expression of HBD-2 and LL 37 in psoriasis is similar to normal skin, whereas it is decreased in atopic dermatitis lesions 5 HBD-2 and LL 37 are significantly decreased in atopic dermatitis lesions compared to psoriasis lesions
HBD-2 and LL 37 are significantly decreased in atopic dermatitis lesions compared to psoriasis lesions Ong et al found a deficiency of HBD-2 and LL 37, which are innate antimicrobial peptides, in lesions from patients with atopic dermatitis compared to lesions from patients with psoriasis. IL-4 and IL-13, which are Th2-type cytokines, were found to inhibit expression of HBD-2 and LL 37. Decreased expression of HBD-2 and LL 37 may account for the increased susceptibility to S. aureus infection in patients with atopic dermatitis.
27
What is the most common paraproteinemia in scleromyxedema 1 IgA 2 IgG kappa 3 IgG lambda 4 IgM 5 It is uncommon to see paraproteinemia with scleromyxedema
IgG lambda An abnormal paraproteinemia is found in approximately 90% of cases with scleromyxedema, generally IgG lambda. IgA paraproteinemia can be seen in pyoderma gangrenosum and Sneddon-Wilkinson disease. Amyloidosis and NXG can be associated with IgG kappa paraproteinemia, and Schnitzler syndrome is associated with an IgM paraproteinemia.
28
The condition shown here may be exacerbated by the inappropriate use of which of the following? 1 Comedogenic make-up foundation 2 Sunscreens 3 Erythromycin 2% ointment 4 Topical corticosteroids 5 Mineral oil-containing moisturizers
Topical corticosteroids This slide shows perioral dermatitis, characterized by small, erythematous papules in a perioral, often periorificial, distribution. Topical corticosteroids can exacerbate or trigger perioral dermatitis. Note the absence of comedones, which distinguishes rosacea and its subsets from acne.
29
Menopausal flushing can be effectively treated with: 1 Nadolol 2 Tryptophan 3 Clonidine 4 Danazol 5 Tamoxifen
Clonidine Menopausal flushing occurs at menopause or perimenstrual when estrogen levels are low. Pharmacologic menopause may be caused by drugs, including danazol, tamoxifen, clomiphene citrate, decapeptyl, leuprolide, and 4-hydroxyandrostenedione. Treatment is with oral estrogen replacement or clonidine hydrochloride 0.05mg bid. Nadolol is an effective treatment of emotional flushing.
30
Which of the following treatments for acne inhibits RNA-dependent protein synthesis by binding to the 50s ribosomal subunit? 1 Erythromycin 2 Tetracycline 3 Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazle 4 Benzoyl peroxide 5 Azeleic acid
Erythromycin Macrolide antibiotics inhibit RNA-dependent protein synthesis by binding to the 50s ribosomal subunit, and include erythromycin and azithromycin. Tetracyclines inhibit RNA-dependent protein synthesis by binding to the bacterial 30s ribosomal subunit. TMP-SMX inhibits bacterial folic acid synthesis. Benzoyl peroxide is a bactericidal agent with direct oxidizing effects. Azeleic acid is a dicarboxylic acid that inhibits tyrosinase; the mechanism of action against P. acnes is not completely understood.
31
The mechanism of action of azithromycin is: 1 Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis 2 Inhibition of RNA-dependent protein synthesis by binding to the 30s ribosomal subunit 3 Inhibition of RNA-dependent protein synthesis by binding to the 50s ribosomal subunit 4 Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase 5 Inhibition of bacterial topoisomerase
Inhibition of RNA-dependent protein synthesis by binding to the 50s ribosomal subunit Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic. It binds the bacterial 50s ribosomal subunit and inhibits RNA-dependent protein synthesis.
32
Which of the following would be an important diagnostic sign of this non-infectious disorder? 1 Lacrimal gland enlargement 2 Periungual fibromas 3 Cafe-au-lait macules 4 Peg shaped teeth 5 Dystopia canthorum
Lacrimal gland enlargement Sarcoidosis is a non-infectious granulomatous disorder of unclear etiology. Ocular manifestation are relatively common in sarcoidosis and may include acute anterior uveitis (classic finding), posterior uveitis, lacrimal gland enlargement, and conjuctival nodules.
33
Which of the following is most associated with pruritus? 1 Purpura annularis telangiectodes 2 Gougerot–Blum syndrome (pigmented purpuric lichenoid dermatitis) 3 Lichen aureus 4 Schamberg\'s disease 5 Ducas and Kapetanakis pigmented purpura
Ducas and Kapetanakis pigmented purpura Ducas and Kapetanakis pigmented purpura presents as eczematous patches with petechiae and hemosiderin staining. Pruritus is common, and the lesions are often more extensive than the other pigmented purpuras. Histologically, spongiosis is noted. The other listed pigmented purpuric eruptions tend to be asymptomatic, although lesions of Schamberg\'s disease can rarely be associated with itch.
34
Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of neonatal lupus erythematosus: 1 Renal disease 2 Cerebral vascular accident 3 Arthritis 4 Thrombocytopenia 5 Neutrophilia
Thrombocytopenia Neonatal lupus involves annular scaling macules and plaques appearing within the first few months of life in babies born to mothers with LE or other autoimmune connective tissue diseases. In addition to the rash, babies display congenital heart block, hepatic disease, and thrombocytopenia.
35
Immunohistochemistry of this disease would likely show: 1 Perivascular IgA 2 IgM staining of colloid bodies 3 Linear band of IgA at the basement membrane 4 IgM intercellularly 5 Granular C3 at the basement membrane
IgM staining of colloid bodies Colloid bodies are apoptotic cell remnants in the papillary dermis. In lichen planus, the colloid bodies will often stain positively with IgM.
36
The most notable histologic difference between the oral and cutaneous lesions of lichen planus is the presence in oral LP of: 1 Acanthosis 2 Parakeratosis 3 Compact orthokeratosis 4 Wedge-shaped hypergranulosis 5 Vacuolar changes at the basal layer
Parakeratosis This slide shows lichen planus of the buccal mucosa. Mucosal surfaces lack a granular layer. Parakeratosis, rather than compact orthokeratosis, is prominent.
37
What is the most common site of extracutaneous involvement in this non-infectious disease? 1 Lungs 2 Eyes 3 Bone Marrow 4 Liver 5 Nasal mucosa
Lungs Sarcoidosis is a non-infectious granulomatous disorder of unclear etiology. It has a predilection for the lungs (90%), lymph nodes (75-90%), eyes (25%), nasal mucosa (20%), bone marrow (25-40%), and liver (15-40%).
38
Presence of which of the following autoantibodies is diagnostic of SLE and not reported in patients with other connective tissue diseases? 1 anti-U1RNP 2 anti-dsDNA 3 anti-Ro 4 anti-La 5 anti-Sm
anti-Sm Anti-Sm is diagnostic of SLE and not reported in patients with other connective tissue diseases. It is found in 15-40% of patients with SLE. Most patients with anti-Sm also have antibodies to U1RNP, but the converse is not true. anti-U1RNP is found in 100% of patients with MCTD and in 30% of patients with SLE (the majority of patients with positive U1RNP have SLE rather than MCTD). Anti-dsDNA correlates with renal involvement in SLE. Anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies are found in LE and Sjogren's, and strongly associated with photosensitivity.
39
All of the following drugs have been reported to cause rash similar to the attached image except 1 Hydroxyurea 2 D-penicillamine 3 Statins 4 Phenytoin 5 Captopril
Captopril The image shows symmetrical erthematous to violaceous plaque on dorsal hands with some periungual erythema and telangiectasia. Skin biopsy was consistent with interface dermatitis and mucin. Many drugs have been reported to cause dermatomyositis-like picture, which include hydroxyurea, D-penicillamine, statins, phenytoin and alfuzosin (alpha antagonist for BPH). Captopril is not associated with DM-like rash.
40
What bacteria is thought to possibly play a role in the pathogenesis of this disease? 1 B. burgdorferi 2 H. pylori 3 E. coli 4 S. aureus 5 S. enteritidis
B. burgdorferi Morphea is a inflammatory disease primarily of the dermis and subcutaneous fat that ultimately leads to a scar like sclerosis. Clinically, morphea can be divided into plaque, linear, and generalized. There is some thought that Borrelia infection may play a role in morphea. mRNA specific for Borrelia has been found in some lesions of morphea. This association however is controversial.
41
Patients with Gottron�s papules and periungual telangiectasias will likely have a positive serologic test to which antibody? 1 Anti-SM 2 Scl-70 3 Anti-Ro 4 Anti-centromere 5 Anti- Jo-1
Anti- Jo-1 Gottron's papules and periungual telangiectasias (Samitz's sign) are among the cutaneous features of dermatomyositis, which also include heliotrope rash, photosensitive poikiloderma of the upper back (shawl sign). Anti-Jo-1 antibody is present in 20-30% of these patients. The target antigen is anti-histidyl-tRNA synthetase (Jo-1). The presence of this antibody corresponds to the development of pulmonary disease.
42
The most important mediator of retinoid activity in the skin is: 1 RAR-alpha 2 RAR-beta 3 RAR-gamma 4 RXR-alpha 5 RXR-beta
RAR-gamma Retinoid activity in humans is mediated by retinoid receptors. Two groups exist: RA receptors (RAR) and RX receptors (RXR). Each has three receptor subtypes: alpha, beta, and gamma. RAR-gamma is the most important mediator of retinoid activity in the skin.
43
Acneiform eruptions have been associated with which of the following vitamins? 1 Vitamin C 2 Vitamin E 3 Vitamin A 4 Biotin 5 Vitamin B12
Vitamin B12 Vitamin B12 can cause acneiform eruptions.
44
What is the most likely diagnosis? 1 Voight line 2 Linea nigra 3 Fuchter line 4 Phytophotodermatitis 5 Incontinentia pigmenti
Linea nigra Linea nigra is a hyperpigmented, linear patch that often becomes apparent during pregnancy. It is thought to be secondary to hormonal fluctuations and usually spontaneously resolves after pregnancy. Voight and Fuchter lines delineate a vestigial hyperpigmentation of the dorsal aspect of organisms.
45
What is the treatment of choice for this condition: 1 Topical antifungal medication 2 High potency topical steroid 3 Topical antibiotic cream 4 Oral antibiotic 5 Excision
High potency topical steroid The condition depicted is lichen sclerosus et atrophicus which most commonly affects the genital region. High potency topical steroids are the treatment of choice.
46
The pigmentation shown here is most likely due to which of the following drugs? 1 Chloroquine 2 Amiodarone 3 Minocycline 4 Doxycycline 5 TMP-SMX
Minocycline This slide shows blue-gray discoloration at the anterior shins and is characteristic of minocycline hyperpigmentation.
47
Which antibody is specific for CREST syndrome? 1 Anti-mitochondrial 2 Anti-histone 3 Anti-ds DNA 4 Anti-nucleolar 5 Anti-centromere
Anti-centromere The antinuclear antibody (ANA) pattern most specific for CREST is the anti-centromere pattern. The specificity rate is approximately 50-90% and carries a more favorable prognosis than Scl-70. The target protein for the anti-centromere pattern is the kinetochore.
48
One of your acne patients has been treated with doxycycline for several months and develops culture positive gram negative folliculitis. What is the next appropriate therapy 1 Tetracycline 2 Bactrim 3 Isotretinoin 4 Ceftriaxone 5 Cefepime
Isotretinoin Gram negative folliculitis may occur after prolonged systemic antibiotic use for acne vulgaris. It should be suspected in patients who develop a sudden acneiform eruption after having been stable for some time. The treatment of choice is isotretinoin.
49
What is deposited in the upper dermis in this condition? 1 AK 2 AL 3 Transthyretin 4 Beta2-microglobulin 5 AA
AK Lichen Amyloidosis is a primary cutaneous amyloidosis. Deposits of amyloid of believed to be derived from necrotic keratinocytes. AL deposits are seen in systemic amyloidosis which is usually associated with a monoclonal gammopathy or myeloma and the amyloid is derived from immunoglobulin light chains. Amyloid deposits composed of AA are seen in secondary systemic amyloidosis such as familial Mediterranean fever and Muckle Wells syndrome, amyloid deposits composed of transthyretin are seen in familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy and amyloid deposits composed of Beta2-microglobulin are seen in hemodialysis patients
50
An overweight, post-menopausal woman presents with intense pain in the fatty deposits on her knees, thighs and hips. She also describes swelling of her hands and feet, associated fatigue, and history of depression. On clinical exam the pain in the adipose tissue appears out of proportion to the clinical findings. The diagnosis is: 1 Angiolipomas 2 Adiposis dolorosa 3 Congenital lipodystrophy 4 Lipodermatosclerosis 5 Erythema nodosum
``` Adiposis dolorosa Adiposis dolorosa (Dercum\'s disease) is a disorder that usually occurs in obese women 40 to 60 years of age, and it is characterized by pain in adipose tissue that appears to be out of proportion to the physical findings. The pain can be localized to multiple, painful lipomas on lower extremities and knees. This condition is accompanied by swelling of different areas of the body, such as hand and feet, which may be transient. Patients typically have subjective fatigue or confusion, and may have history of depression or emotional instability. The cause of adiposis dolorosa is not known. The cause of the pain is speculated to be due to the pressure on nerves by the adipose tissue deposits. Therapeutic treatments are not very effective, and can involved procedures such as liposuction, systemic corticosteroids, pregabalin, lidocaine, and psychiatric care. ```
51
A 28 year old previously healthy man presents with thick crusting/hyperkeratosis of the palms and soles, urethritis, and one month of peripheral arthritis. What of the following is true regarding his condition 1 Females and males are equally affected 2 A chronic deforming arthritis occurs in 20% 3 TNF-alpha inhibiting agents have no role in the treatment of this condition 4 Patients must have urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis for diagnosis 5 Clamydia cervicitis is not associated with this condition
A chronic deforming arthritis occurs in 20% The patient has Reiter's syndrome. Reiter's syndrome is a chronic inflammatory disease similar to psoriasis with psoriatic arthritis, and is though to be a variant form. The classic triad includes urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis. Few patients present with the classic triad, and thus the syndrome can be diagnosed with peripheral arthritis for greater then one month duration and rarely occurs in women. Skin findings include keratoderma blennorrhagicum and circinate balanitis (in men), as well as oral erosions, sever stomatitis, and nail changes. Chronic deforming arthritis occurs in 20% of patients. Treatments include topical steroids, NSAIDs, methotrexate, acitretin, cyclosporin, and TNF-inhibiting biologics such as etanercept.
52
Which of the following medications is most likely to induce a flare of this patient's disease? 1 ciprofloxacin 2 captopril 3 diphenhydramine 4 sertraline 5 acetominophen
captopril Medications that have been reported to cause flares of psoriasis include antimalarials, beta blockers, NSAIDS, penicillin, tetracycline, ACE inhibitors, G-CSF, interferons and lithium. In addition, withdrawal from systemic corticosteroids can induce a flare.
53
Bullous lupus erythematosus is most commonly associated with antibodies to: 1 Type IV collagen 2 Laminin 5 3 Desmoglein I 4 Plectin 5 Type VII collagen
Type VII collagen Type VII collagen is found in the sublamina densa and patients with bullous lupus erythematosus have been found to have antibodies to this protein. Bullous LE and EBA share antibasement membrane zone antibodies of identical specificity (type VII collagen) as well as clinical and histologic overlap. A differentiating feature between bullous LE and EBA is that bullous LE has a dramatic response to dapsone. These interactions promote epidermal adhesion and also play a key role in a number of dermatologic diseases. Important molecular interactions include those between: (1) plakin family members, BPAG1 and plectin, with keratin intermediate filaments; (2) the former with BPAG2 and integrin α6β4 (specifically, the large cytoplasmic domain of integrin subunit β4); (3) the cytoplasmic domains of BPAG2 and integrin subunit β4; (4) the extracellular domains of BPAG2 and integrin subunit α6 as well as laminin 5; (5) integrin α6β4 in hemidesmosomes and laminin 5 in the lamina densa; (6) laminin 5 and type VII collagen; (7) type VII collagen with type IV collagen, fibronectin, and type I collagen in the sublamina densa region.
54
Acquired C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency results in: 1 A normal level of serum C1q 2 A decreased level of serum C1q 3 None of these answers are correct 4 A presentation of angioedema very early in life 5 A normal level of C4
A decreased level of serum C1q Acquired C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency occurs in the setting of lymphoproliferative disease, monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance, or rheumatologic disease and results in a decreased serum C1q level. Inherited C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency shows an autosomal dominant inheritance, and earlier presentation, and a normal level of serum C1q. In the inherited disease, the C1 esterase inhibitor may display normal levels but be functionally impaired.
55
The risk of developing systemic involvement in a patIent with nodular amyloidosis is: 1 1-4% 2 5-10% 3 25-30% 4 50-60% 5 \>95%
5-10% Nodular amyloidosis is a rare type of primary cutaneous amyloidosis made up of AL protein. The risk for systemic involvement is 7%.
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A 42 year-old woman has the findings pictured, as well as erythematous patches on the upper chest and shoulders. No Raynaud's, polyarthritis, pulmonary, or cardiac involvement is noted. Which antibody might you expect to be present in this patient? 1 Anti-SRB 2 Anti-Jo-1 3 Anti-Mi-2 4 Anti-Ku 5 Anti-La
Anti-Mi-2 This patient has dermatomyositis. **_Anti-Mi-2**_ antibodies in DM correlate with the presence of a _**shawl sign_**, **_cuticular_** **_changes_,** and **_good prognosis_**. **_Anti-Jo-1**_ antibodies correlate with _**pulmonary fibrosis, Raynaud's, and polyarthritis_**. **_Anti-SRP**_ antibodies correlate with _**cardiac**_ disease and _**poor prognosis_**. **_Anti-Ku**_ antibodies correlate with _**sclerodermatomyositis_**. **_Anti-La**_ antibodies correlate with _**Sjogren's syndrome_**.
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Which autoantibodies are associated with an increased risk of malignancy in dermatomyositis? 1 anti-SRP 2 anti-Mi2 3 Anti-Jo1 4 anti-155/140 5 anti-PL-7
anti-155/140 **_Anti-155/140**_ has been associated with an increased risk of _**malignancy_** in dermatomyositis patients. **_Anti-SRP**_ is associated with _**fulminant dermatomyositis/polymyositis**_ and _**cardia_**c involvement; **_anti-Mi2**_ is associated with the _**shawl sign, periungual telangiectasias, cuticular overgrowth,**_ and _**Gottrons papules_**; **_anti-Jo1**_ and _**anti-PL-7**_ are associated with _**antisynthetase syndrome**_ and _**interstitial lung disease_**.
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What is the minimum amount of time that you would advise this woman to avoid childbearing after completing a course of isotretinoin? 1 1 week 2 1 month 3 6 months 4 1 year 5 3 years
1 month Isotretinoin is a synthetic retinoid that is used primarily in the treatment of acne. Isotretinoin has a half-life of approximately 20 hours. Women should be advised to avoid becoming pregnant for at least one month.
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Which immunoglobulins are seen in type III cryoglobulinemia? 1 Monoclonal IgG and monoclonal IgM 2 Monoclonal IgG or monoclonal IgM 3 Monoclonal IgM and polyclonal IgG 4 Polyclonal IgM and monoclonal IgG 5 Polyclonal IgM and polyclonal IgG
``` Polyclonal IgM and polyclonal IgG Type III (mixed) cryoglobulinemia consists of rheumatoid factors that are polyclonal IgM and IgG, complexed with each other or with protein. Type II (mixed) cryoglobulinemia consists of monoclonal IgM rheumatoid factor complexed with polyclonal IgG. Type I cryoglobulinemia consists of a single monoclonal immunoglobulin, usually IgG or IgM, usually due to an underlying B-cell malignancy (myeloma or lymphoma). ```
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In addition to the lesions seen on the feet of this young man he also had geographic tongue, erythematous plaques on his penis and arthritis, what HLA type is associated with this syndrome? 1 HLA-B27 2 HLA-B51 3 HLA-DR1 4 HLA-DR3 5 HLA-DQW2
HLA-B27 Reiter syndrome, now referred to as reactive arthritis (ReA), is a condition that most often occurs following enteric or urogenital infections. Reactive arthritis is associated with human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-B27, although HLA-B27 is not always present in individuals who are HIV+. Bacteria associated with reactive arthritis are generally enteric or venereal and include the following: Shigella flexneri, Salmonella typhimurium, Salmonella enteritidis, Streptococcus viridans, Mycoplasma pneumonia, Cyclospora, Chlamydia trachomatis, Yersinia enterocolitica, and Yersinia pseudotuberculosis.
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Carcinoma of which of the following has been most associated with erythema gyratum repens 1 Lung cancer 2 Breast cancer 3 Colon cancer 4 Prostate cancer 5 Upper GI tract cancer
Lung cancer 80% of cases of erythema gyratum repens have been associated with underlying malignancy. Lung cancer is the most common neoplasm. The skin eruption preceedes the detection of malignancy by an average of 9 months
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A child has a cutaneous ossification disorder characterized by endochondral bone formation, deafness, baldness, and mental retardation. Which form of osteoma cutis does this patient have? 1 Fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva 2 Progressive osseous heteroplasia 3 Plate-like osteoma cutis 4 Albright's hereditary osteodystrophy 5 Calcinosis cutis
Fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva This patient has fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva characterized by endochondral bone formation (the other types have intramembranous bone formation), noggin gene defects and other systemic symptoms as listed. This is a progressive and potentially fatal condition. Progressive osseous heteroplasia is also progressive, seen in mostly females, and demonstrates increased alkaline phosphatase, LDH and CPK with normal calcium, phosphate, and PTH. Plate-like osteoma cutis is limited and seen in children and newborns. Albright's hereditary osteodystrophy is due to a mutation in GNAS-1. This disorder is characterized by a lack of responsiveness to parathyroid hormone, resulting in low serum calcium, high serum phosphate, and appropriately high serum parathyroid hormone. Individuals with Albright's hereditary osteodystrophy have short stature, characteristically shortened fourth and fifth metacarpals, rounded facies, and often mild mental retardation. Calcinosis cutis is not a form of osteoma cutis.
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Efficacy of oral contraceptives is reduced by co-administration with which of the following drugs? 1 Minocycline 2 Doxycycline 3 Rifampin 4 TMP-SMX 5 All of these answers are correct.
Rifampin Rifampin is a potent hepatic microenzyme inducer and has been shown to reduce efficacy of oral contraceptives. Anecdotal reports of decreased contraceptive efficacy on oral antibiotics have not been confirmed in the literature. The putative mechanism is decreased absorption of hormones secondary to altered gut microflora.
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Most common cause of these tender lesions on this 12-year old child is 1 Inflammatory bowel disease 2 Tuberculosis 3 Îbeta-hemolytic streptococcal infection 4 Yersinia 5 Infectious mononucleosis
Îbeta-hemolytic streptococcal infection The picture shows classical case of erythema nodosum (EN). Although all other choices in question cause EN, the most common in the pediatric patient is beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection (especially pharyngitis). The management of erythema nodosum is directed at identification and treatment of the underlying cause. Minimal evaluation usually involves obtaining an ASO/DNase B titer, chest radiograph, and tuberculin testing. Bed rest, with elevation of the patient's legs, helps reduce pain and edema. When pain, inflammation, or arthralgia is prominent, NSAIDs can be prescribed. Salicylates, colchicine, and potassium iodide are the most commonly used alternative therapies.
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A 35 year old man has a history of intensely pruritic papules and vesicles on the extensor surfaces of his lower extremities. Antibodies to epidermal transglutaminase are detected. What is this patient at risk for developing? 1 Non-Hodgkin lymphoma 2 Colon cancer 3 Lung cancer 4 CLL 5 Esophageal cancer
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma A number of studies have indicated an increased risk of non-Hodgkins lymphoma and enteropathy T-cell lymphoma in patients with dermatitis herpetiformis. There is also increased prevalence of thyroid disease, type I diabetes, and other autoimmune disorders, such as vitiligo, Addison's, and alopecia areata.
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Sweet's syndrome may be caused by: 1 Bleomycin 2 Cytoxan 3 Granulocyte colony stimulating factor 4 Intravenous immune globulin 5 Methotrexate
Granulocyte colony stimulating factor Sweet's syndrome is a dramatic skin disease characterized by eruptions of tender, pseudovesicular coalescing papules and plaques most commonly appearing on the face, neck and upper trunk. It is seen in association with fever, leukocytosis and typically responds promptly to systemic steroid therapy. Cutaneous pathergy has been described. The etiology of Sweet's syndrome is unclear. A hypersensitivity reaction to a bacterial, viral or tumor antigen has been postulated. Nearly 20% of cases are seen in association with an underlying malignancy, particularly hematologic malignancies, with acute myelogenous leukemia being the most common. In addition, drug-related variants of Sweet's syndrome have been described. The following drugs have been implicated: granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF), all-trans retinoic acid, hydralazine, carbamazepine, levonorgestrel/ethinyl estradiol, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, and minocycline. Edema of the upper dermis is marked. There is a primarily neurtophilic perivascular infiltrate in the mid dermis with a few mononuclear cells and eosinophils. The capillaries show endothelial swelling with some leukocytoclasia but no frank vasculitis. symmetric edematous violaceous plaques some with central pustules
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Acrokeratosis paraneoplastica is most commonly associated with which of the following malignancies: 1 Squamous cell carcinoma 2 Adenocarcinoma 3 Transitional cell carcinoma 4 T-cell lymphoma 5 Breast cancer
Squamous cell carcinoma Acrokeratosis paraneoplastica, also known as Bazex’s syndrome, is a rare paraneoplastic syndrome. Clinically, it appears as symmetric, hyperkeratotic lesions on red base, in an acral distribution, nose and helices of the ears. Most commonly associated with upper aerodigestive tract tumors. Treatment of the tumor leads to disappearance of lesions. A 70 year old man developed a psoriasiform dermatitis of the fingers, toes and ears (helix). He had a destructive nail dystrophy. A few weeks later the patient also developed cervical adenopathy. Otolaryngologic investigations revealed a layngeal squamous cell carcinoma.The Bazex syndrome or acrokeratosis paraneoplastica is a rare dermatosos associated with carcinomas of the upper aerodigestive tract with possible lymph node mestastases. The cutaneous lesions occuring in the syndrome are non metastatic skin involvment. The psoriasiform lesions often precede the diagnosis of the associated malignancy, or occur simultaneously. The reapparance of skin lesions may signal a recurrence of the tumor. Treatment consists in treatment of the underlying cancer. In some cases, acitretin or oral psoralen phototherapy could be prescribed. Description symmetric erythematous scaly patches with yellowing and scaling of the nails
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The dermatosis pictured is most commonly associated with: 1 Insulin resistance 2 Cushing's syndrome 3 Acromegaly 4 Polycystic ovarian syndrome 5 Gastric carcinoma
Insulin resistance Insulin resistance is the most common cause of acanthosis nigricans. Insulin-like growth factors, produced by the liver in response to high levels of circulating insulin, bind epidermal growth factor receptors to produce thickening of the epidermis and hyperkeratosis. Cushing's syndrome, acromegaly and polycystic ovarian syndrome are associated with acanthosis nigricans, although less common than insulin resistance. Paraneoplastic acanthosis nigricans is associated with gastrointestinal carcinoma, classically gastric carcinoma.
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Which of the following cytokines is associated with follicular plugging and microcomedo formation? 1 IL-4 2 IL-13 3 TNF-á 4 IL-1 5 TGF-ooo
IL-1 IL-1 is a pro-inflammatory cytokine that has been associated with follicular plugging and microcomedo formation.
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The causative organism for mucocutaneous leishmaniasis is: 1 Leishmania aethiopica 2 Leishmania infantum 3 Leishmania brasiliensis 4 Leishmania tropica 5 Leishmania major
Leishmania brasiliensis Mucocutaneous disease is most commonly caused by New World species, although Old World L aethiopica has been reported to cause this syndrome. Infection by Leishmania viannia braziliensis may lead to mucosal involvement in up to 10% of infections depending on the region in which it was acquired. Initial infection is characterized by a persistent cutaneous lesion that eventually heals, although as many as 30% of patients report no prior evidence of leishmaniasis. Several years later, oral and respiratory mucosal involvement occurs, causing inflammation and mutilation of the nose, mouth, oropharynx, and trachea. This 68-year-old woman developed destruction of the nose, soft palate and central hard palate resulting in difficulty with breathing following scarring from leishmaniasis. Description destruction of the nose and scarring of the hard palate
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Which allergen is the most likely cause of this eyelid dermatitis? 1 Mercaptobenzothiazole 2 Ethyleneurea melamine formaldehyde 3 Ethylenediamine dihydrochloride 4 Tosylonamide formaldehyde resin 5 Benzalkonium chloride
Tosylonamide formaldehyde resin Tosylonomide formaldehyde resin is found nail polish and is a common cause of eyelid dermatitis in women.
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The majority of patients with positive U1RNP autoantibodies have which diagnosis? 1 Mixed connective tissue disorder (MCTD) 2 Rheumatoid arthritis 3 Systemic lupus erythematosus 4 Sjogren's syndrome 5 Dermatomyositis
Systemic lupus erythematosus Anti-U1RNP is found in 100% of patients with MCTD and in 30% of patients with SLE; patients with SLE and anti-U1RNP also have other positive serologies. The majority of patients with positive U1RNP have SLE rather than MCTD. The presence of U1RNP autoantibodies is associated with sclerodactyly, Raynaud's, and esophageal dysmotility. A healthy 9-year-old girl with systemic lupus erythematosys in remission developed an acute flare of cutaneous lesions after intensive early spring sun exposure. Although she had no evidence of systemic disease, she also complained of painful ulcers on the palate, tongue,and lips. Description photodistributed symmetric red scaly papules and patches
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A 22 year-old woman notes irregular menses and acne that has been refractory to several over-the-counter and prescription regimens. Appropriate initial work-up includes 1 Serum prolactin levels 2 24-hour urine cortisol 3 Serum free and total testosterone, LH, FSH, androstenedione 4 Serum free and total testosterone, LH, FSH, DHEA-S 5 Serum free and total testosterone, LH, FSH, 17-OH, hydroxylase
Serum free and total testosterone, LH, FSH, DHEA-S The history and clinical appearance of this patient suggest a possible hormonal basis to her acne. The work-up in answer d assesses for adrenal hormonal production and screens for PCOS. Androstenedione is of ovarian origin. This 31-year-old woman had a 2 year history of male pattern growth of terminal hair on her face, chest, and areolae. Hormonal assays showed increased levels of total testosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone and the abdominal ultrasound revealed changes typical of polycystic ovaries. She was treated with long term oral birth control pills (Diane 35). Description coarse dark male pattern terminal hair
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Histologic examination of this chronic pruritic plaque on the back, which of the following stains would NOT be positive? 1 Von Kossa 2 Cotton dyes 3 Crystal violet 4 PAS 5 Thioflavin T
Von Kossa Macular amyloid is a form of keratin derived amyloid, which is typically located between the shoulder blades. Many stains are used to identify amyloid in the skin including Congo red, cotton dyes, crystal violet, PAS and thioflavin T. A 27 year old woman with chronic pruritis associated with Alagille syndrome since early childhood developed uniform pruritic lichenoid papules on her shins. Histopathology showed typical changes of lichen amyloidosis. Description uniform 2 mm flat topped skin colored to hypopigmented papules
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Which of the following is a feature of Schnitzler's Syndrome? 1 Monoclonal IgG gammopathy 2 Thromboembolic events 3 Bronchospasm 4 Hematuria 5 Sensorimotor neuropathy
Sensorimotor neuropathy Schnitzler's syndrome presents as episodes of urticarial vasculitis that occur in association with a monoclonal IgM M component. Fever, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, bone pain, and sensorimotor neuropathy also occur. 56 yo female presents with chronic urticaria, intermittent fever, lymphadenopathy, hip pain. Elevated sedimentation rate and IgM kappa monoclonal gammopathy. Thought to be due to chronic activation of IL-1 alpa
76
What name is commonly used to describe this condition of nodular elastosis with cysts and comedones? 1 Actinic granuloma 2 Chlorance 3 Cutis rhomboidalis nuchae 4 Colloid milium 5 Favre-Racouchot
Favre-Racouchot Favre-Racouchot syndrome is a condition that generally affects elderly white males with history of chronic sun exposure and smoking. It is characterized by multiple open comedones on the temples and forehead with a background of actinincally damaged skin.
77
Which contact allergen is found in Krazy glue? 1 Formaldehyde 2 Lanolin alchohol 3 Ethyl cyanoacrylate 4 Octyl-dimethyl-paba 5 Mercaptobenzothiazole
Ethyl cyanoacrylate Ethyl cyanoacrylate is a chemical found in Krazy Glue. It can also be found in nail adhesives causing a dermatitis on the face and fingers, nail dystrophy, and a generalized rash. Formaldehyde is a widely used chemical found in a variety of applications and is a common allergen. It can be found in paper, skin and hair products, cosmetics, and permanent press textiles. Lanolin alcohol is found in wool fat, wool wax, adhesives, cosmetics and pharmaceuticals. Octyl-dimethyl-paba is a chemical found in sunscreens and is the most frequently used PABA group sunscreen. Mercaptobenzothiazole is a rubber accelerant and is the most common allergen found in dermatitis to shoes. It is also found in veterinarian products such as flea and tick sprays and powders. Mercapotbenzothiazole can also be found in cutting oil, antifreeze, fungicides and photographic film emulsions.
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What is the most common paraproteinemia in scleromyxedema? 1 IgA 2 IgG kappa 3 IgG lambda 4 IgM 5 It is extremely uncommon to see a paraproteinemia with scleromyxedema
IgG lambda An abnormal paraproteinemia is found in 90% of cases of scleromyxedema, usually IgG lamda. This 45-year-old woman developed progressive acral skin induration. She had no evidence of Raynaud phenomenon, calcinosis cutis, esophageal reflux, or telangiectasias. A biopsy showed changes typical of scleromyxedema, and urinary and serum protein electrophoresis were normal. Description diffuse induration with a pebbly texture and fine scale
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Syndrome that is associated with disease shown in image is known as 1 SAPHO syndrome 2 Follicular occlusion tetrad syndrome 3 LEOPARD syndrome 4 NAME syndrome 5 PAPA syndrome
``` PAPA syndrome PAPA syndrome ( Pyogenic Arthritis, Pyoderma gangerosum and Acne) The image shows classic ulcerative pyoderma gangrenosum with undermined violaceous gray border. Re-epithelialization occurs from the margins and the ulcer heal usually with atrophic cribriform pigmented scar. Although the classic morphologic clinical presentation of pyoderma gangrenosum is an ulceration, there are several variants (bullous, pustular, and superficial granulomatous) which differ by their clinical presentation, location, and associated diseases. ``` SAPHO A 37-year-old woman with a history of palmoplantar pustulosis presented with severe chest pain. The patient was first diagnosed with palmoplantar pustulosis at the age of 36 and soon afterwards suffered from upper chest pain. Although the pain and skin lesion had been relieved for three years after excision of the left first sternocostal articulation, she experienced subsequent relapse of sternal pain and palmoplantar pustulosis. Medication for rheumatoid arthritis, such as prednisolone, bucillamine, and methotrexate, or antibiotic therapy failed to ameliorate the symptoms. At the age of 45, she underwent palatine tonsillectomy with resolution of symptoms. At present, the patient has neither palmoplantar skin lesions nor sternal pain. Description symmetric thick scaly red acral plaques studded with pustules
80
Pilomatricomas has been associated with which of the following conditions? 1 Acute myelogenous leukemia 2 Multiple sclerosis 3 Crohns Disease 4 Myotonic dystrophy 5 Pneumothorax
Myotonic dystrophy Answer D. Pilomatricomas are benign tumors that are derived from hair matrix cells. This tumor presents more frequently in children as a solitary asympotmatic purple red papule or nodule usually on the head and neck. Mutations in beta catenin is associated with the development of these tumors. Multiple pilomatricomas may be a marker for the development of myotonic dystrophy. This rare disorder is AD, and is associated with difficulty relaxing muscles after contraction. In a review of patients with this disorder, patients tended to have mulitple pilomatricomas. Pilomatricomas can also be found with Turner syndrome, Rubinstein-Taybi, and Churg Strauss syndromes.
81
Which genodermatosis may be associated with this plaque of skin between the shoulder blades with rippled hyperpigmented appearance? 1 Cowden syndrome 2 Peutz-Jeghers syndrome 3 Gardner syndrome 4 Sipple syndrome 5 Dyskeratosis Congentia
Sipple syndrome The image depicts a case of macular amyloid with the typical reticulated or rippled hyperpigmentation. MAcular amyloid may be found in Sipple syndrome, also called MEN IIa. Other features of MEN IIa include pheochromocytoma, parathyroid cancer and pancreatic cancer.
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Which of the following is true regarding atopic dermatitis? 1 Over 80% of affected individuals present in the first year of life 2 Natural measles infection has been noted to improve atopic dermatitis 3 Most children develop worsening of atopic dermatitis if they develop asthma later in childhood 4 Staphylococcus aureus is found in ~25% of atopic dermatitis skin lesions 5 Increased expression of cathelicidins such as LL 37 has been noted in atopic dermatitis
Natural measles infection has been noted to improve atopic dermatitis Natural measles infection has been noted to improve atopic dermatitis. Atopic dermatitis typically begins in infancy, with ~50% in the first year of life and an additional 30% between 1 and 5 years. Most children with AD eventually develop allergic rhinitis or asthma later in childhood. Many outgrow AD as respiratory allergy develops. S. aureus is found in over 90% of AD skin lesions. Decreased expression of innate antimicrobial peptides, such as human beta-defensin and cathelicidins, such as LL 37, may explain the increased susceptibility to colonization and skin infection with S. aureus in patients with atopic dermatitis.
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Lacrimal gland involvement is characteristically seen in patients with: 1 Lymphoma 2 Sarcoid 3 Rosacea 4 Syphilis 5 Pemphigus
Sarcoid Sarcoid is granulomatous autoimmune condition characterized by the formation of non-caseating granulomas which may affect any organ system. Lacrimal gland involvement occurs in 15-28% of patients. Manifestation of lacrimal gland involvement includes bilateral painless swelling.
84
The main cause of nutritional disease in developed nations is: 1 Unusual diets 2 Inflammatory bowel disease 3 Malabsorption syndromes 4 Alcoholism 5 Psychiatric illness
Alcoholism Alcoholism is the main cause of nutritional disease in developed nations. Other conditions that cause nutritional disease include: unusual diets, postoperative state, psychiatric illness, inflammatory bowel disease, cystic fibrosis, surgical bowel dysfunction, and inborn errors of metabolism.
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Which of the following is not a common food or environmental allergen implicated in atopic dermatitis? 1 Dermatophagoides pteronyssimus 2 Wheat 3 Corn 4 Eggs 5 Fish
Corn While most AD patients do not have food allergy, food allergens exacerbate AD in at least a subset of patients, particularly infants and young children. Eggs, milk, peanuts, soybeans, tree nuts, fish, and wheat are the most common food allergens implicated. Dust mites (Dermatophagoides pteronyssimus) are among the environmental allergens that may exacerbate AD.
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The most effective treatment for symptomatic ocular rosacea is: 1 Lubricant eye drops 2 Combination topical antibiotic and corticosteroid eye drops 3 Dilute baby shampoo washes 4 Doxycycline 5 Artificial tears
Doxycycline The most definitive treatment for symptomatic ocular rosacea is an oral tetracycline.
87
Which of the following medications is NOT associated with exacerbating or causing this eruption? 1 Lithium 2 Prednisone 3 Phenytoin 4 Isoniazid 5 Propranolol
Propranolol Acne and acneiform eruptions can be caused or exacerbated by cortiosteroids, oral contraceptives, androgens, ACTH, lithium, phenytoin, halogens, INH, and haloperidol.
88
Almost all patients with SLE have positive ANAs. A patient can have ANA-negative SLE if they only make antibodies to: 1 ssDNA 2 Sm 3 U1RNP 4 Ro 5 dsDNA
ssDNA ANA-negative SLE is uncommon. The ANA has a high negative predictive value and low positive predictive value. ANA-negative SLE can result if a patient only makes antibodies to ssDNA, which is not detected by most tests.
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Which statement best describes the mechanism of action of spironolactone? 1 Non-steroid inhibitor of DHT binding to the androgen receptor 2 Progestin 3 GnRH agonist 4 Mineralocorticoid 5 Steroid inhibitor of androgen receptor and androgen biosynthesis
Steroid inhibitor of androgen receptor and androgen biosynthesis Spironolactone is a steroid molecule. It acts as an anti-androgen by blocking the androgen receptor and inhibiting androgen synthesis.
90
Kveim-Siltzback test is useful in the diagnosis of: 1 Scarlet fever 2 Sarcoidosis 3 Leprosy 4 Leishmaniasis 5 Chancroid
Sarcoidosis Kveim-Siltzback test is for sarcoidosis, Montenegro-leishmanin test is for Leishmaniasis, and lepromin test or histamine/methacholine sweat test can be used for leprosy. Kveim-Siltzback test is done by intradermal injection of a suspension from granuloma-containing spleen, lymph node, or other tissue from a confirmed case of sarcoidosis. A positive test is characterized by the formation of a papule at the site of injection within 4-6 weeks which, on microscopic examination, exhibits non-necrotizing granulomas and the absence of foreign material. This teast is rarely done nowdays because of the difficulties involved in preparation, standardization and validation of the test material as well as significant variation in the sensitivity and specificity of test suspensions obtained from different sources.
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The diagnosis is: 1 Psoriasis 2 Alopecia areata 3 Onychomycosis 4 Lichen planus 5 Tetracycline-induced photo-onycholysis
Psoriasis This slide depicts nail changes consistent with psoriasis, including onycholysis, subungual debris and pits. Pits in alopecia areata are usually more regularly spaced than in psoriasis. Fungal culture of nail clipping for histologic evidence of onychomycosis is warranted. The main feature of tetracycline-induced photo-onycholysis is onycholysis, rather than chronic nail bed and matrix involvement with psoriasis.
92
Concomitant discoid lupus is found in what percentage of patients with subacute cutaneous lupus? 1 5% 2 20% 3 40% 4 60% 5 80%
20% Sub acute cutaneous lupus presents with scaly papules that evolve into either psoriasiform or polycyclic annular lesions (more commonly). Sun-exposed surfaces of the face and neck are commonly involves. Photo sensitivity is seen in 40%, the hard palate is involved in 40%, and concomitant DLE is seen in 20%.
93
The "flag sign" is seen in which of the following conditions? 1 psoriasis 2 sarcoidosis 3 hidradenitis suppurativa 4 kwashiorkor 5 telogen effluvium
kwashiorkor The "flag sign" is a striking physical finding most readily seen in long and dark hair. Hair that has grown during periods of inadequate nutrition is pale so alternating bands of light and dark can be seen along a single strand (reflecting periods of adequate and inadequate nutrition). The "flag sign" can be seen with other nutritional disorders as well.
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Leukokeratosis nicotina palati: 1 Is not attributed to smoking 2 Represents a premalignant condition 3 Responds to intralesional steroids 4 Represents inflamed minor salivary glands 5 Resolves with tetracycline therapy
Represents inflamed minor salivary glands Leukokeratosis nicotina palati, also called smoker's palate, is a complication of tobacco use, especially pipe smokers. Lesions develop as a result of inflamed minor salivary glands and manifest as uniform keratosis of the hard palate with multiple red, umbilicated papules.
95
In the setting of the lupus erythematosus-associated complement deficiency syndrome, which of the following would most often be observed? 1 low C3 and C4 2 low C2 and C3 3 low C2 and C4 4 low C2 only 5 low C3 only
low C2 and C4 In the complement deficiency syndrome, low C2 and C4 are most commonly seen. Photosensitivity, annular SCLE lesions, and Ro antibody formation are commonly observed.
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The protein component of primary cutaneous amyloidosis is: 1 SAA protein 2 AL protein 3 Keratin 4 Collagen 5 Bp180
Keratin Primary cutaneous amyloidosis presents as either macular or lichen amyloidosis. The protein component is keratin. Macular amyloidosis often presents over the upper back, while lichen amyloid presents over the shins.
97
A 45-year-old woman develops bilateral poikilodermatous patches without atrophy on her lateral thighs. This is most likely a manifestation of what disease? 1 Lupus Erythematosus 2 Dermatomyositis 3 Mycosis Fungoides 4 Hepatitis C 5 Diabetes Mellitus
Dermatomyositis Poikilodermatous changes on the lateral thigh represent the "holster sign" seen in dermatomyositis. The poikilodermatous patches seen in dermatomyositis are often symmetric macular violaceous erythemas with dyspigmentation. Other characteristic poikilodermatous manifestations of dermatomyositis include the "V-sign" on the anterior neck and upper chest and the "shawl sign" on the posterior neck, upper back, and the posterior shoulders. Lesions of Mycosis Fungoides typically have some component of epidermal atrophy.
98
Which of the following is associated with this scarring condition? 1 Thyroid disease 2 Acne conglobata 3 Sarcoidosis 4 Systemic lupus erythematosus 5 Lichen planus
Acne conglobata Dissecting cellulitis is part of the follicular occlusion tetrad which also includes acne conglobata, hidradenitis suppurtiva, and pilonidal cysts.
99
A 62 year-old man with chronic renal failure on hemodialysis presents with carpal tunnel syndrome, bone cysts, and spondyloarthropathy. A diagnosis of amyloidosis is suspected. Which of the following is true regarding his most likely diagnosis? 1 AA amyloid is likely causative 2 AL amyloid is likely causative 3 beta 2-microglobulin is likely causative 4 keratin-derived amyloid is likely causative 5 Amyloid P component will not be found in affected tissues
beta 2-microglobulin is likely causative The patient likely has dialysis-related amyloidosis. In this condition, beta 2-microglobulin is the protein component altered by uremia. Carpal tunnel syndrome, bone cysts, and spondyloarthropathy commonly result. Amyloid P component and ground substance are found in all forms of amyloidosis; the protein-derived amyloid fibers differ among the various forms.
100
The primary component of human sebum is: 1 Triglycerides 2 Free fatty acids 3 Ceramides 4 Cholesterol 5 Squalene
Triglycerides Human sebum is rich in triglycerides. The lipase made by P. acnes cleaves triglycerides to free fatty acids.
101
Acute hemorrhagic edema of childhood often presents initially with: 1 Facial edema 2 Laryngospasm 3 Acute abdomen 4 Hematuria 5 Hematochezia
Facial edema Acute hemorrhagic edema of childhood affects children and infants \< 2 years of age. It presents with painful, edematous petechiae and ecchymoses on the head and distal extremities. Facial edema may be the initial sign. Triggering factors include infection, drugs, and immunization. It lacks systemic features and resolves in 1-3 weeks without sequelae.
102
An elderly gentleman with rheumatoid arthritis has a 2-month history of recurrent painful, red, swollen ears and hearing loss. Physical exam is notable for sparing of the earlobes. You suspect he has: 1 Chondrodermatitis nodularis helices 2 Recurrent otitis externa 3 Relapsing polychondritis 4 Systemic lupus erthematosus 5 Severe seborrheic dermatitis
Relapsing polychondritis Relapsing polychondritis is a rare disease manifested by recurring inflammation of cartilaginous tissue. Antibodies to type II collagen are thought to be pathogenic in this disease. Clinically, patients have auricular chondritis and arthritis. The chondritis is limited to the cartilaginous portion of the external ears. Involvement of the cartilaginous portions of the eye, respiratory tract, the inner ear, and the cardiovascular system has been reported as well. A significant portion of patients with relapsing polychondritis have an associated rheumatic or autoimmune disease.
103
A patient presents with cutaneous lesions suggestive of sarcoidosis. You consider ordering a serum ACE level to help with the diagnosis. What is the sensitivity and specificity of checking an ace level in this pt? 1 Sensitivity: 60 Specificity: 80 2 Sensitivity: 90 Specificity: 60 3 Sensitivity: 95 Specificity: 80 4 Sensitivity: 60 Specificity: 60 5 Sensitivity: 90 Specificity: 25
Sensitivity: 60 Specificity: 80 Serum ACE levels are positive in only approximately 60% of patients with sarcoidosis. However the specificity is only 80%. Therefore, serum ace levels are less helpful in diagnosis (they can be helpful in following treatment response.) For example, if your pretest clinical suspicion of sarcoidosis is 25% (i.e. 1 of 4 likely possible etiologies based on differential diagnosis), then of a 1000 patients tested, 250 will have sarcoidosis. 160 of these will be detected by an abnormal serum ace level, but 150 of the non-sarcoidosis patients will also have an abnormal ace level giving you a positive predictive value of just over 50% making it a poor diagnositic test.
104
Cutaneous manifestations of vitamin D deficiency include: 1 Alopecia 2 Follicular hyperkeratosis 3 Edema 4 Angular cheilitis 5 Atrophic glossitis
Alopecia Alopecia is the only cutaneous manifestation of vitamin D deficiency. Edema is the only cutaneous manifestation of vitamine B1 (thiamine) deficiency (Beriberi). Follicular hyperkeratosis is seen in hypervitaminosis A. Angular cheilitis is seen in vitamin B2 (riboflavin), B6 (pyridoxine), folic acid, niacin (vitamin B3 or nicotinic acid), biotin, zinc, and iron deficiency. Atrophic glossitis is observed in vitamin B2 (riboflavin), vitamin B6 (pyridoxine), vitamin B12, folic acid, and iron deficiency (among others).
105
Ulcerative colitis and crohn's disease are most commonly associated with which of the following: 1 Pyoderma gangrenosum 2 Erythema elevatum diutinum 3 Sweet's syndrome 4 IgA pemphigus 5 Sneddon-Wilkinson's disease
Sweet's syndrome Sweet's syndrome is also associated with acute myelogenous leukemia, colony-stimulating factor, all-trans retinoic acid and tetracyclines. Flu-like symptoms, high-grade fever, malaise and peripheral neutrophils accompany the cutaneous lesions. Steroids and dapsone are the treatments of choice.
106
Which of the following are risk factor(s) for post-transplant CTCL? 1 Renal transplant 2 Liver transplant 3 Cyclosporine therapy 4 Female Sex 5 Renal transplant and Cyclosporine therapy
Renal transplant and Cyclosporine therapy In a recent case series and review (Arch Dermatol. 2010; 146 (5): 513-516) it was shown that the following are associated with post-transplant CTCL: renal transplant, cyclosporine, tacrolimus, and male sex. There have been 29 cases of post-transplant CTCL documented in the literature to date.
107
Increased chylomicrons are a feature of which type of hyperlipoproteinemia? 1 Type I 2 Type IIa 3 Type IIb 4 Type III 5 Type IV
``` Type I Type I (familial lipoprotein lipase deficiency or apoprotein CII deficiency) hyperlipoproteinemia has increased chylomicrons as a feature, and presents with eruptive xanthomas and lipemia retinalis. For the other hyperlipoproteinemias, the associated lipid abnormalities are as follows: Type IIa -- increased LDL; Type IIb -- increased LDL and VLDL; Type III -- increased IDL; Type IV -- increased VLDL. Type V has increased chylomicrons and increased VLDL. ```
108
Child abuse is often incorrectly suspected when a young girl presents with which cutaneous finding? 1 Molluscum contagiosum 2 Lichen sclerosus et atrophicus 3 Condyloma accuminata 4 Ecchymoses on face and hands 5 Genital herpes simplex
Lichen sclerosus et atrophicus Lichen sclerosus et atrophicus is an inflammatory disease of the skin that most often occurs oin the genital region. Clinically, lichen sclerosus may appear as a hypopigmented, well demarcated patch with a crinkled appearance. It is often pruritic and if left untreated may result in progressive scarring. The treatment of choice is ultra potent topical steroids.
109
The "follicular occlusion triad" consists of: 1 Acne conglobata, hidradenitis suppurativa, kerion 2 Acne conglobata, chloracne, pyoderma faciale 3 Acne fulminans, hidradenitis suppurativa, dissecting cellulites of the scalp 4 Acne comedonicus, hidradenitis suppurativa, dissecting cellulites of the scalp 5 Acne conglobata, hidradenitis suppurativa, dissecting cellulites of the scalp
Acne conglobata, hidradenitis suppurativa, dissecting cellulites of the scalp Acne conglobata is a sever variant of acne vulgaris characterized by large, often multiple comedones, abscesses with sinus formation and inflammatory nodules. Hidradenitis suppurativa is a chronic condition characterized by swollen, painful, inflamed lesions in the axillae, groin, and other parts of the body that contain apocrine glands. Dissecting cellulites of the scalp, also known as perifolliculitis capitis abscedens et Suffodiens of Hoffman, consists of deep inflammatory boggy nodules +/- sinus tracts on the occipital scalp, most commonly in African American males.
110
Which of the following is correct about eosinophilic folliculitis? 1 painful 2 only seen in adults 3 classified as an AIDS-defining illness 4 more common in females 5 associated with P. acnes infection of hair follicles
classified as an AIDS-defining illness Eosinophilic pustular folliculitis is a non-infectious eosinophilic infiltrate of the hair follicle. It is characterized by intense pruritus. The 3 variants of eosinophilic folliculitis include classic eosinophilic pustular folliculitis, immunosuppression-associated (mostly HIV-related), and infancy-associated eosinophilic folliculitis. The classic type (Ofuji’s) is more common in Japanese men. The male-to-female ratio of eosinophilic folliculitis is 5:1. It is associated with immunosuppresion and has been classified as an AIDS defining illness. Eosinophilic pustular folliculitis should be viewed as a possible cutaneous sign of immunosuppression.
111
Treatment of Raynaud's phenomenon includes: 1 Nifedipine 2 Metoprolol 3 UVB 4 Tetracyline 5 Simvastatin
Nifedipine Treatment of Raynaud's includes calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine 30-6-mg/d, antiplatelet aggregation drugs (such as aspirin or dipyridamole), pentoxyphilline 400mg BID-TID and D-penicillamine. Losartan 50mg/d may reduce frequency and severity of Raynaud's.
112
Which of the following statements is true regarding this entity? 1 80% of patients with early onset disease have a positive family history 2 Twin concordance (identical twins) is 55% 3 The inner root sheath and matrix of normal hair express MHC class I 4 The sisapho pattern involves the occipital scalp 5 Atopic dermatitis is a predictor of good prognosis
``` Twin concordance (identical twins) is 55% Twin concordance (identical twins) is 55% in alopecia areata. There is a high frequency of positive family history, especially in patients with early onset (37%). The inner root sheath and matrix are immune privileged, not expressing MHC class I, and this privilege may collapse in alopecia areata. The sisapho or ophiasis inversus pattern of alopecia areata is a bandlike pattern of the fronto parietotemporal scalp. Atopic dermatitis is a predictor of poor prognosis in patients with alopecia areata. ```
113
Patients with Dermatitis Herpetiformis are most likely to have: 1 Antibodies to BPAg2 2 Antibodies to transglutaminase 3 3 Mutations in transglutaminase I 4 Mutations in laminin 5 5 Mutations in plectin
Antibodies to transglutaminase 3 In dermatitis herpetiformis, antibodies are found to transglutaminase 3, and the direct immunofluorescent studies show granular IgA and C3 in the dermal papillae. Antibodies to BPag2 are found in bullous pemphigoid. Mutations in plectin are found in EBS with muscular dystrophy. Mutations in laminin 5 are found in patients with JEB,Herlitz type. Mutations in transglutaminase I are found in pateints with lamellar ichthyosis and non bullous congenital ichthyosiform erythroderma.
114
Perifolicular depigmentation is a characteristic cutaneous manifestation of: 1 Dermatomyositis 2 Secondary syphilis 3 Scleroderma 4 Discoid lupus 5 Sarcoidosis
Scleroderma Scleroderma is a systemic disease which may affect almost any organ in the body. Cutaneous findings are characterized by symmetric, thickening of the skin. Dyspigmentation may occur with �salt and pepper� appearance due to perifollicular depigmentation.
115
Mutations in the MEFV gene product, pyrin, produce an autosomal recessive syndrome characterized by recurrent fevers, peritonitis, pleuritis, arthritis and erysipelas-like erythema. Which of the following syndromes is described above? 1 Familial Mediterranean Fever 2 PAPA syndrome 3 TNF receptor associated periodic syndrome 4 Hyper IgD syndrome 5 Familial cold autoinflammatory syndrome
Familial Mediterranean Fever Familial Mediterranean Fever is described above. It is autosomal recessive with incomplete penetrance. The main therapy is Colchicine. PAPA syndrome, TNF receptor associated periodic syndrome, hyper-IgD syndrome and familial cold autoinflammatory syndrome are related autoinflammatory syndromes. PAPA syndrome is Pyogenic Arthritis, Pyoderma gangrenosum and Acne and is caused by proline serine threonine phosphatase-interacting protein (PSTPIP1) or CD2-binding protein 1 (CD2BP1) which interact with pyrin. TNF receptor associated periodic syndrome (TRAPS) has similar findings to FMF, but the attacks are of longer duration, is autosomal dominant in transmission, and does not respond to colchicine. TRAPS is caused by a mutation in the TNFRSF1A gene which results in a decrease in soluble TNF receptor. Hyper IgD syndrome is associated with defects in the mevalonate kinase gene, which presents with a hereditary periodic fever. Familial cold autoinflammatory syndrome is associated with cryopyrin defects and is characterized by fever, rash, conjunctivitis and arthralgia upon exposure to cold.
116
Which of the following is true regarding syndromes associated with amyloidosis? 1 Familial mediterranean fever involves AL protein 2 MEN IIa involves AA protein 3 The syndrome that presents with renal amyloidosis, fevers, limb pains, and deafness involves AA protein 4 Familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy type IV involves mutations in apolipoprotein A-1 5 Familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy type III involves mutations in gelsolin
The syndrome that presents with renal amyloidosis, fevers, limb pains, and deafness involves AA protein Familial mediterranean fever and Muckle-Wells (renal amyloidosis, urticaria, fevers, limb pains, and deafness) involve AA. MENA IIa involves keratin-derived amyloid. Familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy (FAP) type III involves mutations in apolipoprotein A-1; FAP type IV involves mutations in gelsolin.
117
Which of the following disorders is primarily associated with a monoclonal gammopathy of the IgA type? 1 Scleromyxedema 2 Scleredema 3 Necrobiotic xanthogranuloma 4 Schnitzler's syndrome 5 Pyoderma gangrenosusm
Pyoderma gangrenosusm Pyoderma gangrenosum is an destructive, inflammatory disease of the skin characterized by a painful nodule or pustule that later forms a progressively enlarging ulcer. On pathology, there is a neutrophilic infiltrate with leukocytoclasia. Diseases that have been associated with pyoderma gangrenosum include inflammatory bowel disease, arthritis, an IgA monoclonal gammopathy (primarily), and myelodysplasia.
118
Which of the following HLA types is associated with psoriasis and predicts earlier onset and more severe disease? 1 HLA-B13 2 HLA-B17 3 HLA-Bw57 4 HLA-Cw6 5 HLA-B27
HLA-B17 Psoriasis has HLA associations with all of these HLA types. HLA-B17 is associated with earlier onset and more serious disease.
119
Which of the following forms of angioedema is mediated by kinin release? 1 Hereditary angioedema 2 Acute allergic angioedema 3 Angioedema associated with urticarial vasculitis 4 NSAID angioedema 5 Infectious angioedema
Hereditary angioedema Types of angioedema mediated through kinin release include hereditary angioedema, acquired C1 inhibitor deficiency, and ACE inhibitor associated angioedema. These conditions are not associated with concurrent urticaria.
120
Which of the following disorders is most strongly associated with a monoclonal gammopathy of the IgG-lambda type? 1 Scleredema 2 POEMS syndrome 3 Necrobiotic xanthogranuloma 4 EED 5 Scleromyxedema
Scleromyxedema All of the above conditions are assocaited with some type of monoclonal gammopathy. Scleromyxedema is associated with an IgG-lambda monoclonal gammopathy. Scleredema and NXG are most often associated with IgG-kappa, and both POEMS syndrome and EED are usually associated with IgA monoclonal gammopathies.
121
Probiotics, which are cultures of potentially beneficial gut microflora bacteria, have been studied in the primary prevention of which of the following diseases? 1 Celiac disease 2 Atopic dermatitis 3 Psoriasis 4 Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma 5 Asthma
Atopic dermatitis Probiotics have been studied in the primary prevention of atopic dermatitis by Kalliomaki et al. Lactobacillus GG cultures were given to pregnant women with a history of atopy to assess the effect of potentially beneficial gut flora on the prevention of atopic disease in their children. The frequency of atopic dermatitis in the children in the probiotic group was half that in the placebo group at two years of life.Probiotics have been studied in the primary prevention of atopic dermatitis by Kalliomaki et al. Lactobacillus GG cultures were given to pregnant women with a history of atopy to assess the effect of potentially beneficial gut flora on the prevention of atopic disease in their children. The frequency of atopic dermatitis in the children in the probiotic group was half that in the placebo group at two years of life.Probiotics have been studied in the primary prevention of atopic dermatitis by Kalliomaki et al. Lactobacillus GG cultures were given to pregnant women with a history of atopy to assess the effect of potentially beneficial gut flora on the prevention of atopic disease in their children. The frequency of atopic dermatitis in the children in the probiotic group was half that in the placebo group at two years of life.Atopic dermatitisAtopic dermatitisAtopic dermatitisAtopic dermatitisAtopic dermatitisAtopic dermatitisAtopic dermatitisProbiotics have been studied in the primary prevention of atopic dermatitis by Kalliomaki et al. Lactobacillus GG cultures were given to pregnant women with a history of atopy to assess the effect of potentially beneficial gut flora on the prevention of atopic disease in their children. The frequency of atopic dermatitis in the children in the probiotic group was half that in the placebo group at two years of life. Probiotics have been studied in the primary prevention of atopic dermatitis by Kalliomaki et al. Lactobacillus GG cultures were given to pregnant women with a history of atopy to assess the effect of potentially beneficial gut flora on the prevention of atopic disease in their children. The frequency of atopic dermatitis in the children in the probiotic group was half that in the placebo group at two years of life. Atopic dermatitis Probiotics have been studied in the primary prevention of atopic dermatitis by Kalliomaki et al. Lactobacillus GG cultures were given to pregnant women with a history of atopy to assess the effect of potentially beneficial gut flora on the prevention of atopic disease in their children. The frequency of atopic dermatitis in the children in the probiotic group was half that in the placebo group at two years of life. Atopic dermatitis Probiotics have been studied in the primary prevention of atopic dermatitis by Kalliomaki et al. Lactobacillus GG cultures were given to pregnant women with a history of atopy to assess the effect of potentially beneficial gut flora on the prevention of atopic disease in their children. The frequency of atopic dermatitis in the children in the probiotic group was half that in the placebo group at two years of life.
122
What organism caused this disease? 1 Micrococcus sedenditaris 2 Candida albicans 3 Staphylococcus aureus 4 Corynebacterium tenuis 5 Corynebacterium diptheria
Micrococcus sedenditaris Pitted keratolysis is a skin disorder characterized by crateriform pitting that primarily affects the pressure-bearing aspects of the plantar surface of the feet. It is caused by a cutaneous infection with micrococcus sedentarius which is included in the Corynebacteria genus. These are gram-positive, catalase-positive, aerobic or facultatively anaerobic, generally nonmotile rods. Corynebacterium diphtheriae infection is classically characterized by a local inflammation, usually in the upper respiratory tract, associated with toxin-mediated cardiac and neural disease. Corynebacterium tenuis causes trichomycosis Patients typically present with yellow, black, or red pinpoint nodules on the hair shafts in the inguinal region. Staphylococcus aureus is a common bacterium that can result in formation of pustules, furuncles, cellulitis and abscesses. Candida species are responsible for superficial infections such as oropharyngeal candidiasis (thrush) and vulvovaginal candidiasis (vaginal Candidiasis) and is also occurs as an opportunistic infection
123
This patient was started on isotretinoin but failed to discontinue the tetracycline. He is at risk for what complication? 1 Acne fulminans 2 Pseudotumor cerebri 3 Diarrhea 4 Depression 5 Myositis
Pseudotumor cerebri Both isotretinoin and tetracycline are known to cause pseudotumor cerebri. In combination, the risk is significantly elevated. Symptoms of pseudotumor cerebri include headaches, pulsatile tinnitus, diplopia, and blurred vision.
124
All of the following are true regarding Reiter'™s syndrome except: 1 The classic clinical triad is urethritis, conjunctivitis and arthritis 2Usually occurs in young women of HLA-B27 genotype 3May be associated with keratoderma belnnorrhagicum 4May be associated with Chlamydia trachomatis 5Nails may become thick and brittle with heavy subungual hyperkeratotic deposits
Usually occurs in young women of HLA-B27 genotype Reiter'™s syndrome is a chronic inflammatory disease similar to psoriasis with psoriatoc arthritis. Reiter's syndrome usually occurs in men of HLA-B27 genotype and rarely occurs in women. Few patients present with the classic triad, thus can be diagnosed with peripheral arthritis \>1 month and associated urethritis. Keratoderma blennorrhagicum is crusted, hyperkeratotic papules and plaques on plantar surfaces. Painful and bloody urination and pyuria, cystitis, prostatitis and seminal vesiculitis may occur secondary to Chlamydia trachomatis. Nail lesions as described may occur.
125
What is the eponym used for this inherited, congenital condition? 1Meige disease 2Milroy disease 3Proteus syndrome 4Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome 5Stuart-Treves syndrome
Milroy disease Milroy disease in an autosomal dominantly inherited form of primary lymphedema. Unlike Meige disease, Milroy disease is congenital and due to a failure of the development of lymphatic vessels in utero.
126
The most appropriate treatment for the condition shown is: 1Topical clindamycin 1% lotion 2Topical metronidazole 0.75% gel 3Azelaic acid 20% cream 4Salicylic acid 2% wash 5Adapalene 0.1% gel
Adapalene 0.1% gel This slide shows comedonal acne. Topical retinoids are the treatment of choice. Salicylic acid-containing cleansers may be helpful adjuncts to treatment with mild comedolytic properties.
127
A patient with a recent diagnosis of tuberculosis on treatment presents with a new photosensitive eruption on his face, neck and upper chest. In addition, he has progressive diarrhea and depression. What is the etiology of his symptoms? 1Vitamin B12 deficiency 2Drug induced pellagra 3Drug induced riboflavin deficiency 4Carcinoid syndrome 5Photoallergic contact dermatitis
Drug induced pellagra This patient has pellagra secondary to isoniazid treatment. He has the photosensitive eruption and €"Casal'€™s necklace"€, in addition to diarrhea and depression. Other symptoms include the 3 D€'s: dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia. Other potential medications that may cause this constellations of symptoms include azathioprine and 5-FU.
128
This 57-year old male complains of weakness when climbing the stairs and this clinical presentation. Which cytokine has been imnplicated in the etiology of this condition? 1IL-1 2Il-10 3Interferon-alpha 4Interferon-gamma 5Tumor necrosis factor alpha
Tumor necrosis factor alpha Dermatomyositis is an autoimmune condition which presents with typical skin findings and muscle weakness. Age-appropriate screening should be done for internal malignancy as there is a higher incidence of cancer in these patients. Polymorphisms of tumor necrosis factor-alpha have been implicated in the etiology.
129
Which systemic anesthetic can be safely used in mastocytosis? 1Lidocaine 2Succinylcholine 3D-tubocurarine 4Thiopental 5Propofol
Propofol Local lidocaine can be safely used but systemic lidocaine can precipitate anaphylaxis in patients with mastocytosis. Other systemic analgesics that are counter-indicated in mastocytosis include succinylcholine, d-tubocurarine, thiopental, metocurine, enflurane, isoflurane, and etomidate. Propofol, vecuronium bromide, and fentanly are safe options for systemic anesthesia in patients with mastocytosis.
130
Which of the following is true regarding Seip-Lawrence syndrome? 1This condition is acquired 2Mental/cognitive function is unaffected 3Thyroid function abnormalities cause heat intolerance 4Hypertrichosis is often a feature 5Basic metabolic rate is depressed
Hypertrichosis is often a feature Seip-Lawrence syndrome is congenital generalized Berardinelli-Seip. These patients lack both subcutaneous fat and extracutaneous adipose tissue. The acquired form is known as Lawrence-Seip syndrome. Patients often have acanthosis nigricans, hypertrichosis, generalized hyperpigmentation, and thick, curly scalp hair. Patients have voracious appetites, perspire excessively, and may be heat-intolerant despite normal thyroid function (basic metabolic rate is elevated). Mental retardation is common.
131
The most common location of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans is: 1Trunk 2Head and neck 3Extremities 4None of these answers are correct 5head and neck and extremities
Trunk Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans is typically located on the trunk. The extremities are the second most common location for this type of neoplasm.
132
A 20 year old woman presents with a sunken appearance to her face and trunk with normal legs. The patient has attributed her appearance to stress from college, but is seeing you because of her family's concern. What lab finding would you expect in this patient 1Decreased C3 nephritic factor 2Decreased C3 3Decreased C1 4Increased C1 5Increased C4
Decreased C3 Acquired partial lipodystrophy (Barraquer-Simmons Syndrome) is characterized by an insidious progressive loss of fat that usually begins in the face and scalp and progressed downward. Most patients with this form of lipodystrophy have reduced levels of C3 resulting from circulation polyclonal IgG called "C3 nephritic factor" which results in uncontrolled activation of C3 and contributes to renal damage.
133
Which of the following is a function of Propionibacterium acnes (P. acnes) in contributing to the pathogenesis of acne? 1Downregulation of TLR-2 expression 2Inhibition of complement 3Activation of TLR-2 4Inhibition of Il-1 5Reduction in free fatty acid levels
Activation of TLR-2 P. acnes flourishes in the presence of sebum and makes an enzymatic lipase which cleaves triglycerides into free fatty acids. Free fatty acids serve as an indirect measure of P. acnes populations on the skin. P. acnes itself is also pro-inflammatory; it can activate complement, as well as neutrophil chemotaxis and activity. Il-1, a pro-inflammatory cytokine, may promote follicular plugging and microcomedo formation. TLR-2 activation by P. acnes leads to stimulation of pro-inflammatory cytokines.
134
Most often, xanthelasma is associated with: 1An IgM paraprotein 2An IgG paraprotein 3No associated disease 4Type I hyperlipoproteinemia 5Type III hyperlipoproteinemia
No associated disease Xanthelasma are the most common type of xanthoma. They are usually present without any other disease, but may occur concomitantly with other xanthomas, and can occur in types II and III hyperlipoproteinemias (familial hypercholesterolemia, common hypercholesterolemia, and familial dysbetalipoproteinemia). They are also common among women with biliary or hepatic disoders, and are also seen in myxedema, diabetes, and phytosterolemia.
135
This woman has restricted ability to open her mouth with tight bound down skin of her hands and pulmonary fibrosis. In addition to a positive ANA with a nucleolar pattern, what is the most common autoimmune antibody that is associated with pulmonary fibrosis? 1Topoisomerase I antibodies (formerly Scl-70) 2Fibrillarin antibodies 3Anti-U3RNP antibodies 4Anti-PM-Scl antibodies 5Anti-thyroglobulin antibodies
Topoisomerase I antibodies (formerly Scl-70) this woman has scleroderma which is a systemic disease characterized by skin induration and thickening. The cutaneous findings are accompanied by various degrees of tissue fibrosis and chronic inflammatory infiltration in numerous visceral organs, prominent fibroproliferative vasculopathy, and humoral and cellular immune alterations. Antinuclear antibodies are present in about 95% of the patients, usually with a speckled or homogenous pattern. A nucleolar pattern, although less common, is more specific for systemic sclerosis. Topoisomerase I antibodies (formerly Scl-70) are present in approximately 30% of patients with diffuse disease (absent in limited disease) and are associated with pulmonary fibrosis. Anticentromere antibodies are present in about 60-90% of patients with limited disease and are rare in patients with diffuse disease. Fibrillarin antibodies and antibodies to U3 ribonucleoprotein (RNP) may also be present but are more common in patients with skeletal muscle involvement. Anti-U3RNP is present mostly in patients with diffuse disease with overlap syndromes. Anti-ThRNP is present mostly in limited disease and is associated with more extensive visceral disease. Anti-PM-Scl is present in limited and overlap states and is associated with myositis and renal involvement.
136
The Dunnigan variant of partial lipodystrophy is caused by a mutation in which gene? 1AGPAT2 2Seipin 3Zinc metalloproteinase 4Neutrophil elastase 5LMNA
LMNA The Dunnigan variant of partial lipodystrophy is characterized by normal appearance at birth followed by a gradual loss of subcutaneous tissue from the arms and legs around the time of puberty. The genetic defect involves the gene encoding lamins A and C (LMNA) which are intermediate filaments integral to the nuclear envelope. The AGPAT2 and seipin genes are mutated in type I and type II congenital generalized lipodystrophies, respectively. The gene for zinc metalloproteinase (ZMPSTE24) is mutated in mandibuloacral dysplasia.
137
Sarcoidosis presenting with fever, cough, joint pains, hilar adenopathy and erythema nodosum is known as: 1Erythema contusiforme 2Loeffler's syndrome 3Lofgren's syndrome 4Darier-Roussy sarcoid 5Heerfordt's syndrome
Lofgren's syndrome Sarcoidosis presenting with fever, cough, joint pains, hilar adenopathy and erythema nodosum is known as Lofgren's syndrome. Erythema nodosum is the most common nonspecific cutaneous finding in sarcoidosis. Lofgren's syndrome occurs frequently in Scandinavian whites and is uncommon in American blacks.
138
What is the diagnosis? 1Psoriasis 2Lichen planus 3Balanitis circinata 4Candida 5Syphilis
Balanitis circinata Balanitis circinata presents as sharply demarcated, serpiginous ulcers or plaques on the penile head. Balanitis circinata is usually seen in Reiter's syndrome which has a classic triad of arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis. The syndrome typically occurs post-infection of the GI or urinary tract.
139
Topical calcineurin inhibitors may offer several benefits over topical steroids in treating the scaly, lichenified periorbital plaques in this patient with atopic dermatitis, including: 1More cost effective 2Quicker onset of action 3Decreased irritant potential 4Absence of reports of cutaneous atrophy 5Once daily application
Absence of reports of cutaneous atrophy Tacrolimus and pimecrolimus are non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs and are not associated with side effects reported with use of topical corticosteroids, including atrophy, striae formation, telangiectasias, cataracts, and HPA axis suppression.
140
A 40 year old women presents to the clinic with multiple pustules in annular and serpiginous patterns on the abdomen, axillae and groin. Histopathology reveals pustules below the stratum corneum with many neutrophils and without any acantholysis. What is the diagnosis? 1Sneddon-Wilkinson disease 2Reiter's syndrome 3SAPHO syndrome 4Transient pustular melanosis 5Pthirus pubi
Sneddon-Wilkinson disease Sneddon- Wilkinson disease, also know as subcorneal pustular dermatosis classically presents with what has been described in this question. SAPHO syndrome is a pneumonic which stands for synovitis, acne conglobata or fulminans, pustular psoriasis, hyperostosis and osteomyelitis. Transient pustualr melanosis is seen in neonates. Pthirus pubis is pubic lice.
141
The first step in the formation of a closed comedone is: 1Obstruction of the pilosebaceous duct 2increased sebum production 3Colonization by P. acnes 4Increased hormonal stimulation of the pilosebaceous unit 5Clogging of the pore with make-up
Obstruction of the pilosebaceous duct The first step in the formation of a microcomedone is the obstruction of the pilosebaceous unit by keratinocytes. After that has occured, increased sebum and P. acnes can contribute to the further formation of the comedone
142
Which antibody is 93% specific for Sjogren's syndrome? 1anti-Ro 2anti-La 3anti-fodrin 4anti-Schirmer 5RF
anti-fodrin Sjogren's syndrome is a triad of keratoconjunctivitis sicca, xerostomia, and rheumatoid arthritis. More than 90% of patients are women. Labial salivary gland biopsy is useful for diagnosis, and the Schirmer test for xerostomia detects diminished glandular secretions. Laboratory findings often include positive cryoglobulins, anti-Ro, anti-La, and RF positivity. Antibodies to fodrin are 93% specific for this diagnosis.
143
You are consulted to evaluate this patient with tender, warm plaques on his shins. What other physical signs should you look for? 1Exophthalmos 2Uveitis 3Tachycardia 4Clubbing of the fingers 5Cough
Uveitis Erythema Nodosum (EN) is represented by tender, warm,nodules and plaques, often but not exclusivley located on the anterior shin. It represents a reactive panniculitis. Causes include, infections (Streptococcal, tuberculosis, yersina, mycoplasma, campylobacter,salmonella, histoplasmosis, blastomycosis, coccidiomycosis), drugs (sulfonamides, gold, and OCP's), enteropathies, pregnancy, hodgkin's disease and lymphoma and sarcoidosis. Loefgren's disease is a varient of sarcoidosis with EN, hilar adenopathy, fever, uveitis and arthritis. Differential diagnosis includes: pretibial myxedema and erythema induratum.
144
A 3 year-old girl has a red-yellow papule on her cheek which her mother is extremely anxious about. Skin biopsy reveals a juvenile xanthogranuloma. Which specialist should you refer the patient to? 1Plastic surgeon 2Endocrinologist 3Neurologist 4Ophthalmologist 5Oncologist
Ophthalmologist Juvenile xanthogranulomas are the most common form of non-Langerhans cell histiocytoses. 80% of these lesions appear within the first year of life and they present as firm, red-brown to yellowish papule. The most common noncutaneous site is the iris, so referral to ophthalmologist is warranted.
145
This radiograph shows a characteristic finding of severe psoriatic arthritis: bone proliferation at the base of the distal phalanx with resorption of the tufts. What is the most common form of psoriatic arthritis? 1Arthritis mutilans 2Axial 3Symmetric polyarthritis 4Asymmetric oligoarthritis 5Symmetric oligoarthritis
Asymmetric oligoarthritis Approximately 70 % of psoriatic arthritis is asymmetric oligoarthritis. The slide depicts arthritis mutilans, which occurs in about 5% of patients with psoriatic arthritis.
146
Which HLA is associated with psoriatic arthritis in disequilibrium, especially if spondylitis is present? 1HLA-B17 2HLA-B13 3HLA-Bw57 4HLA-Cw6 5HLA-B27
HLA-B27 HLA-B17 is associated with an earlier onset and more serious disease of psoriasis. HLA-Cw6 is the most definitive associated HLA type of psoriasis, with a relative risk 9-15 times normal. HLA-B17 amd HLA-B13 are also associated with psoriasis but not psoriatic arthiritis
147
Kidney disease in Henoch-Schonlein Purpura may be predicted by: 1Limited skin involvement 2Spread of purpura to the upper trunk 3Synovial involvement 4Bullous lesions 5Facial edema
Spread of purpura to the upper trunk Henoch-Schonlein Purpura occurs mostly in children. There is an antecedent URI in 75% of cases. HSP involves the skin, synovia, GI tract, and kidneys. Long-term morbidity results from renal disease, which is predicted by the spread of purpura to the upper trunk. Skin lesions of adults show blisters and necrosis.
148
Which of the following is a cause of immunologic urticaria? 1Polymyxin B 2Amoxicillin 3ibuprofen 4Opiates 5Tartrazine
Amoxicillin Amoxicillin is in the penicillin family of antibiotics and is an immunologic cause of urticaria. Immunologic urticaria is most commonly caused by exposure to this family and other related beta-lactam antibiotics. Patients with reaction to penicillins have an increased risk of cross-reacting to cephalosporins, mostly the earlier generations. The third-generation cephalosporins are less likely to cause reactions in a penicillin allergic patient. The other listed options are causes of non-immunologic urticaria. They alter prostaglandin metabolism which increases degranulation of mast cells.
149
Which organic system is least likely to be involved in the attached image 1Liver 2Spleen 3Genitourinary 4Gastrointestinal tract 5Bone marrow
Genitourinary Attached image shows mastocytosis. The disease presents classically with tan-like or red brown macules or papules. There are different forms of cutaneous mastocytosis, most common form is urticaria pigmentosa which can appear in both children and adults and diffuse cutaneous mastocytosis which occur almost exclusively in infants, solitary mastocytoma and telangiectasia macularis eruptiva perstans. Systemic involvement occurs most commonly in adults and bone marrow,lumph nodes, liver, spleen and GIT are among the most common involved systems whearas genitourinary and neuroendocrine systems are least likely to be involved
150
Which of the following is an example of a large vessel vasculitis? 1Takayasu arteritis 2Wegener's granulomatosis 3Chrug-Strauss syndrome 4Polyarteritis nodosa 5Henoch-Schonlein purpura
Takayasu arteritis Takayasu arteritis is a large vessel vasculitis that manifests as progressive granulomatous inflammation of the aorta and its major branches. The systemic vasculitidies are classified into three categories: large vessel, medium-sized vessel and small vessel vasculitis. Takayasu arteritis and Giant cell (temporal) arteritis are the two large vessel vasculitidies. Polyarteritis nodosa and Kawasaki disease are medium-sized vasculitidies. Wegener's granulomatosis, Churg-Strauss syndrome, microscopic polyangiitis, Henoch-Schonlein purpura and cutaneous leukocytoclastic vasculitis are examples of small vessel vasculitidies
151
Which of the following medications would likely exacerbate your patient's psoriasis? 1Hydrochlorothiazide 2Lisinopril 3Amlodipine 4Metroprolol 5Diltiazem
Metroprolol Several drugs have been incriminated as inducers of psoriasis, in particular and most notably lithium, beta-blockers, antimalarials, and interferon. More recent additions include terbinafine, calcium channel blockers, captopril, glyburide, and lipid-lowering drugs such as gemfibrozil
152
A 9-year-old boy presents with calcinosis cutis, periorbital violaceous erythema, and periungual telangiectasias. Which substance is most likely to be elevated in this patient? 1Fodrin 2Fibrillarin 3Thrombospondin-1 4Complement 5Triglycerides
Thrombospondin-1 This patient has juvenile dermatomyositis which can feature a heliotrope rash, periungual telangiectasias, psoriasiform dermatitis, calcinosis and lipodystrophy. Thrombospondin-1 is a mediator of angiogeneis that is increased in patients with juvenile dermatomyositis. Systemic sclerosis can demonstrate antibodies to fibrillarin
153
Periorbital purpura is a characteristic cutaneous manifestation of: 1Sarcoidosis 2Amyloidosis 3Dermatomyositis 4Lymphoma 5Thrombocytopenia
Amyloidosis Primary systemic amyloidosis, often myeloma associated, is characterized by the deposition of amyloid fibrils derived from immunoglobulin light chains. 40% of patients manifest with cutaneous findings including petechiae, purpura, waxy translucent papules on the eyelids, diffuse alopecia, scleroderma and nail dystrophy.
154
MAGIC syndrome involves: 1Relapsing polychondritis 2Acne conglobata 3Livedo reticularis 4Lipodystrophy 5Psoriatic arthritis
Relapsing polychondritis MAGIC syndrome is a combination of Beh�ets disease and relapsing polychondritis. Patients show mouth and genital ulcers with inflamed cartilage.
155
What is the treatment of choice for this patient who developed acne fulminans one month after starting isotretinoin therapy? 1Add oral prednisone 2increase isotretinoin dose 3Add doxycyclin 4Acne surgey 5Check lipid levels
Add oral prednisone Acne fulminans is an explosive form of acne in which patients may develop systemic symptoms, ulcerated nodules on the face and trunk. Acne fulminans may be triggered by initiation of isotretinoin therapy. The treatment of choice is systemic steroids at a dosage of 1 mg/kg/day tapered over the course of 6 weeks
156
Which of the following statements is true regarding Morbihan's Disease? 1It is often misdiagnosed as cellulitis 2it presents with blepharitis, conjunctivitis, iritis, and keratitis 3Histopathology reveals perifollicular and perivascular noncaseating epithelioid granulomas 4It occurs around the mouth and/or nose and eyes and may be triggered by topical steroid use 5It presents with large coalescent nodules and confluent draining sinuses occupying most of the
It is often misdiagnosed as cellulitis Morbihan's Disease, also known as rosacea lymphedema or persistent edema of rosacea, presents with hard, nonpitting edema. It is often misdiagnosed as cellulitis.
157
A 40 year-old man presents with a complaint of nail changes for several years. He was treated by an outside physician with terbinafine without improvement. On further questioning, he reports morning shoulder stiffness and back pain that lasts 1-2 hours and improves with activity. Which of the following is true regarding his condition? 1 50% of patients present with joint disease prior to skin involvement 2Bony erosions are not commonly seen on radiographs 3Cyclosporine is effective in treating the arthritis in this condition 4A positive rheumatoid factor may be seen 5Joint disease correlates with severity of skin involvement
A positive rheumatoid factor may be seen This patient has psoriatic nail changes and a history suggestive of psoriatic arthritis. Psoriatic arthritis is an inflammatory arthropathy associated with psoriasis. In 80% of patients the rheumatoid factor is negative; however a positive rheumatoid factor may sometimes be seen. 80% of patients present with skin disease first. Large eccentric erosions are classically present on radiographs. Cyclosporine is not effective in treating psoriatic arthritis. Mild skin disease may be associated with moderate-to-severe joint disease, and vice versa.
158
A positive ANA with a speckled staining pattern correlates with staining of what cellular component? 1Ribonucleoproteins 2Nucleolar RNA 3Native DNA 4Kinetochore 5Histones
Ribonucleoproteins A speckled ANA pattern correlates with staining of ribonucleoproteins and is seen in Mixed Connective Tissue Disease (MCTD), Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE), systemic sclerosis and Sjogren's syndrome. A nucleolar staining pattern correlates with staining of nucleolar RNA. Centromere staining correlates with staining of kinetochore. A peripheral staining pattern correlates with staining of native DNA and a homogeneous staining pattern correlates with staining of native DNA and histones.
159
The best diagnosis for this congenital melanopenic lesion without extracutaneous associations is 1Hypomelanosis of Ito 2Segmental vitiligo 3Ash leaf spots 4Nevus anemicus 5Nevus achromicus
Nevus achromicus Nevus achromicus is another name for nevus depigmentosus. It usually presents at birth or appear during early infancy as normal pigmentation increases. Most individuals will have a solitary lesion of nevus depigmentosus, but multiple lesions and segmental forms of nevus depigmentosus have been described. Nevus depigmentosus tends to persist lifelong, but remains unchanged after onset. The hypopigmented white spots of tuberous sclerosis are most difficult to distinguish from nevus depigmentosus, but lack of other cutaneous or systemic manifestaions exclude tubrous sclerosis. Lesions of vitiligo tend to be depigmented (melanocytopenic not melanopenic as in the question), and show a bright white coloration with Wood's lamp examination. Nevus anemicus is a distinct vascular birthmark characterized by blanching of cutaneous blood vessels, hence presenting as a "white" patch of skin that becomes unnoticeable when the surrounding skin is blanched with a glass slide ("diascopy").
160
You prescribe doxycyline to a 22 year-old woman with acne. Your patient takes an oral contraceptive to prevent pregnancy. Your patient read in a magazine that the doxycycline may decrease the efficacy of her contraceptive, and asks you about this. Which of the following antibiotics has been definitively shown to reduce contraceptive efficacy? 1Tetracycline 2Minocycline 3Azithromycin 4TMP-SMX 5Rifampin
Rifampin Theoretically, decreased enterohepatic absorption of hormones due to altered gut flora could decrease contraceptive efficacy. However, this theory has not been borne out in studies. Only rifampin, which is a potent hepatic microenzyme inducer, has been definitively shown to reduce contraceptive efficacy.
161
A 52 year-old man presents with large comedones as well as inflammatory papules, pustules, and cysts on the malar cheeks, postauricular scalp, and scrotum. Which of the following could be a cause of this presentation? 1Erlotinib chemotherapy 2 A pituitary adenoma 3. 2,3,7,8 tetrachlorobenzodioxin exposure 4PTEN mutations 5 Isotretinoin overdose
2,3,7,8 tetrachlorobenzodioxin exposure This patient has a presentation consistent with industrial acne. Dioxin (2,3,7,8 tetrachlorobenzodioxin) is a well-known, potent trigger of this acneiform eruption. Overall, insoluble cutting oils are the most frequent cause of industrial acne.
162
Which of the following cytokines is most characteristic of atopic dermatitis in its chronic phase? 1Interferon-gamma 2 IL-4 3 IL-5 4 IL-10 5 IL-13
Interferon-gamma While acute atopic dermatitis is a TH2 state, chronic eczematous AD is most often a TH1 cytokine environment with interferon-gamma being the best choice. Initial lesions TH2 dominant, cytokines IL-4,5,10,13. IL-4/5 produce elevated IgE and eosinophilia, IL-10 inhibits delayed-type hypersensitivity. IL-4 downregulates IFN-gamma.
163
Sarcoidosis presenting as uveitis, facial nerve palsy, fever and parotid gland swelling is referred to as: 1 Heerfordt's syndrome 2 Lofgren's syndrome 3 Lupus pernio 4 Darier-Roussy disease 5 Schaumann syndrome
Heerfordt's syndrome Heerfordt's syndrome is the name given to sarcoidosis presenting with uveitis, facial nerve palsy, fever and parotid gland swelling. Lofgren's syndrome is an acute presentation of sarcoidosis that presents wth fever, arthritis, erythema nodosum and hilar adenopathy. Darier-Roussy disease is sarcoidosis presenting as painless firm subcutaneous nodules. Lupus pernio refers to sarcoidosis presenting as papulonodules and plaques involving the nose (especially the alar rim), ears and cheeks. Schaumann syndrome was a distractor as Shaumann bodies are seen in sarcoidosis on histopathology
164
This variant of amyloidosis is derived from degenerated tonofilaments of keratinocytes: 1Lichen amyloidosis 2Nodular amyloidosis 3Primary systemic amyloidosis 4Dialysis-related amyloidosis 5 Secondary systemic amyloidosis
Lichen amyloidosis Lichen amyloidosis and Macular amyloidosis are derived from degenerated tonofilaments of keratinocytes. Primary systemic amyloidosis results from deposition of protein AL derived from Ig Lambda light chains. Nodular amyloidosis is also associated with AL type protein. Secondary systemic amyloidosis is associated with AA amyloid fibrils derived from SAA protein. Dialysis-related amyloidosis is associated with beta-2-microglobulin protein deposition
165
The most common non-specific cutaneous manifestation associated with this disease is: 1 Leukocytoclastic vasculitis 2Ertythema multiforme 3Acne vulgaris 4Erythema nodosum 5Lichen planus
Erythema nodosum The most common non-specific cutaneous manifestation of sarcoidosis is erythema nodosum. The clinical hallmark of leukocytoclastic vasculitis is palpable purpura. There are numerous causes of erythema nodosum including drugs, infection, malignancy, and idiopathic. Lichen planus can be associated with hepatitis C.
166
Which of the following is an innate antimicrobial peptide expressed by keratinocytes in response to injury or inflammation? 1A-defensin 1 2A-defensin 2 3TNF-A 4IL-4 5IL-13
A-defensin 2 Human A-defensins (HBD) and cathelicidins are innate antimicrobial peptides in human skin. HBD-1 is constitutively expressed. HBD-2 (and the cathelicidin LL 37) is expressed in response to skin injury and inflammation
167
The first site in body that shows yellowish pigmentation in carotenoderma is 1Face 2Trunk 3Palms and soles 4Nails 5Sclera
Face Carotenoderma is yellowish discoloration of the skin secondary to carotenemia. Carotene is excreted by sebaceous glands and in sweat, so the yellow pigmentation appears first on the face (especially nasolabial folds and forehead) and then becomes diffusely distributed with accentuation in palms and soles. In contrast to jaundice, carotenoderma spares mucous membranes and sclera
168
A 3 month old presents with a diffuse vesiculobullous rash with copper colored macules on the palms and soles. You ascertain from the history that his mother had a nonpainful erosion on her labia during pregnancy which spontaneously resolved. What other symptoms would you expect this infant to have? 1Pseudoparalysis of Parrot 2Higoumenakis sign 3Clutton joints 4Mulberry molars 5Saddle nose deformity
Pseudoparalysis of Parrot Pseudoparalysis of Parrot is a sign of early congenital syphilis. Early congenital syphilis occurs before 2 years of age, whereas late congenital syphilis generally occurs after 2 years of age. Higoumenakis sign, clutton joints, mulberry molars, and saddle nose deformity are all signs of late congenital syphilis
169
This 35 year-old man presents with the lesions shown. He was treated elsewhere for a different skin condition. Biopsy of these lesions is likely to show: 1Increased staining on Fontana Masson but not Perls stain 2Increased staining on Perls stain but not Fontana Masson 3Increased staining on both Fontana Masson and Perls stain 4Increased melanin at the basal layer and within macrophages only 5Fibrosis and increased mucin deposition
Increased staining on both Fontana Masson and Perls stain The patient has Type 2 minocycline-associated hyperpigmentation. Three types of minocycline-associated hyperpigmentation are generally described. The first is blue-black discoloration appearing in areas of prior skin injury, such as acne scars. The second type is a blue-gray discoloration, often on the lower anterior legs and forearms. The third type is the least common, and is characterized by muddy brown discoloration of sun-exposed areas. The first two types show staining for both iron and melanin (Fontana Masson stains melanin black; Perls stains iron [hemosiderin] blue). The third type shows increased melanin at the basal layer and within macrophages.
170
Which HLA type is more commonly associated with this clinical finding? 1HLA-B7 2HLA-B15 3HLA-B27 4HLA-B51 5HLA-DR4
HLA-B27 The condition shown is balnitis circinata which is part of the constellation of findings in Reiter's syndrome in addition to arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis. There is a higher incidence of this condition people with HLA-B27.
171
Which of the following is true regarding topical therapies for psoriasis? 1Vitamin D3 analogues deactivate salicylic acid 2Retinoids are effective in decreasing lesional erythema 3Anthralin can cause irreversible staining of peri-lesional skin 4Calcipotriol is deactivated by UV light 5Anthralin inhibits PMNs and monocytes
Anthralin inhibits PMNs and monocytes Anthralin, in addition to possessing antiproliferative activity on human keratinocytes, has strong anti-inflammatory effects by inhibiting PMNs and monocytes. Vitamin D3 analogues are inactivated by salicylic acid and should be used after UV light (calcipotriol absorbs UV). Retinoids reduce scaling and plaque thickness, but do not generally decrease lesional erythema. Anthralin can stain hair purple and cause reversible brownish discoloration of surrounding skin.
172
Anti-Jo-1 antibodies in patients with Dermatomyositis are associated with: 1Pulmonary fibrosis 2Cardiac disease 3Photosensitivity 4Calcinosis 5Heliotrope rash
Pulmonary fibrosis Anti-Jo-1 (histidyl TRNA syntetase) antibodies are seen in a minority of patients with Dermatomyositis and are associated with pulmonary fibrosis. Anti-Jo-1 Abs are also associated with Raynaud's and polyarthritis. Treatment of dermatomyositis may include systemic corticosteroids, antimalarials, methotrexate, azatioprine and photoprotection
173
The most common systemic manifestations of systemic sclerosis are: 1Gastrointestinal 2Cardiovascular 3Pulmonary 4Renal 5Neurologic
Gastrointestinal Esophageal dysfunction is the most systemic finding in systemic sclerosis (\>90%). Dysphagia results from decreased peristalsis and may occur before skin findings are seen. Small intestinal involvement is also common. Pulmonary fibrosis, myocardial fibrosis (seen in 50-70%), cardiac conduction defects, heart failure, pericarditis with effusion, and renal disease with slowly progressive uremia may all be
174
The most common associated malignancy with dermatomyositis is: 1Colon carcinoma 2Hepatocellular carcinoma 3Renal cell carcinoma 4Esophageal carcinoma 5Ovarian carcinoma
Ovarian carcinoma Patients with dermatomyositis (DM) may have cancer that precedes, occurs simultaneously as, or follows the diagnosis of DM. Ovarian cancer is overrepresented in this population.
175
Androstenedione is produced by: 1The adrenals 2The ovaries 3The adrenals and ovaries 4Extraglandular conversion 5The adrenals, ovaries, and extraglandular conversion
The adrenals and ovaries Androstenedione is produced by the adrenals and the ovaries. Testosterone is produced by the adrenals, ovaries, and by extraglandular conversion of androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone.
176
Twenty-nail dystrophy, nail plate splitting and pterygium formation are nail changes seen in: 1Lichen Planus 2Darier's disease 3Psoriasis 4Scleroderma 5Dermatomyositis
Lichen Planus Twenty-nail dystrophy, nail plate splitting and pterygium formation are nail changes associated with Lichen Planus. Darier's disease is associated with longitudinal red and white streaks of the nail plate and V-shaped knicking distally. Psoriasis is associated with many nail abnormalities including pitting, onycholysis and oil-spots. Scleroderma may cause nail fold capillary dilation and destruction while patients with dermatomyositis may exhibit nail fold telangiectasias and frayed cuticles.
177
A patient with spontaneous occurrence of petechiae and purpura, particularly around the eyes, will also most likely have which of the following? 1Diffuse scaling of the scalp 2Acne 3Cheilits 4Macroglossia 5Uveitis
Macroglossia This patient has primary systemic amyloidosis. Mucocutaneous findings can be seen in up to 40% of patients. The surface of the tongue may be smooth and dry or covered with waxy papules and nodules. Teeth indentations may be seen along the lateral borders. The most common cutaneous signs are petechiae and purpura that occur spontaneous or after minor trauma ("pinch purpura" about the eyelids). The most characteristic skin lesions are waxy, shiny, smooth papules and nodules which are usually hemorrhagic or flesh-colored. Flexural areas are common sites. These patients may also present with carpal tunnel syndrome
178
Carcinoid tumors in which site do not lead to flushing or other manifestations of the carcinoid syndrome? 1Appendix 2Ileum 3Ascending colon 4Rectum 5Brochus
Rectum Carcinoid tumors are derived from enterochromaffin (Kulchitsky) cells. The appendix is the most common site, followed by the ileum. Less than 4% of abdominal carcinoid tumors have the carcinoid syndrome; the presence of the syndrome implies hepatic metastases, extraabdominal carcinoid tumor, or a large enough tumor burden such that the liver cannot degrade the increased level of hormone. Foregut tumors (bronchus, stomach, pancreas) produce histamine, cause peptide ulcers, and produce more persistent, intense flushing, and lacrimation, sweating, vomiting, and asthma. Midgut tumors (small-intestine to mid-colon) cause cyanotic flush, hypotension, and bronchoconstriction more commonly. Hindgut tumors (descending colon and rectal) do not lead to flushing or other manifestations.
179
After being treated for several months with doxycycline, this patient develops a gram negative folliculitis. What is the next appropriate therapy? 1Tetracycline 2Bactrim 3Isotretinoin 4Ceftriaxone 5Cefepime
Isotretinoin Gram negative folliculitis may occur after prolonged antibiotic therapy for acne vulgaris. It should be suspected in patients who are well controlled and then suddenly flare. The treatment of choice is isotretinoin.
180
Which of the following is a progestin used in oral contraceptives with low intrinsic androgenic properties? 1Norgestrel 2Norethindrone 3Norgestimate 4Levonorgestrel 5Spironolactone
Norgestimate Desogestril, norgestimate and gestodone are progestins with low intrinsic androgenic properties.
181
Which of the following is true regarding acquired C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency? 1This condition generally occurs in the first or second decade of life 2 Serum C1q is normal 3 C2 and C4 are both decreased 4 C1 esterase inhibitor may be at normal levels with functional impairment 5Positive family history is common
C2 and C4 are both decreased C1 esterase inhibitor is a protease inhibitor that inhibits the catalytic subunits of the first components of the classical pathway. In the absence of C1 esterase inhibitor, activated C1 and plasmin generate activated C2 kinin, which mediates angioedema. Acquired C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency generally affects adults or elderly individuals with no family history. Serum C1q is decreased. It occurs in the setting of lymphoproliferative disease or rheumatologic illness, where idiotype/anti-idiotype immune complexes consume available C1q and functionally and quantitatively lower the amounts of C1 esterase inhibitor. It can also occur in the setting of autoimmunity directed against the C1 esterase protein. Inherited C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency is detected in the first or second decade of life and is autosomal dominantly inherited. Serum C1q is normal in the inherited form, but there is a defect in the synthesis and/or function of C1 esterase inhibitor. In both the inherited and acquired forms levels of C2 and C4 are decreased because of the uncontrolled actions of C1s.
182
ACE inhibitors cause angioedema via stimulation of? 1Bradykinins 2Histamine 3Prostaglandins 4Leukotrienes 5Complement
Bradykinins Bradykinins are responsible for angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor induced angioedema
183
Sneddon-Wilkinson Disease: 1Most often occurs in elderly women 2Rarely involves intertriginous areas 3May occur in association with an IgG monoclonal gammopathy 4Can be treated with narrow band UVB 5 Is usually an acute, self-limited condition
Can be treated with narrow band UVB Sneddon-Wilkinson disease, or subcorneal pustular dermatosis, presents with superficial pustules in annular and serpiginous patterns in the axillae, groin, and abdomen. Middle-aged women are most often affected. This condition rarely occurs in association with an IgA monoclonal gammopathy. It is a chronic condition, possibly related to psoriasis, with remissions of variable duration. Treatments including dapsone, acitretin, and narrow band UVB.
184
Which of the following medications is not associated with exacerbating this condition? 1Lithium 2Prednisone 3Phenytoin 4 Isoniazid 5 propranolol
Propranolol Acne or acneiform erruptions can be caused or exacerbated by corticosteroids, oral contraceptives, androgens, ACTH, lithium, phenytoin, INH, and haloperidol
185
Which of the following is true regarding the components of amyloid? 1Ground substance is present only in secondary cutaneous or tumor-associated amyloidosis 2The amyloid P component is present in all forms 3Protein AA is present in primary systemic amyloidosis 4The amyloid present in secondary systemic amyloid does not lose its birefringence after treatment with potassium permanganate 5Protein AL loses its biregringence after treatment with potassium permanganate
The amyloid P component is present in all forms All forms of amyloidosis contain amyloid P component and ground substance. The protein-derived amyloid fibers differ among various forms of amyloid. Protein AL is found in primary systemic amyloidosis. Protein AA is found in secondary systemic amyloidosis. Secondary systemic amyloid (AA) loses its birefringence after treatment with potassium permanganate, but amyloid in primary and localized forms do not.
186
Which of the following is a manifestation of psoriasis of the nail matrix? 1Splinter hemorrhages 2Oil spots 3Subungal hyperkeratosis 4Onycholysis 5Pits
Pits Psoriatic nail changes may be of nail matrix or bed in origen. Pits are the most common findings, while splinter hemorrhages are the least. Psoriatic nail changes involving the matrix include pits (representing focal psoriasis of the proximal nail matrix) and leukonychia
187
Lichen planus pemphigoides has been associated with an antigen to which structure? 1Type XVII collagen 2Hemidesmosome plaque 3Desmoglein 3 4Desmoglein 1 5Type VII collagen
Type XVII collagen Type XVII collagen, or BPag2 (180 kD) has been associated with LP pemphigoides. The hemisdesomosome plauqe is also known as BPag1 (230 - kD), desmoglein 1 and 3 are associated with the Pemphigous family, and antibodies to Type VII collagen is found in Epidermolysis Bullosa Aquisita
188
A 35 year old man with a history of celiac disease presents with a beefy, red tongue, hyperpigmented palmar creases, and premature grey hair. Which of the following statements are is correct? 1The best therapy is riboflavin 5mg/day 2This condition mimics folate deficiency 3it is often associated with carcinoid tumors which divert tryptophan to serotonin 4This condition can be caused by azithioprine, 5-FU, and isoniazid 5Eating raw egg whites is a risk factor
This condition mimics folate deficiency This condition is vitamin B12 deficiency and is characterized by glossitis and hyperpigmentation in sun exposed areas and creases. Neurologic abnormaolities and megaloblastic anemia can be seen. The symptoms can mimic folic acid deficiency. Riboflavin (B2) is associated with oral-ocular-genital syndrome. Carcinoid tumors as well as azathioprine, 5-FU, and isoniazid are associated with niacin deficiency. Eating raw eggs is a risk factor for biotin deficiency.
189
The presentation of a foregut carcinoid tumor involves: 1The production of histamine, cyanotic flush, and bronchoconstriction 2The production of serotonin, intense flushing, peptic ulcer, and lacrimation 3To cutaneous findings 4The production of kallikrein with bronchial asthma and angioedema 5Frequent episodes of tongue swelling and urticaria
The production of serotonin, intense flushing, peptic ulcer, and lacrimation Carcinoid syndrome involves tumors derived from the enterochromaffin cells. The appendix is the most common site. Tumors can be foregut (bronchus, stomach, or pancreas), midgut (small intestine to mid-colon), or hindgut (descending colon and rectal). Tumors from the foregut area produce serotonin, cause peptic ulcers, and produce intense, persistent flushing and lacrimation.
190
A 32 year-old pregnant woman presents for treatment comedonal and moderately inflammatory acne. You discuss treatment options with her, and she asks about the evidence for safety in pregnancy of various treatments. According to the FDA classifications, which of the following treatments either shows no risk to the fetus in controlled studies (but may show risk to animals), or shows no risk in animal studies (but no human studies have been conducted)? 1Benzoyl peroxide 2Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole 3Topical tretinoin 4Azeleic acid 5Tetracycline
Azeleic acid The FDA classifies medication safety for use in pregnancy as follows: Category A: Controlled studies in humans show no risk to fetus. Category B: Controlled human studies show no risk (but may show risk to animals), or no risk in animal studies (but no human studies have been conducted). Category C: Risk to human fetus cannot be ruled out, studies are lacking; animal studies are equivocal. Category D: Controlled studies show risk, but in some instances benefits may outweigh risks. Category X: Contraindicated in pregnancy. The question describes category B. Azeleic acid is a category B medication. Benzoyl peroxide, topical tretinoin, and TMP/SMX are category C medications. Tetracycline is a category D medication.
191
A patient presents to the ER with skin pain and large sheets of epidermal detachment on greater than 10% of his body surface area after starting bactrim. No purpuric macules or target lesions are noted. Which of the following can help predict mortality in this patient? 1glucose greater than 150 mg/dL 2age over 40 years 3heart rate greater than 100 4history of diabetes 5BUN greater than 15 mg/dL
age over 40 years The patient described has TEN. A diagnosis of TEN can be made if the patient presents with epidermal detachment of \>30% of the body surface with widespread purpuric macules or flat atypical targets, or if there are large sheets of epidermal detachment involving \>10% of the body surface without purpuric macules or target lesions. The SCORTEN scoring system was developed to assess severity of illness and predict mortality in TEN, and is meant to be calculated within the first 24 hours after admission and again on day three. The score is the sum of the following clinical variables: (1) age over 40 years; (2) heart rate \>120 beats per minute; (3) the presence of cancer or hematologic malignancy; (4) epidermal detachment involving body surface area \>10% on day one; (5) blood urea nitrogen \>28 mg/dL (10 mmol/L); (6) glucose \>252 mg/dL (14 mmol/L); and (7) bicarbonate \>20 mEq/L. The mortality increases sharply with each additional point, with a score of 5 or greater having a 90% mortality.
192
A mother brings her 4 year old boy with silvery blond hair into your office and reports that her child's hair cannot be combed flat. You notice that it has a spun-glass appearance. Which of the following is false regarding this condition? 1Biotin has shown improvement in a few cases 2There are usually no systemic findings 3Longitudinal grooving can be seen on electron microscopy 4The hair abnormality tends to persist with age 5The condition is autosomal dominant
The hair abnormality tends to persist with age This patient has uncombable hair syndrome, characterized by dry, spun-glass, silvery blond hair. It is also known as pili trianguli et canaliculi. Hair is normal in quantity and tends to become more manageable with time.
193
A 48 year old woman was recently diagnosed with dermatomyositis. Which examination would be most important in a work up for malignancy? 1Breast exam 2Chest xray 3Thyroid exam 4Pelvic exam 5Stool guiac
Pelvic exam Dermatomyositis is an idiopathic inflammatory disease with myositis and characteristic cutaneous manifestations. There is an increased incidence of malignancy in these patients which may precede, occur with or follow the diagnosis of dermatomyositis. The most common form of malignancy in adult women is ovarian cancer. Other malignancies that have been associated include testicular cancer, gastrointestinal, lung and nasopharyngeal carcinomas.
194
RNP antibodies include: 1anti-SSA, anti-centromere, anti-SSB 2anti-SSA, anti-SSB, anti-Sm, anti-U1RNP 3anti-SSA, anti-SSB, anti-Sm, anti-dsDNA 4ANA, anti-dsDNA 5anti-SSA, anti-U1RNP, anti-centromere
anti-SSA, anti-SSB, anti-Sm, anti-U1RNP RNP antibodies target small ribonucleoproteins. These include SS-A (Ro), SS-B (La), Sm, and U1RNP. The total amount of antibody has more diagnostic value than the mere presence of antibody.
195
Which form of sarcoidosis is associated with camptodactyly? 1Lofgren's syndrome 2Heerfordt's syndrome 3Darier-Roussy 4Mikulicz syndrome 5Blau syndrome
Blau syndrome Camptodactyly is a flexion contracture of the 3rd through the 5th proximal interphalangeal joints and elbows bilaterally. Blau syndrome is an autosomal dominant form of sarcodosis due to a defect in the CARD15 gene manifesting also with arthritis, cutaneous sarcoid, uveitis, and synovial cysts. It does not have lung or visceral involvement.
196
A pregnant woman presents with mild inflammatory acne which is very bothersome to her. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option based on FDA classifications of medication in pregnancy? 1Topical erythromycin/benzoyl peroxide gel 2Topical tretinoin 3Tazarotene 0.1% cream 4Azelaic acid 20% cream 5Bactrim
Azelaic acid 20% cream Azeleic acid is category B in pregnancy. The others are category C (benzoyl peroxide, topical tretinoin, and bactrim) or category X (tazarotene). The categories for safety of drugs in pregnancies are as follows: Category A: controlled studies in humans show no risk to fetus. Category B: controlled human studies show no risk to fetus but may show risk to animals, or no risk in animal studies but no human studies conducted. Category C: risk to human fetus cannot be ruled out, studies are lacking; animal studies equivocal. Category D: controlled suties show risk to human fetus, benefits may sometimes outweigh risk. Cateogory X: contraindicated in pregnancy
197
What type of amyloid is deposited into the skin of this pruritic disorder? 1Amyloid AA 2Amyloid AL 3Keratin derived 4Beta-2 microglobulin 5Transthyretin
Keratin derived Lichen amyloidosis is a pruritic eruption that often occurs in areas of chronic rubbing. Clinically, it has a rippled appearance. Keratin derived amyloid is the type deposited in the skin
198
Which of the following is characteristic of lichen planus pigmentosus? 1Lesions are typically hypopigmented 2Most cases present in Caucasians 3Oral involvement is pathognomonic 4Can occasionally see epidermotropic T-cells 5Trunk is typically spared
Can occasionally see epidermotropic T-cells Occasionally epidermotropic T-cells are seen in the lichenoid reaction and thus may raise concern for mycosis fungoides. Lichen planus pigmentosus inversus, in particular, presents in classic sites of mycosis fungoides, including the axilla, inguinal, and inframammary areas. The individual lesions of lichen planus pigmentosis are typically smaller, however, than those encountered in mycosis fungoides, thus helping with the differential. Lesions of lichen planus pigmentosus are hyperpigmented, with most cases prsenting in skin of color. Oral involvement is rare and the trunk can be involved.
199
A young man treated with minocycline developed blue-black discoloration with acne scars at his cheeks. A Perls stain would show: 1Increased melanin at the basal layer of the epidermis 2Black staining granules within macrophages 3Blue staining granules within macrophages 4�Muddy brown� pigment granules 5Giant melanosomes
Blue staining granules within macrophages Perls stain stains hemosiderin (iron) blue. Fontana Masson stains melanin black. Minocycline hyperpigmentation often shows positive staining for both iron and melanin
200
The hyperproliferative epithelium of this mature psoriasis plaque is associated with increased expression of which keratin(s)? 1 K1, K10 2 K5, K14 3 K6, K16 4 K17 5 K2e
K6, K16 Expression of keratins K6 and K16 is upregulated in hyperprolferative psoriasis plaques.
201
Behcet's disease is associated with which HLA type? 1 HLA-B51 2 HLA-B17 3 HLA-B13 4 HLA-DR4 5 HLA-Cw6
HLA-B51 Behcet's disease is associated with HLA-B51. HLA-Cw6 is the HLA type most closely associated with psoriasis. HLA-B13 and HLA-B17 are also both associated with psoriasis; HLA-B17 is assiated with earlier onset and more serious psoriasis
202
Which of the following is true regarding this diagnosis? 1The protein deposited is derived from Ig light chains, kappa subtype 2Skin is involved in \<10% of cases 3A different protein is found in skin lesions associated with a plasmacytoma 4Bullae, when present, are subepidermal 5Factor V deficiencies are commonly associated with this entity
Bullae, when present, are subepidermal Primary sytemic amyloidosis involves the skin in 40% of cases. The tongue, heart, and GI tract are commonly involved. The protein AL is derived from Ig light chains (lambda subtype); AL is also found in nodular or tumefactive cutaneous amyloidosis produced by a plasmacytoma. Glossitis is common, and may lead to dysphagia; the lateral aspects of the tongue often show indentations from teeth. Purpuric lesions result from amyloid infiltration of blood vessels, and occur after trauma (pinch purpura). Bullous amyloidosis presents with tense, hemorrhagic bullae at areas of trauma; lesions are subepidermal. Arthropathies of small joints, enlarged deltoids (shoulder pad sign), factor IX and X deficiencies, cardiac arrythmias, and CHF may all result
203
Immunologic abnormalities in atopic dermatitis include: 1Increased CD8 T-cell number and function 2Increased secretion of IFN-gamma 3Decreased expression of CD23 on B cells and monocytes 4Increased secretion of IL-4 5Accentuated DTH response
Increased secretion of IL-4 Immunologic abnormalities in atopic dermatitis include increased synthesis of IgE, increased specific IgE to multiple allergens, increased expression of CD23 (low-affinity IgE receptor) on B cells and monocytes, increased basophil histamine release, impaired DTH response, decreased CD8 suppressor/cytotoxic T-cell number and function, increased secretion of IL-4 and IL-5 by TH2 cells, and decreased secretion of IFN-gamma by TH1 cells.
204
Monotherapy for acne with topical antibiotics is discouraged because of: 1Slow onset of comedolytic action 2Potential for irritation 3Lack of anti-inflammatory action 4Potential for bacterial resistance 5Poor patient compliance
Potential for bacterial resistance Topical antibiotics reduce the population of P. acnes on the skin, and thus are indirectly anti-inflammatory. In contrast to topical retinoids, topical antibiotics are not comedolytic. They are generally well tolerated by patients.
205
A patient presents with lesion that can be herniated into the skin on palpation. What is thought to be important in the pathogenesis of this condition? 1Calcification of the elastic fibers 2Formation of excessive collagen 3Focal loss of elastic tissue 4Atrophy of the epidermis 5Inflammation of the panniculus
Focal loss of elastic tissue Anetoderma is a benign condition caused by focal loss of elastic tissue. Primary or idiopathic anetoderma originates from previously healthy skin with unknown pathogenesis. Various ocular, bony, cardiac, and other abnormalities have been reported with primary anetoderma. Secondary anetoderma occurs after the resolution of an inflammatory disease of the skin.
206
A patient's biopsy is found to have curled hair shafts with hyperkeratotic plugs. Which of the following is not an associated feature of this condition 1Hypochondriasis 2Gingivitis 3Delayed wound healing 4Nail changes 5Tender nodules on the lower extremitie
Nail changes The patient's biopsy demonstrates the corkscrew hairs of scurvy, or vitamin C deficiency, which is characterized by the 4 "H"s: hemorrhagic signs (tender nodules on the lower extremities), hyperkeratosis of hair follicle, hypochondriasis, and hematology abnormalities
207
Which of the following is associated with Reiter�s syndrome: 1Ulcerative colitis 2Multiple sclerosis 3HLA-Cw6 4Asymmetric arthritis 5Perioral dermatitis
Asymmetric arthritis Reiter�s syndrome is a chronic inflammatory disease similar to psoriatic arthritis. Commonly, patients present with either a peripheral, asymmetric arthritis, or a urethritis, or conjunctivitis. Not all of these findings need be present. Patients are usually men with the HLA-B27 genotype. Other clinical findings include fever, weight loss, keratitis, iritis, and cardiac disease. Skin lesions are often found on the palms (keratoderma blenorrhagicum _ hyperkeratotic papules and plaques) or the penis (balanitis circinata). Reiter�s follows an infection of either the genitourinary tract or the gastrointestinal tract.
208
A patient with inflammatory bowel disease develops acute tender juicy plaques on the head and neck, fever, and malaise. The skin lesions respond well to prednisone. Data shows increased ESR and neutrophilic infiltrate with dermal edema on skin biopsy. Which one of the following is a major criteria for this condition? 1Fever and malaise 2History of inflammatory bowel disease 3Abrupt onset of plaques 4increased ESR 5Good response to prednisone
Abrupt onset of plaques This condition is called Sweet's syndrome, or acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis. Diagnosis relies on two major and two minor criteria. Major ones include 1) an abrupt onset of juicy painful plaques and bullae and 2) neutrophilic infiltration in the dermis on pathology. Minor criteria include 1) presence of associated conditions ie inflammatory bowel disease, infections, pregnancy, leukemia, etc 2) fever and malaise, 3) laboratory values ie high ESR and CRP, and 4) excellent response to prednisone.
209
Angiolymphoid hyperplasia with eosinophilia most commonly occurs on the: 1Ear 2Lip 3Dorsal hands 4Trunk 5Lower extremities
Ear Angiolymphoid hyperplasia with eosinophilia often presents with red to reddish-brown papules or nodules on the head or neck. While lesions can occur on any body site, most common locations are the ears and scalp.
210
A young girl presents with recurrent severe arthritis of the ankles. She also has a large ulcer on her leg and severe acne. Which gene is mutated? 1 PSTPIP1 2 NOD2 3 CIAS1 4 AIRE 5 FOXP3
PSTPIP1 This patient has PAPA (pyogenic arthritis-pyoderma gangrenosum-acne) syndrome. The gene mutated is PSTPIP1, also known as CD2 binding protein 1 (CD2BP1) which encodes proline-serine-threonine phosphatase-interacting protein 1. NOD2 is the gene involved in Blau syndrome; CIAS1 with CINCA/Muckle-Wells/Familial cold autoinflammatory syndromes; AIRE with APECED (autoimmune polyendocrinopathy-candidiasis-ectodermal dystrophy); FOXP3 with IPEX (immune dysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, enteropathy, X-linked) syndrome.
211
Phrynoderma is associated with deficiency of which vitamin? 1Vitamin A 2Vitamin B1 3Vitamin B6 4Vitamin D 5Vitamin K
Vitamin A Phrynoderma (toad skin) presents clinically as keratotic papules on the extremities and shoulders and results from a deficiency of Vitamin A. Vitamin A is a fat soluble vitamin. Hypovitaminosis A is often seen in diseases such as Crohn's disease, celiac disease and cystic fibrosis which manifest with fat malabsorbtion. Hypovitaminosis A is additionally associated with night blindness, xeropthalmia and keratomalacia.
212
What is the most common cause of death in malignant atrophic papulosis Degos disease? 1Cutaneous infection 2Cerebrovascular accident 3Myocardial ischemia 4Bowel infarction 5Pulmonary hemorrhage
Bowel infarction Degos disease is an obliterative arteritis clinically presenting with pink-red papules that later develop atrophic, porcelain-white centers. Death is usually secondary to Infarction of the bowel and perforation. Less commonly, death results from cerebral infarction
213
Which of the following medications is most likely to induce or exacerbate psoriasis in your patient. 1Hydrochlorothiazide 2Lisinopril 3Amlodipine 4Metoprolol 5Diltiazem
Metoprolol Several drugs have been incriminated as inducers of psoriasis, in particular lithium, B-Blockers, antimalarials, and interferon. More recent additions include terbinafine, calcium channel blockers (nicardipine, nifedipine, nisoldipine, verapamil, and diltiazem), captopril, glyburide, and lipi-lowering drugs such as gemfibrozil.
214
A 48 year-old man with a long history of alcohol abuse and dependence presents with angular cheilitis, atrophic glossitis, a scrotal dermatitis that spares the midline and extends to the thighs, photophobia, and blepharitis. Which nutritional deficiency do you suspect? 1Vitamin B12 2Vitamin C 3Pyridoxine 4Vitamin B2 5Iron
Vitamin B2 The patient presents with classic findings of the oral-ocular-genital syndrome seen in the setting of vitamin B2 (riboflavin) deficiency. This deficiency occurs most often in alcoholics. It characteristically presents with angular cheilitis, atrophic glossitis (magenta), a seborrheic-like dermatitis around the nose, genital dermatitis (scrotal dermatitis sparing the midline and extending to the thighs), photophobia, and blepharitis
215
What type of collagen is overrepresents in this lesion? 1Collagen I 2Collagen III 3Collagen IV 4Collagen V 5Collagen VII
Collagen III Keloids are dense overgrowths of fibrous tissue that usually develop after injury to the skin. Collagen III is overrepresented in these keloids
216
A young man presents with explosive onset of severe cystic acne with acute, suppurative nodules and plaques that ulcerate and form a blackish eschar on the trunk as well as the face. Which of the following is true regarding this entity? 1Women are more often affected than men 2 P. acnes osteomyelitis presents with lytic changes on x-rays and bone scans 3 The sternoclavicular joint is often involved in this entity 4 Systemic corticosteroids are contraindicated given risk of sepsis 5 High-dose isotretinoin monotherapy is the treatment of choice
The sternoclavicular joint is often involved in this entity Acne fulminans is a rare, explosive form of severe cystic acne affecting young males. Patients may be systemically ill, with leukocytosis, fever, arthralgias, and myalgias. Lytic changes, indicative of a sterile osteomyelitis, can be seen on x-ray and bone scans. The sternoclavicular joint and chest wall are most frequently affected. Treatment is with oral prednisone, intralesional steroids, antibiotics, and isotretinoin.
217
Which of the following dermatoses occurs at the latest stage of pregnancy? 1Darkening of nevi 2Linea nigra 3Melasma 4Areolar hyperpigmentation 5Psoriasis exacerbation
Linea nigra Linear nigra is one the latest skin changes in pregnancy. It is a hyperpigmented, linear streak which exctends from the pubic symphysis to the xiphoid process. It usually appears from the 20th week.
218
Patients with this HLA type, which has the most definitive association with psoriasis, have a relative risk of having psoriasis that is 9-15 times normal. 1HLA-B13 2HLA-B17 3HLA-Bw57 4HLA-Cw6 5HLA-B27
HLA-Cw6 HLA-Cw6 is the HLA type most definitively associated with psoriasis. It carries a relative risk 9-15 times normal.
219
What is the best muscle to biopsy in dermatomyositis? 1triceps 2biceps 3quadriceps 4gluteus maximus 5deltoid
triceps The triceps muscle is involved early in the disease; therefore, it has the highest yield in a muscle biopsy looking for the changes seen in dermatomyositis. Surgeons have traditionally biopsied the deltoid mulscle, but it is not involved until late in the disease.
220
Neutrophilic dermatoses en plaque is often associated with which of the following? 1 IgA monoclonal gammopathy and a benign course 2 IgA monoclonal gammopathy and a malignant course 3 Myeloma and B lymphomas and a benign course 4 IgG monoclonal gammopathy and a benign course 5 IgG monoclonal gammopathy and a malignant course
IgA monoclonal gammopathy and a benign course Neutrophilic dermatoses en plaque are well defined, sharply demarcated intensely red plaques. Myeloma and B cell lymphomas are rarely associated. These resolve with treatment of the gammopathy.
221
Which of the following is NOT associated with this disease of symmetric induration caused mucin deposition? 1Diabetes mellitus 2Streptococcal infection 3Monoclonal gammopathy 4Hepatitis C 5All of the answers are associated with this disease
Hepatitis C Scleredema is a type of dermal degenerating mucinosis characterized by diffuse symmetric induration of the upper body. 3 types of scleredema have been described. The first type is seen in children following a stretococcal infection. The second type is associated with a monoclonal gammopathy. The third type is related to insulin dependent diabetes.
222
The most common associated disorder in a patient with elastosis perforans serpiginosa is: 1Marfan syndrome 2Down syndrome 3Osteogenesis imperfecta 4Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 5Rothmund-Thomsom syndrome
Down syndrome About 1/3 of case of elastosis perforans serpiginosa occur in patients with other concomitant disorders. All of the above can occur in patients with EPS; however the most common is Down syndrome. One mnemonic to remember the associated disorders is: PROMEDA. This stands for PXE, Rothmund-Thomson, Osteogenesis imperfecta, Marfan syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, Down syndrome, acrogeria
223
Teenage boys with severe, eruptive cystic acne and fever, leukocytosis, myalgias and other constitutional symptoms can have which of the following bony change? 1Dimpling above the 5th MCP 2Osteolytic lesions of the clavicle 3Osteopoikilosis 4Stippled epiphyses 5Jaw cysts
Osteolytic lesions of the clavicle The syndrome described is that of acne fulminans. Osteolytic bone lesions may accompany this syndrome, most commonly of the clavicle. Dimpling above the 5th MCP is a feature of Albright�s Hereditary Osteodystrophy. Osteopoikilosis is a feature of Buschke-Ollendorf syndrome. Stippled epiphyses occurs in chondrodysplasia punctata. Jaw cysts are a feature of Gorlin�s syndrome
224
P. acnes activation of which of the following may stimulate a pro-inflammatory cytokine cascade? 1 TLR-2 2 TLR-5 3 IL-1 4 IL-8 5 TNF-000
TLR-2 Toll-like receptors are a large group of receptors that recognize a variety of bacterial motifs. P. acnes has been shown to activate TLR-2, leading to signal transduction and production of pro-inflammatory cytokines.
225
Which of the following HLA types is associated with early onset psoriasis? 1HLA-B13 or HLA-B17 2HLA-B27 3HLA-B57, HLA-Cw6, or HLA-DR7 4HLA-Cw2 5HLA-DR3
HLA-B57, HLA-Cw6, or HLA-DR7 HLA-B57, HLA-Cw6, or HLA-DR7 are most commonly associated with early onset type I psoriasis. The presence of HLA-B13 or B17 is associated with a 5-fold risk of developing psoriasis and are increase in guttate and erythrodermic psoriasis. HLA-B27 may be seen in pustular psoriasis. HLA-Cw2 is seen with late onset psoriasis, or type II. HLA-DR3 is commonly found with subacute cutaneous lupus
226
Patients with chronic idiopathic urticaria should avoid: 1 Latex products 2 Alcohol 3 Nickel sulfate 4 �-blockers 5 aspirin
aspirin Chronic idiopathic urticaria is defined by the presence of urticaria of unknown etiology lasting greater than 6 weeks. Patient with chronic idiopathic urticaria should avoid aspirin as it aggravates urticaria in about 30% of patients.
227
Which of the following is important in the pathogenesis of acne vulgaris? 1 Activation of toll-like receptor-3 by P. acnes 2 Activation of toll-like receptor-2 by M. furfur 3 Activation of toll-like receptor-2 by P. acnes 4 P. acnes produces lipase which cleaves cholesterol into triglycerides 5 Demodex activates complement
Activation of toll-like receptor-2 by P. acnes Acne vulgaris is a disease of follicular hyperkeratosis and the microcomedone is thought to be the precursor lesion. P. acnes has lipase that cleaves triglycerides into free fatty acids. P. acnes can activate complement and PMN chemotaxis. Toll-like receptors (TLR) recognize bacterial patterns and P. acnes activates TLR-2.
228
Which of the following is true regarding relapsing polychondritis? 1 Involvement is often bilateral 2 Pathogenic antibodies have not yet been identified 3 The course is chronic, yet mortality is low 4 Both sexes are equally affected 5 Migratory arthralgias are uncommonly seen
Both sexes are equally affected Relapsing polychondritis involves intermittent episodes of inflammation of the articular and nonarticular cartilage, resulting in chondrolysis, dystrophy, and atrophy of the cartilage. Both sexes are equally affected. IgG anti-type II collagen antibodies are pathogenic, with titers corresponding to disease activity found in up to 50% of patients with relapsing polychondritis (and in only 15% of those with RA). Involvement is often unilateral. Migratory arthralgias are seen in 50-80%. The course is unpredictable, often chronic and variable with episodic flares. Relapsing polychondritis causes death in 1/3 of patients secondary to airway collapse, cardiovascular complications, and infection (secondary to systemic steroids).
229
You are suspicious for a new diagnosis of lupus in a patient recently treated with penicillamine. Which antibodies would you expect to have been induced by this medication? 1 anti-dsDNA 2 anti-histone 3 anti-SSA 4 anti-SSB 5 anti-Mi-2
anti-dsDNA Penicillamine induces native systemic lupus erythematosus, associated with anti-dsDNA antibodies, in contrast to drug-induced lupus erythematosus which has been associated with exposure to hydralazine, procainamide, sulfonamides, penicillin, anticonvulsants, minocycline, and INH and is associated with anti-histone antibodies.
230
Which of the following complement profiles would suggest a diagosis of hereditary angioedema (C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency)? 1 C2 high and C4 high 2 C1 low and C4 high 3 C3 high and C1-inh decreased 4 CH 50 low and C1-inh high 5 C1-inh normal, C1 normal and C4 low
C1-inh normal, C1 normal and C4 low C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency may be inherited or acquired. The genetic form is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion. Serum C1q is low in the inherited form and therefore the defect is in the synthesis and/or function of the inhibitor. In acquired disease, serum C1q is decreased. Lymphoproliferative disease and rheumatological disease may be the cause. As far as complement levels are concerned, C2 and C4 are decreased in both forms. Androgen therapy using danazol or stanozolol are given for prevention while fresh frozen plasma or C1INH should be given in acute attacks. In cases of hereditary disease the profile is normally: C1 nl, C4 low, C2 low, C3 nl, C1-inh low or nl, C1q low, CH 50 nl or low. For acquired disease, the profile is typically: C1 low, C4 low, C2 low, C3 nl, C1-inh low or nl, C1q low, CH 50 low. C1 can distinguish between hereditary and acquired forms.
231
What is the most common extracutaneous manifestation of Sweet'€™s syndrome? 1 Arthralgias 2 Conjunctivitis 3 Renal involvement 4 Sterile osteomyelitis 5 Fever
Fever Extracutaneous manifestations of Sweet's syndrome occur in more than 75 percent of patients with Sweet’s syndrome. The most common is fever, followed by arthralgias, arthritis, or myalgias. Other less frequent manifestations include conjunctivitis, episcleritis, oral aphthae- like lesions, cough, dyspnea, pleuritis, and sterile multifocal osteomyelitis. Cardiac, renal, hepatic, intestinal, or neurologic manifestations are rare.
232
A patient with this cutanous finding along with peri-ocular erythema, deltoid weakness and pulmonary disease is most likely to have which laboratory finding? 1 Anti-Jo-1 antibodies against histidyl-tRNA synthetase 2 Anti-Jo-1 antibodies against nuclear helicase 3 c-ANCA against proteinase-3 4 Lupus anticoagulant 5 Anti-histone antibodies
Anti-Jo-1 antibodies against histidyl-tRNA synthetase Anti-Jo-1 antibodies against histidyl-tRNA synthetase are described in patients with dermatomyositis and pulmonary disease. Anti-Mi-2 antibodies against nuclear helicase are described in classic DM with a good prognosis. Patients with Wegener's disease display c-ANCA antibodies against proteinase-3 in a cytoplasmic pattern. Antiphospholipid antibodies are also known as anticardiolipin antibodies and lupus anticoagulant. They can cause a false positive VDRL. Clinical features include livedo reticularis, thrombotic events and spontaneous abortions. Anti-histone antibodies are seen in drug-induced lupus.
233
What systemic condition is often associated with this disease? 1 Diabetes mellitus 2 Tobacco use 3 Alopecia areata 4 Coronary artery disease 5 Hepatitis C
Hepatitis C Oral lichen planus is often found in patients with hepatitis C. The association between cutaneous lichen planus and hepatitis C is not clear.
234
Which cellular organelle is affected in the partial lipodystrophies? 1 Nucleolus 2 Rough endoplasmic reticulum 3 Golgi apparatus 4 Cell membrane 5 Nuclear lamina
Nuclear lamina Both the congenital (Dunnigan - Type 1) and acquired (Barraquer-Simons) lipodystrophies are caused by mutations involving the nuclear lamina of the cell. Dunnigan lipodystrophy is characterized by a mutation in LMNA and Barraquer-Simons is caused by a LMNB2 mutation.
235
Pyostomatitis vegetans is characteristically associated with which systemic disease? 1 Pemphigus vulgaris 2 Ulcerative colitis 3 Lichen planus 4 Lymphoma 5 Rheumatoid arthritis
Ulcerative colitis Pyostomatitis vegetans is a pustular, vegetative variant of pyoderma gangrenosum, found in the oral mucous membranes. It is most frequently associated with inflammatory bowel disease.
236
What is the most common ocular finding in this patient with this granulomatous disease? 1 Blepharitis 2 Acute anterior uveitis 3 Posterior uveitis 4 Keratoconus 5 Cataracts
Acute anterior uveitis Sarcoidosis is a systemic disease characterized by the formation of non-caseating granulomas. Organs involved include the skin, eyes, lungs, liver and spleen. The most common ocular finding is acute anterior uveitis. Other findings may include posterior uveitis, blurred vision, and excessive lacrimation.
237
The arthritis of Behcet's disease is characteristically: 1 Symmetric, erosive polyarthritis 2 Asymmetric, erosive polyarthritis 3 Asymmetric, non-erosive polyarthritis 4 Asymmetric, erosive monoarthritis 5 Symmetric, non-erosive polyarthritis
Asymmetric, non-erosive polyarthritis Behcet's disease is characterized by recurrent oral ulceration plus 2 of the following: recurrent genital ulceration, eye lesions (posterior uveitis), skin lesions, positive pathergy test. Clinical features include thrombosis of the superior vena cava, thrombophlebitis, CNS lesions that give a picture of multiple sclerosis, and an asymmetric non-erosive polyarthritis.
238
A patient presents with hemorrhagic onycholysis. The drug class most commonly associated with this finding is: 1 Quinolone antibiotics 2 Systemic retinoids 3 Calcineurin inhibitors 4 Taxanes 5 Tetracyclines
Taxanes Taxane probably cause nail changes more commonly than other drugs. Cutaneous toxicity has been reported with taxanes and includes erythema and desquamation, involving primarily the hands. Taxanes exert their cytotoxic effect by reversibly binding the β-subunit of tubulin, thereby inducing tubulin polymerization and inhibiting microtubule depolymerization. A balance between polymerization and depolymerization is needed for normal microtubule function. Taxanes disrupt this balance, leading to arrest at the G2/M phase of the cell cycle.
239
You prescribe oral erythromycin to a 35 year-old woman. Co-administration of which of the following medications could lead to potential adverse outcomes? 1 Oral contraceptives 2 Warfarin 3 Carbamazepine 4 Methylprednisolone 5 Warfarin, carbamazepine, or methylprednisolone
Warfarin, carbamazepine, or methylprednisolone Erythromycin inhibits the hepatic cytochrome P450 system and can increase serum levels and potential toxicities of carbamazepine, theophylline, warfarin, digoxin, and methylprednisolone.
240
In lichen planus pemphigoides: 1 Bullae develop characteristically in lesions of longstanding lichen planus 2 Circulating IgG antibodies react to the 230 kDa antigen within the basement membrane zone 3 There is granular deposition of IgG and C3 at the dermoepidermal junction 4 Bullae result from intense lichenoid inflammation and extensive liquefactive degeneration of basal keratinocytes 5 Vesicles may develop de novo on previously uninvolved skin
Vesicles may develop de novo on previously uninvolved skin Lichen planus pemphigoides presents with tense blisters atop lesions of LP or de novo on uninvolved skin. It can be differentiated from bullous LP, where blisters develop in lesions of longstanding LP as a result of intense lichenoid inflammation and extensive liquefactive degeneration of basal keratinocytes. Histologically it resembles LP, with linear deposition of IgG and C3 at the DE junction. Circulating IgG autoantibodies react to a 180/200 kDa antigen within the basement membrane zone.
241
Attached image can be associated with all of the followings except: 1 Smooth muscle hamartoma 2 Unilateral breast hypoplasia 3 Acneform lesion 4 Skeletal defect 5 Cardiac defect
Cardiac defect Becker's nevus can be occasionally associated with smooth muscle hamartoma, hypoplasia of underlying structures, such as unilateral breast hypoplasia, unilateral or ipsilateral pectoralis major aplasia, ipsilateral limb shortening, ipsilateral foot enlargement, spina bifida, scoliosis, pectus carinatum, localized lipoatrophy, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, polythelia, and accessory scrotum. In addition to acneform lesions and eczematous dermatitis. There is no association with cardiac defect.
242
What is the condition which is a diagnostic cutaneous manifestation of sarcoid? 1 Discoid lupus 2 Lupus pernio 3 Lupus vulgaris 4 Granulomatous rosacea 5 Rhinoscleroma
Lupus pernio Sarcoidosis is a systemic disease charcterized by non-caseating granulomas. Organ involved include the skin, lung, liver and eyes. Lupus pernio manifests as indurated, red-brown, swollen plaques of the nose, lips, cheeks and ears
243
Which auto-antibody correlates with this finding, shawl sign and an overall favorable prognosis in Dermatomyositis? 1 Anti-Mi-2 antibody 2 Anti-Jo-1 antibody 3 Anti-SRB antibody 4 Anti-KU antibody 5 Anti-PL7 antibody
Anti-Mi-2 antibody Anti-Mi-2 antibodies correlate with shawl sign, cuticular changes (as seen in the image) and an overall favorable prognosis. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies correlate with pulmonary fibrosis, Raynaud's and polyarthritis. Anti-SRB antibodies correlate with cardiac disease and a poor prognosis. Anti-KU antibodies correlate with sclerodermatomyositis. Anti-PL7 and Anti-PL12 antibodies (anti-synthetase antibodies) also correlate with pulmonary disease.
244
Which of the following is true about nevus anemicus: 1 Usually occurs in association with vitiligo 2 Occurs more frequently in men than in women 3 Most commonly involves the upper chest 4 Results from locally decreased vascular reactivity to catecholamines 5 Contains dilated blood vessels
Most commonly involves the upper chest Nevus anemicus is caused by localized hypersensitivity to catecholamines and most commonly found in the upper chest
245
A patient presents with recurrent crops of papules that ulcerate and then spontaneously heal. What immunohistochemical stain would be helpful in making the diangosis? 1 CD 4 2 CD 20 3 CD 30 4 CD 56 5 CD 68
CD 30 Lymphomatoid papulosis Lymphomatoid papulosis (LyP; Macaulay disease) is a chronic lymphoproliferative disease of the skin characterized by recurrent crops of papules that may ulcerate. The papules heal spontaneously over a period of 1-2 months and may leave a depressed scars. The T-cells in this disorder typically stain positively for CD 30.
246
A young woman presents with tender, erythematous nodules an the anterior lower extremities. Which of the following would not be an appropriate test to consider? 1 TSH 2 ESR 3 ASO 4 Fungal cultures 5 PPD
TSH Erythema nodosum can be triggered by several medical conditions, including drugs, IBD, infections (strep, hepatitis, TB, fungus), sarcoidosis, and malginancy. Thyroid disease is not a known trigger for erythema nodosum
247
A pregnant woman presents with the following condition which is bothersome to her. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option based on FDA classifications of medication in pregnancy? 1 Topical erythromycin/benzoyl peroxide gel 2 Topical tretinoin 3 Tazarotene 0.1% cream 4 Azelaic acid 20% cream 5 Bactrim DS
Azelaic acid 20% cream This patient has mild-moderate inflammatory acne. Azelaic acid is the only medication listed which falls under category B. The others listed are category C, except for tazarotene, which is category X
248
Best treatment option for this stable type of vitiligo is 1 Phototherapy with narrow band UVB 2 Excimer laser 3 Oral prednisone 4 20% monobenzyl ether of hydroquinone 5 Nitrogen mustard
20% monobenzyl ether of hydroquinone The picture shows generalized type of vitiligo or vitiligo universalis. Patients who have widespread disease with only a few areas of normally pigmented skin in exposed sites can be treated with depigmenting agents. The patients must be carefully chosen, i.e. adults who recognize that their appearance will be altered significantly and who understand that depigmentation requires lifelong care of the skin (sunscreens, protective clothing, etc.). The most commonly used agent is monobenzyl ether of hydroquinone (MBEH) 20% applied twice daily to the affected areas for 9-12 months or longer. Monobenzyl ether of hydroquinone is a potent irritant and/or allergen, and an open use test should be performed before more widespread application. It normally takes 1-3 months to initiate a response, and a loss of pigment can occur at distant sites. Although depigmentation from MBEH is considered permanent, repigmentation (especially perifollicular) can be seen following a sunburn or even intense sun exposure. Monomethyl ether of hydroquinone in a 20% cream can be used as an alternative to MBEH. Side effects include contact dermatitis, exogenous ochronosis and leukomelanoderma en confetti. Phototherapy and excimer laser are not good or practical choices for this type of vitiligo. Nitrogen mustard is not used in vitiligo.
249
A patient presents with recurrent genital and oral ulcerations and a diagnosis of posterior uveitis. What HLA type is associated with the diagnosis you suspect? 1 HLA-B27 2 HLA-B51 3 HLA-DR3 4 HLA-Cw6 5 HLA-DR4
HLA-B51 The patient has Behcet's disease. Behcet's disease is diagnosed based on recurrent oral ulceration (at least 3 times in a 12 month period) plus 2 of the following: recurrent genital ulceration, posterior uveitis, skin lesions (erythema nodosum, pseudofolliculitis, papulopustular lesions, or acneiform nodules), and a positive pathergy test. Behcet's disease is associated with HLA-B51.
250
Acquired angioedema is characterized by: 1 Inheritance 2 Decreased levels of C1 3 Self-limited course 4 Association with underlying malignancy 5 Increased C1 esterase inhibitor
Association with underlying malignancy Hereditary angioedema is an autosomal dominant condition associated with recurrent attacks of angioedema of the skin, respiratory, and gastrointestinal tract, without urticaria and is caused by a functional deficiency in C1 esterase inhibitor. In contrast, acquired angioedema is caused by a depletion in C1 esterase inhibitor. There are two forms of acquired angioedema; one results from the production of antibodies directed against C1 esterase inhibitor, and the other is seen in association with underlying malignancies, especially B cell lymphomas, with antibody production against overexpressed paraproteins. Acquired angioedema can be distinguished from hereditary angioedema by differences in serum levels of C1. While the level is markedly decreased in acquired angioedema, a normal C1 is seen in patients with hereditary angioedema.
251
What is the most common variant of morphea in children? 1 Plaque 2 Generalized 3 Bullous 4 Deep (morphea profunda) 5 Linear
Linear Linear morphea is the most common presentation in children, comprising between 40% to 70% of children with morphea. This subtype includes linear morphea of the extremity, en coup de sabre, or progressive facial hemiatrophy, all of which may be accompanied by underlying tissue atrophy.
252
Xanthoma striata palmaris are diagnostic of: 1 Familial hypertriglyceridemia (type IV) 2 Familial dysbetalipoproteinemia (type III) 3 Familial lipoprotein lipase deficiency (AR) 4 Familial lipoprotein lipase deficiency (AD) 5 Apoprotein CII deficiency
``` Familial dysbetalipoproteinemia (type III) Xanthoma striata palmaris are diagnostic of type III dysbetalipoproteinemia (AR; broad beta disease). This condition also presents with palmar, planar, tendinous, tuberous, eruptive, and intertriginous xanthomas, increased IDL, and atherosclerosis. It is associated with diabetes, gout, and obesit ```
253
Macroglossia can present in all of the following disorders except 1 Primary systemic amyloidosis 2 Down's syndrome 3 Mucopolysaccharidoses 4 Cretinism 5 Behchets disease
Behchets disease Macroglossia is not a feature of Behchets disease. Macroglossia, a classic feature that occurs in about 20% of patients with primary systemic amyloidosis due to deposition of amyloid in the tongue leading to firm and enlarged tongue. These patients can also have hemorrhagic papules, plaques and blisters on its surface. Macroglossia is seen in many diseases and syndromes including Down's syndrome, mucopolysaccharoidoses, cretinism, hypothyroidism, lipoid proteinosis and Beckwith-Wiederman Syndrome.
254
In a well-designed study, the impact of psoriasis on health-related quality of life was found to be similar to which of the following conditions? 1 Diabetes 2 Acne vulgaris 3 Onychomycosis 4 Seasonal allergic rhinitis 5 Hypercholesterolemia
Diabetes The emotional and physical burden of psoriasis is easily underestimated. Rapp et al found that patients with psoriasis report reduced physical and mental functioning (�heath related quality of life�) similar to that seen in patients with cancer, hypertension, arthritis, heart disease, diabetes, and depression.
255
Which of the following is a manifestation of psoriasis of the nail matrix? 1 Splinter hemorrhages 2 Oil spots 3 Subungual hyperkeratosis 4 Pits 5 Onycholysis
Pits Psoriatic nail changes may be of nail matrix or nail bed origin. Pits are the common finding; splinter hemorrhages the least. Psoriatic nail changes of matrix origin include: pits (representing focal psoriasis of the proximal matrix) and leukonychia. Psoriatic nails changes of nail bed origin include: salmon spots, �oil spots,� onycholysis, subungual hyperkeratosis, and splinter hemorrhages.
256
A 45-year old woman from the United States develops erythema and swelling around her eyelids and symmetric weakness of her shoulders and hips. What malignancy is overrepresented in patients with this condition compared to the general population? 1 Ovarian Cancer 2 Lung Cancer 3 Leukemia 4 Uterine Cancer 5 Breast Cancer
Ovarian Cancer This patient has a heliotrope rash and proximal muscle weakness, consistent with the diagnosis of dermatomyositis. 18-32% of patients with dermatomyositis will develop malignancy. The risk of malignancy is greatest within the first 3 years of diagnosis. Ovarian cancer is overrepresented. In Southeast Asia, nasopharyngeal cancer is overrepresented.
257
This woman is being treated for corticosteroid-induced rosacea with topical metronidazole and an oral tetracycline. She is very concerned about the redness of her face. Judicious use of what color concealer can reduce the appearance of redness on the skin? 1 Yellow 2 Lavender 3 Pink 4 Bronze 5 Green
Green This slide shows a woman with rosacea. Green and red are on opposite sides of the color wheel and thus can �cancel� each other out. Green concealer can neutralize redness on the skin.
258
The lesions shown here are most likely to: 1 Occur in infants and elderly patients 2 Occur as an adverse reaction to medication 3 Be refractory to treatment 4 Follow a streptococcal infection 5 Erupt after the appearance of a �herald patch�
Follow a streptococcal infection This slide shows guttate psoriasis.
259
Which of the following receptor is the most important mediator of retinoid activity in the skin? 1 RAR-gamma 2 RXR-alpha 3 RXR-gamma 4 RAR-beta 5 RXR-beta
RAR-gamma Retinoid activity is mediated by retinoid receptors. Two groups exist: RA receptors (RAR) and RX receptors (RXR). Each has three receptor subtypes: alpha, beta, gamma. RAR-gamma is the most important mediator of retinoid activity in the skin.
260
Patients with psoriasis treated with cyclosporine should be monitored for: 1 Sicca symptoms 2 Hypermagnesemia 3 Alopecia 4 Acute interstitial pneumonitis 5 Hyperkalemia
Hyperkalemia Well-documented adverse effects and toxicities of cyclosporine include renal impairment, hypertension, elevated triglycerides, hyperkalemia, hypomagnesemia, hepatotoxicity, hypertrichosis, and long-term increased risk of malignancy.
261
What is the treatment of choice for this condition? 1 Nystatin 2 Fluconazole 3 Better oral hygiene 4 Penicillin 5 Acyclovir
Better oral hygiene Black tongue is associated with poor oral hygiene, the use of medications, and radiation to the head and neck region. In many cases, simply brushing the tongue with a toothbrush or using a commercially available tongue scraper is sufficient improve the condition.
262
A premature infant who is being weaned off breast milk develops vesicobullous and eczematous skin lesions and diarrhea. Which of the following is not another classic precipitant for this condition 1 Parenteral nutrition 2 Stress (i.e. infection) 3 Diets with mainly cereal grains 4 Liver disease 5 Alcoholism
Liver disease Zinc deficiency can be seen in premature or term infants being weaned off breast milk, which is usually high in zinc content, as well as in parenteral nutrition use, alcoholism because of poor nutritional intake, malabsorption, IBD, diets high in grains containing phytate which binds zinc, and metabolic stress
263
Which of the following is NOT a feature associated with this condition? 1 Accelerated blanch response 2 White dermatographism 3 Anterior subcapsular cataracts 4 Keratoconus 5 Pityriasis alba
Accelerated blanch response The child pictured has atopic dermatitis. Features associated with atopic dermatitis include pityriasis alba, white dermatographism and delayed blanch reponse, anterior subcapsular cataracts, and keratoconus.
264
Which of the following is true regarding neonatal lupus erythematosus? 1 Most cases involve boys 2 Lesions generally resolve spontaneously by 6 months, healing with scarring 3 Photosensitivity is generally not a feature 4 75% of mothers have symptomatic systemic lupus erythematous at the time of delivery 5 Congenital heart block may be the only manifestation of the disease
Congenital heart block may be the only manifestation of the disease Neonatal LE presents with annular scaling erythematous macules and plaques on the head and extremities within the first few months of life in babies born to mothers with LE, rheumatic diseases, or other connective tissue disorders. 50% of mothers are asymptomatic at delivery. Lesions resolve spontaneously by 6 months, healing without scarring. Photosensitivity may be prominent. 75% of cases involve girls. 50% have congenital heart block, which is permanent, and may be the only manifestation of the disease. Thrombocytopenia and hepatic disease are as frequent as cardiac disease.
265
An atypical finding in patients with Lofgren syndrome is? 1 Fever 2 Arthritis 3 Subcutaneous Tender Nodules 4 Acute Iritis 5 Beaded papules on nasal rim
Beaded papules on nasal rim Lofgren syndrome is a form of acute, self resolving, sarcoidosis manifested with hilar adenopathy, fever, migrating polyarthritis, acute iritis, and erythema nodosum. In general these patients do not have other manifestations of cutaneous saroidosis. Papules along the nasal rim are suggestive of Lupus Pernio sarcoidosis and suggest a worse brognosis with bronchial involvement.
266
Which of following medications may increase the likelihood of pseudotumor cerebri in patients taking oral isotretinoin? 1 Spironolactone 2 Dapsone 3 Amoxicillin 4 Rifampin 5 Tetracycline
Tetracycline Pseudotumor cerebri, or benign intracranial hypertension is more common in adolescent and young adult women, but can occur in children. Medicines reported to be associated with the condition include vitamin A analogues, tetracyclines, steroids (especially in withdrawal), nalidixic acid, sulphonamides, lithium, thyroxine, growth hormone, amiodarone and tamoxifen. It most often presents with headache (90% of cases), pulsatile in quality. Less frequent symptoms are visual disturbances and pulsatile tinnitus. Pseudotumor can also be completely asymptomatic. The mechanism is not fully understood but current opinion favors impaired reabsorption of cerebrospinal fluid. Of the medicines associated with the condition, minocycline is most frequently reported in the literature followed by tetracycline and doxycycline. Isotretinion has been repored to cause it and it is possible that the incidence of pseudotumor may increase if two or more drugs which might cause it are used together. For this reason tetracyclines should not be prescribed concomitantly with oral retinoids.
267
The most common finding in patients with systemic sclerosis is: 1 Migratory polyarthritis 2 Esophageal dysfunction 3 Pulmonary fibrosis 4 Renal disease 5 Cardiac conduction defects
Esophageal dysfunction Esophageal dysfunction is the most common systemic finding in systemic sclerosis. A migratory polyarthritis is the first manifestation of disease in many. Pulmonary fibrosis, renal disease and cardiac conduction defects are all manifestations but not the most common.
268
This patient has similar lesions on his distal extremities. Which laboratory test can be done in order to make a diagnosis? 1 Hemogram 2 Alkaline phosphatase 3 Creatinine 4 Potassium 5 TSH
Alkaline phosphatase acrodermatitis enteropathica, a rare, inhertied disorder caused by an inability to absorb zinc. This disease is characterized by a traid of acral dermatitis, diarrhea, and alopecia. AE is rapidly reversed by zinc supplementation. Alkaline phosphatase is a zinc-dependent enzyme; it is a moderately-sensitive marker for zinc deficiency (although not an early marker).
269
Phrynoderma can be seen in all of the following nutritional deficiency except 1 Vitamin A 2 Vitamin B 3 Vitamin C 4 Vitamin D 5 Vitamin E
Vitamin D Phrynoderma or “toad skin” is typically associated with vitamin A deficiency. These keratotic follicular papules often first develop on anterolateral thighs and posterolateral upper arms then spread to extremities, shoulders, abdomen and back. Although phrynoderma is originally reported in association with vitamin A deficiency, it can also be observed with defeciencies in B-complex vitamins and vitamins C and E, in addition to essential fatty acid deficiency.
270
Melanocytes can be found in all of the following except: 1 Nevus depigmentosa 2 Tyrosinase positive albinism 3 Nevus anemicus 4 Vitiligo 5 Postinflammatory hypopigmentation
Vitiligo Vitiligo is an acquired disease in which there is total loss of pigment. The central process in vitiligo is the destruction of melanocytes. With silver stains or dopa reaction, well established lesions of vitiligo are completely devoid of melanocytes.
271
A patient has allergic contact dermatitis to paraphenylenediamine. Which of the following allergens may show a potential cross- reaction? 1 Adhesive 2 Sulfa drugs 3 Lidocaine 4 Fragrance 5 Nickel
Sulfa drugs Paraphenylenediamine (PPD) may cross react with a number of substances, including azo dyes, benzocaine, procaine, sulfa drugs, and para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA). PPD is often found in dark hair dyes and in modified henna tattoos. Fragrance, nickel, lidocaine, and adhesive do not show cross-reaction with PPD.
272
Spindle cell lipoma is commonly found on the: 1 Head 2 Lower extremities 3 Buttocks 4 Breast 5 Posterior shoulder
Posterior shoulder Spindle cell lipoma is a solitary benign tumor seen in adult male patients, and is most often located on the posterior shoulder and neck regions.The tumor histologically consists of mature collagen, adpose tissue, spindle cells, and mast cells. Treatment is with local excision.
273
Solid confluent palmoplantar keratosis, salmon-orange follicular papules and diffuse symmetrical involvement with characteristic small islands of normal skin within affected areas are all clinical characteristics of what skin disease? 1 Lichen Sclerosis 2 Dermatomyosistis 3 Phrynoderma 4 Reiter’s syndrome 5 Pityriasis rubra pilaris
Pityriasis rubra pilaris PRP can affect any portion of the body, but commonly affect the extensor surfaces of the extremities as well as the sides of the neck and trunk. It may progress with an almost erythrodermic type state with characteristic small island of normal skin within affected areas. Phrynoderma refers to the toadskin like skin seen in some vitamin deficiencies including vitamin A deficiency.
274
What is the most common infection that can cause guttate psoriasis? 1 Streptococcus pyogenes 2 Coccidiomycosis 3 Herpes 4 Mycoplasma pneumonia 5 Tuberculosis
Streptococcus pyogenes Guttate psoriasis refers to a distinctive, acute clinical presentation of an eruption characterized by small, droplike, 1-10 mm in diameter, salmon-pink papules, usually with a fine scale. It is more commonly seen in individuals younger than 30 years with a history of upper respiratory infection that precedes the eruption by 2-3 weeks. The most common organism is group A beta-hemolytic streptococci (eg, Streptococcus pyogenes). Although recurrent episodes may occur, especially those due to pharyngeal carriage of streptococci, isolated bouts are known to occur. Guttae psoriasis may also occur with other infections or in isolation without any identifiable infection.
275
TH2 immune responses: 1 Are associated with cell-mediated immunity 2 Produce IL-6 3 Produce IFN-gamma 4 Produce TNF-beta 5 Produce IL-2
Produce IL-6 TH1 cells produce IL-2, IFN-gamma, and TNF-beta, and are associated with cell-mediated immunity. TH2 cells produce IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-10, and IL-13, and are associated with antibody-mediated immune responses.
276
A 32 year old woman, now 12 weeks pregnant, presents to your office with pruritic scaly papules and plaques. A biopsy reveals focal spongiosis and parakeratosis in mounds, a superficial perivascular dermatitis, and extravasated red blood cells in the dermis. Which of the following is true? 1 It has been associated with EBV. 2 There is often a flare post-partum and during subsequent pregnancies. 3 There is no increased incidence in immunocompromised patients. 4 There is an increased risk of miscarriage in mothers who developed pityriasis rosea within the first 26 weeks of their pregnancy 5 Acyclovir may be effective in this condition
Acyclovir may be effective in this condition The question describes a case of pityriasis rosea, which has been associated with HHV6,7. There is an increased incidence in immunocompromised patients. There is an increased risk of miscarriage in women who develop pityriasis rosea before 15 weeks of gestation. Acyclovir may be effective in the treatment of pityriasis rosea, especially if treated in the first week of presentation (JAAD 2006;54(1):82-5).
277
A 35 year-old woman presents with predominantly lower facial inflammatory acne, hirsutism, and irregular menses. She has failed multiple conventional treatments. Laboratory work-up reveals a very high level of DHEA-S. You are most concerned about: 1 Congenital adrenal hyperplasia 2 Adrenal tumor 3 Polycystic ovary syndrome 4 Toxicity from prolonged use of spironolactone 5 Progestin excess from oral contraceptives
Adrenal tumor A patient whose acne fails to respond to conventional therapy, whose acne flares cyclically, with hirsutism, alopecia, or irregular menses warrants an endocrine work-up, including free and total testosterone, LH, FSH, and DHEA-S. Although rare, very high levels of DHEA-S may suggest an adrenal adrogen-secreting tumor.
278
Which of the following hormones bind the androgen receptor? 1 Dehydroepiandrosterone 2 Androstenedione 3 Dihydrotestosterone 4 Dehydroepiandrosterone and dihydrotestosterone 5 Dehydroepiandrosterone, androstenedione, and dihydrotestosterone
Dihydrotestosterone Only testosterone and dihydrotestosterone bind the androgen receptor, thus adrenal androgens (androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone) virilize only in so far as they serve as precursors for testosterone and dihydrotestosterone.
279
The diagnosis is 1 Psoriasis: 2 Alopecia areata 3 Onychomycosis 4 Lichen planus 5 Tetracycline-induced photo-onycholysis
Lichen planus Lichen planus-related nail changes seen here include thinning of the nail plate with onychorrhexis, ridging and pterygium formation.
280
A 35 year old man with plaque psoriasis well-controlled with twice daily application of calcipotriene 0.005% cream noticed a flare of his psoriasis shortly after he started using a prescription moisturizer lotion for psoriasis. Which is the most likely explanation for the apparent decreased efficacy of calcipotriene? 1 The moisturizer impaired penetration of the calcipotriene 2 The moisturizer diluted the calcipotriene 3 The two events are unrelated 4 The prescription moisturizer likely contains lactic acid. 5 The decreased efficacy is due to tachyphylaxis
The prescription moisturizer likely contains lactic acid. The active ingredient in Dovonex is easily inactivated, particularly by acidic compounds like salicylic acid and lactic acid.
281
A patient develops pulmonary fibrosis, Raynaud's phenomenon and skin changes similar to systemic sclerosis. These changes resolve following discontinuation of which of the following medications? 1 Bleomycin 2 Penicillamine 3 Hydralazine 4 Minocycline 5 Isoniazide
Bleomycin The changes described above are similar to findings of scleroderma. Patients receiving bleomycin can develop a reversible syndrome similar to scleroderma. The other four listed options are related to drug-induced lupus erythematosus and are not linked to scleroderma-like syndromes.
282
Which of the following is not associated with this condition? 1 Poor oral hygeine 2 Antibiotic use 3 Aging 4 Thrush 5 Smoking
Aging Black hairy tongue is a common reactive condition due to the enlongation of filiform papillae. The most common etiologies include poor oral hygeine, use of oral antibiotics, HIV infection, use of tobacco, radiation, and alcohol.
283
Pernio or Chilblains is an inflammatory skin condition which is triggered by cold, wet, non-freezing environmental conditions. Acral skin has violaceous discoloration accompanied by burning or itching. While avoidance and prevention is best, the most effective pharmacologic treatment is: 1 Nifedipine 2 Nicotinamide 3 Phenoxybenzamine 4 Psoralen+UVA 5 Aspirin
Nifedipine Nifedipine is effective in about 70% of patients with pernio in prevention of the development of new skin lesions. The other options listed, other than aspirin, are anecdotally suggested to be helpful.
284
Malignancy of the aerodigestive tract is most closely associated with which paraneoplastic dermatosis? 1 Bazex's syndrome 2 Paraneoplastic pemphigus 3 Sweet's syndrome 4 Acanthosis nigricans 5 Dermatomyositis
Bazex's syndrome Bazex's syndrome (acrokeratosis paraneoplastica) is a paraneoplastic dermatosis associated with malignancy of the aerodigestive tract. Bazex's syndrome classically presents with violaceous erythema involving the ears, nose, hands and feet. Lesions progress to become hyperkeratotic and psoriasiform in appearance. The other answer choices all represent paraneoplastic dermatoses, but none are as closely associated with aerodigestive tract malignancies as Bazex's syndrome.
285
Patients of which HLA type are more prone to drug-induced lupus erythematosus when exposed to hydralazine? 1 HLA-Cw6 2 HLA-B7 3 HLA-DR3 4 HLA-DR4 5 HLA-B6
HLA-DR4 Drug-induced lupus erythematous has been associated with exposure to hydralazine, procainamide, sulfonamides, penicillin, anticonvulsants, minocycline, and INH. It generally has a benign course. The presence of anti-histone antibodies are closely associated with symptomatic disease. Hydralazine and procainamide are common culprits, with slow acetylators of hydralazine (HLA-DR4) more prone.
286
Nekam's Disease: 1 Is generally responsive to topical and intralesional steroids 2 Characteristically lacks scale 3 Rarely involves the buttocks 4 Presents with a reticulate pattern on the dorsal hands and feet 5 Presents with hypopigmented, atrophic lesions on the extremities
Presents with a reticulate pattern on the dorsal hands and feet Nekam's Disease (keratosis lichenoides chronica) presents with violaceous papules and nodules, hyperpigmented and hyperkeratotic, covered with gray scales. There is often a linear and reticulate pattern on the dorsal hands and feet, extremities and buttocks. This condition is generally very refractory to treatment.
287
The constellation of erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, uveitis, fever, and arthritis in patients with sarcoidosis is known as: 1 Loeffler's syndrome 2 Schnitzler's syndrome 3 Lofgren's syndrome 4 Heerfordt's syndrome 5 Mikulicz's syndrome
Lofgren's syndrome The presence of EN, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, uveitis, fever, and arthritis in patients with sarcoidosis is known as Lofgren's syndrome. Heerfordt's syndrome, also known as uveoparotid fever, frequently occurs in patients with sarcoidosis of the central nervous syndrome. It consists of uveitis, facial nerve palsy, fever, and parotid gland involvement. Milulicz's syndrome is bilateral sarcoidosis of the parotid, submandibular, sublingual, and lacrimal glands. Loeffler's syndrome is characterized by a patchy infiltrate in the lungs and eosinophilia of the blood and sputum. Loeffler's syndrome can be with creeping eruption (larva migrans). Schnitzler's syndrome is a rare disorder of chronic urticaria, fever, disabling bone pain, hyperostosis, increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and monoclonal IgM gammopathy. Pruritus is not a feature of Schnitzler syndrome.
288
A pregnant woman in her third trimester presents with nonpruritic erythematous plaques and pustules in the intertriginous regions, the trunk, and the extremities as well as systemic symptoms of malaise and fever. Which complication is most associated with this condition? 1 Premature labor 2 Placental insufficiency 3 No risk to fetus or mother 4 Small for gestational age 5 Microcephaly
Placental insufficiency This patient has pustular psoriasis of pregnancy which is also called "impetigo herpetiformis." It is characterized by red plaques with a peripheral ring of pustules that are distributed symmetrically in flexural areas and trunk and extremities. Patients can have elevated ESR and leukocytosis as well as hypocalcemia. There is a risk of fetal morbidity and mortality secondary to placental insufficiency and maternal mortality secondary to cardiac or renal failure. Premature labor may be associated with cholestasis or pregnancy. Patients with herpes gestationis may have a risk of premature labor and small for gestational age. Microcephaly may occur with isotretinoin taken during pregnancy.
289
What condition does this patient have given the extent of arthritis seen in this X-ray? 1 Antiphospholipid syndrome 2 Multicentric reticulohistiocytosis 3 Alpha-1-antitrypsin syndrome 4 Eosinophilic fasciitis 5 Dermatomyositis
Multicentric reticulohistiocytosis Multicentric reticulohistiocytosis is a non-Langerhans histiocytosis associated with mutilating arthritis. Dermatologically, patient may present with coral beading around the fingers. There is a 30% incidence of malignancy in these patients
290
A common site for chloracne is the: 1 Occipital scalp 2 Forehead 3 Scrotum 4 Forearms 5 Shoulders
Scrotum Common sites for chloracne include the malar cheek, the post-auricular scalp and in men, the scrotum.
291
The most common association with the generalized lesions shown is: 1 Hodgkin's disease 2 Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma 3 Granulomatous mycosis fungoides 4 HIV infection 5 Diabetes mellitus
Diabetes mellitus In a large retrospective study of 1383 patients, diabetes mellitus was diagnosed in 21% of patients with generalized GA, compared with 9.7% of patients with localized GA. Othere choices also have been reported to be associated with granuloma annulare. Dabski K, Winkelmann RK. Generalized granuloma annulare: clinical and laboratory findings in 100 patients. J Am Acad Dermatol. 1989;20:39-47
292
The most common laboratory abnormality in patients treated with isotretinoin is: 1 Decreased white blood cell count 2 Increased cholesterol 3 Elevated liver enzymes 4 Hypertriglyceridemia 5 Elevated CPK
Hypertriglyceridemia The most common laboratory abnormality seen in patients taking isotretinoin is increased triglycerides, followed by elevation of ALT and AST.
293
Patients with xanthoma disseminaturn may demonstrate: 1 Elevated serum beta lipoproteins 2 Sparing of the oral mucosa 3 Involvement of the pituitary gland 4 Sparing of the flexural areas 5 Increased risk of malignant degeneration
Involvement of the pituitary gland Xanthoma disseminatum is a rare mucocutaneous disease of discrete yellowish-red to brown papules in the axillary and inguinal folds. Patient are generally normolipidemic. Involvement of the pituitary gland may occur, leading to diabetes insipidus.
294
The diagnosis is: 1 Onychomycosis 2 Trauma-induced nail changes 3 Chronic paronychia 4 Pseudomonal infection 5 Psoriasis arthritis
Psoriasis arthritis This slide shows lateral onycholysis and subtle swelling of the distal interphalangeal joint (DIP), both characteristic findings of psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis.
295
Diarrhea, Dementia and a photosensitive dermatitis are associated with a deficiency of which vitamin? 1 Niacin 2 Biotin 3 Thiamine 4 Riboflavin 5 Pyridoxine
``` Niacin Niacin (Vitamin B3) deficiency is associated with a photosensitive dermatitis, diarrhea and dimentia. The photosensitive dermatitis classically involves the face, neck and upper chest (Casal's necklace) and forearms (as pictured). Other findings may include angular cheilitis and thickening and hyperpigmentation of skin overlying bony prominences. ```
296
Which of the following is NOT true regarding primary cutaneous amyloidosis? 1 AA is not the protein component 2 Amyloid is present around blood vessels 3 AL is not the protein component 4 Notalgia paresthetica may be associated with the macular form 5 Amyloid found in benign and malignant neoplasms does not represent primary cutaneous amyloidosis
Amyloid is present around blood vessels Keratin is the protein component in primary cutaneous amyloidosis. No amyloid is found around blood vessels. Macular amyloidosis (which may have associated notalgia paresthetica) and lichen amyloidosis are forms of primary cutaneous amyloidosis. Secondary cutaneous amyloidosis presents with keratin-derived amyloid and is seen following PUVA therapy and in benign and malignant neoplasms.
297
Which of the following is true regarding this entity? 1 Extragenital lesions commonly involve the torso and are usually pruritic 2 Childhood onset is reported in ~5% of cases 3 20% of both men and women with this diagnosis have at least one autoimmune disease 4 Girls outnumber boys 2:1 5 Genital disease represents 50% of childhood cases
20% of both men and women with this diagnosis have at least one autoimmune disease The patient pictured has lichen sclerosus. This likely represents an autoimmune phenomenon, as 20% of both men and women have at least one autoimmune disease (vitiligo, alopecia areata, or thyroid disease), and a larger proportion have circulating antibodies. Extragenital lesions most frequently involve the torso and are usually asymptomatic. Childhood onset occurs in 10-15% of cases, and girls outnumber boys 10:1. Genital disease represents 90% of childhood lichen sclerosus.
298
Acute hemorrhagic edema of childhood is distinguished from Henoch-Schonlein Purpura based on: 1 The presence of pupura on the upper trunk 2 The lack of an antecedent infection 3 The involvement of the synovia 4 The neurologic complications 5 The lack of systemic features
The lack of systemic features Acute hemorrhagic edema of childhood affects children and infants \< 2 years of age. It presents with painful, edematous petechiae and ecchymoses on the head and distal extremities. Facial edema may be the initial sign. Triggering factors include infection, drugs, and immunization. It lacks the systemic features of HSP, and resolves in 1-3 weeks without sequelae. HSP occurs mostly in children. There is an antecedent URI in 75% of cases. HSP involves the skin, synovia, GI tract, and kidneys. Long-term morbidity results from renal disease, which is predicted by the spread of purpura to the upper trunk.
299
In this patient with an autoimmune disorder, which autoantibody would be indicative of increased risk of pulmonary disease? 1 U1RNP 2 DsDNA 3 anti-Jo-1 antibody 4 Mi-2 antibody 5 Scl-70 antibody
anti-Jo-1 antibody The patient depicted has dermatomyositis. Autoantibodies to anti-Jo-1 antibody targets histidyl transfer RNA synthetase. In dermatomyositis correlates with the development of pulmonary disease.
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First line therapy for subcorneal pustular dermatosis is: 1 Dapsone 2 Tetracycline 3 Vitamin E 4 Topical retinoids 5 Topical steroids
Dapsone First line therapy for subcorneal pustular dermatosis or Sneddon-Wilkinson disease is dapsone 50-200mg/day. Sulfapyridine, acitretin, PUVA, NB UVB, topical and systemic steroids, vitamin E and antibiotics have been reported to be helpful also.
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A 35-year-old man presents with scattered infiltrative cutaneous plaques, chronic fever, parotid gland enlargement, and a facial nerve palsy. What other finding is most likely on physical exam? 1 Anterior uveitis 2 Periungual telangiectasia 3 Nail pits 4 Non-scarring alopecia 5 Condyloma lata
Anterior uveitis Heerfordt-Waldenstrom Syndrome is a form of sarcoidosis consisting of fever, parotid enlargement, facial nerve palsy, and anterior uveitis. Periungual telangiectasias are commonly seen in collage vascular diseases. Nail pits are commonly seen in psoriasis and alopecia areata. Sarcoidosis involvement of the scalp often results in a scarring alopecia. Condyloma lata is seen in secondary syphilis.
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What characteristic body would be found on histopathology of this disease? 1 Kamino 2 Civatte 3 Henderson-Patterson 4 Donovan 5 Dutcher
Civatte Hypertrophic lichen planus is a type of lichen planus characterized by hyperkeratosis. They are usually pruritic and often found on the extremities. Civatte bodies are degenerated keratinocytes often seen in lichen planus.
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Eosinophilia, asthma, neuropathy and sinus abnormalities are associated with which of the following systemic vasculitidies? 1 Churg-Strauss syndrome 2 Polyarteritis nodosa 3 Microscopic polyangiitis 4 Wegener's granulomatosis 5 Kawasaki disease
Churg-Strauss syndrome Churg-Strauss syndrome has six diagnostic criteria as set by the American College of Rheumatology: Blood Eosinophilia, Asthma, Neuropathy, Sinus abnormalities, Allergies and Perivascular eosinophils. The presence of four of these six criteria yields a diagnostic sensitivity of 85% and specificity of 99.7%.
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A patient recently underwent parotid surgery and now reports unilateral flushing and sweating around mealtime. The nerve injured in this syndrome is a branch of the 1 Facial nerve 2 Maxillary nerve 3 Mandibular nerve 4 Cervical nerve 5 Frontal nerve
Mandibular nerve This patient has Frey syndrome or auriculotemporal nerve syndrome. This is characterized by facial flushing, sweating, or both localized to the distribution of the auriculotemporal nerve that occurs in response to gustatory stimuli. In adults, the syndrome usually results from surgical injury or trauma to the parotid gland.
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A 32 year-old woman presents with moderate hirsutism. She has normal menses, normal-sized ovaries, no evidence of tumors of the adrenal or ovary, and normal adrenal function, but does have slight elevations of plasma androstenedione and testosterone. What is the most likely diagnosis? 1 Stein-Leventhal syndrome 2 Cushing syndrome 3 Idiopathic hirsutism 4 Occult virilizing tumor 5 Kruckenberg tumor
Idiopathic hirsutism Idiopathic hirsutism is diagnosed in women with evidence of androgen excess but with normal menses, normal-sized ovaries, no evidence of tumors of the adrenal or ovary, and normal androgen function. Slight elevations of plasma androstenedione and testosterone are common.
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A 16 year old developmentally normal male presents to his pediatrician intermittent vague epidodes of hand and feet paresthesias and non specific episode of GI distress. He is referred to you to evaluate numerous punctate to 5 slightly verrucous, deep-red to blue-black papules distributed diffusely on his trunk in a bathing suit distribution. Polarization microscopy of the sediment of his urine demonstrates birefringent lipid globules (ie, renal tubular epithelial cells or cell fragments with lipid inclusions) with the characteristic Maltese cross configuration. What is the classic ocular finding in this disorder? 1 Pseudo-herpetic corneal ulcerations 2 Brushfield spots 3 Hyperpigmentation of the retinal epithelium 4 Corneal opacities 5 Lester irides
Corneal opacities Whorled corneal opacities are classically seen in Fabry's disease. Pseudo-herpetic ulcerations are seen in Richner-Hanhart. Brushfield spots can be seen in Down's syndrome. Congenital hyperpigmentation of the retinal epithelium is seen in Gardner's syndrome. Lester irides are seen in Nail-Patella syndrome.
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A 50-year-old female with sarcoid has enlargement of the parotid, submandibular, and lacrimal glands that is also known as: 1 Mikulicz's syndrome 2 Heerfordt-Waldenstromn syndrome 3 Darier-Roussy sarcoid 4 Lofgren's syndrome 5 Blau's syndrome
Mikulicz's syndrome This patient has Mikulicz's syndrome which is sarcoid of the parotid, submandibular and lacrimal glands. Heerfordt-Waldenstromn syndrome demonstrates a combination of fever, parotid enlargement, anterior uveitis, and facial nerve palsy. Darier-Roussy sarcoid is characterized by subcutaneous nodular sarcoid on the trunk and extremities. Lofgren's syndrome features acute sarcoid, erythema nodosum and migratory polyarthritis, fever, iritis, and bilateral hilar adenopathy. Blau's syndrome is a rare autosomal dominant familial granulomatous syndrome that presents with arthritis, uveitis, and skin lesions that appear as "red dots;" there is no pulmonary involvement.
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This patient also has poliosis and deafness. What is the associated ophthalmologic finding? 1 Normal ophthalmologic exam 2 Retinal detachment 3 Lisch nodules 4 Corneal opacities 5 Granulomatous uveitis
Granulomatous uveitis This patient has Vogt-Koyanagi-Haradi syndrome (VKHS). VKHS is marked by bilateral granulomatous uveitis, vitiligo, deafness, poliosis, and alopecia. This syndrome begins with a meningoencephalitic phase with fever, malaise, headaches, nausea, and vomiting. Varying degrees of neurological impairment may be present. Recovery is usual complete. The second phase is the ophthalmic-auditory phase during which uveitis appears rapidly and can results in blindness. Treatment with systemic steroids may prevent blindness. Lisch nodules are iris hamartomas which are seen in neurofibromatosis. Corneal opacities are seen in X-linked ichthyosis. Retinal detachment can occur as a result of head trauma, as in shaken-baby syndrome.
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Pyoderma gangrenosum is most commonly reported with which malignancy? 1 Leukemia 2 Medullary thyroid carcinoma 3 Lung carcinoma 4 Breast carcinoma 5 Prostate carcinoma
Leukemia Pyoderma gangrenosum, (PG), is an uncommon, ulcerative inflammatory skin condition characterized by boggy ulcerations with undermined borders preceded by the breakdown of a painful nodule or pustule. These lesions characteristically enlarge progressively over time and display marked tenderness. The diagnosis of PG is a diagnosis of exclusion and infectious etiologies should be excluded. Pyoderma gangrenosum can arise in the absence of an underlying disorder or it can be seen in association with underlying systemic conditions. These conditions include inflammatory bowel disease such as ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease, polyarthritis, chronic active hepatitis and Behcet's disease. Pyoderma gangrenosum has also been associated with an underlying paraproteinemia, mostly of the IgA type, although IgM and IgG types have also been described. In addition, some patients have myeloma at presentation or develop it subsequent to their diagnosis of PG. Pyoderma gangrenosum has also been described in association with myelodysplasia, and in acute myeloblastic, myelomonocytic, and chronic myeloid leukemia. Treatment of pyoderma gangrenosum should include therapy directed at the underlying systemic disorder.
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This 10 year-old girl presents to your office. These lesions have been present for months. She denies any other systemic complaints. What will you tell her parents? 1 They should expect her to get more lesions in non sun-exposed areas 2 She is more likely to develop systemic lupus erythematosus than an adult with these lesions 3 She is less likely than an adult to develop renal disease 4 She is more likely than an adult to develop cardiovascular disease 5 No hematologic labs are required for evaluation
She is more likely to develop systemic lupus erythematosus than an adult with these lesions Discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE) presents with plaques characterized by scarring, atrophy, follicular plugging, and scale and photosensitivity. Children presenting with DLE have a higher incident of developing systemic lupus (SLE) than adults. Because of progression from DLE to SLE, children should be screened and followed with antinuclear antibodies and anti- DNA antibodies. Children and adolescents have a higher incidence of renal involvement. Treatment for DLE includes topical steroids, oral steroids, and hydroxychloroquine.
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The most common cause of internal manifestation of scleroderma is: 1 Esophageal dysmotility 2 Sepsis 3 Pulmonary hypertension 4 Acute renal failure 5 Raynaud's phenomenon
Esophageal dysmotility Extracutaneous manifestations of scleroderma include esophageal dysmotility, pulmonary fibrosis with resultant pulmonary hypertension, cardiac involvement with conduction defects, pericarditis or heart failure, and renal involvement with acute renal failure. Esophageal dysmotility is the most common systemic manifestation with up to 90% of systemic sclerosis patients affected. Dysphagia can precede cutaneous involvement thereby giving rise to the term systemic sclerosis sine scleroderma. Dysmotility is manifested by reduced peristalsis, especially in the lower two-thirds of the esophagus. This can be demonstrated on a radiologic or manometric study.
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What is the most common cause of erythroderma in non-HIV patients? 1 Drugs 2 Underlying malignancy 3 Pre-existing dermatoses 4 Infection 5 Idiopathic
Pre-existing dermatoses Pre-existing dermatoses is most common cause in non-HIV patients, including atopic dermatitis, psoriasis, seborrheic dermatitis, chronic actinic dermatitis, mycosis fungoides, pityriasis rubra pilaris, and allergic contact dermatitis. Drugs are the second most common overall, and the most common in HIV patients
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Which of the following leukodermas has a normal number of epidermal melanocytes? 1 Albinism 2 Vitiligo 3 Piebaldism 4 Waardenburg's syndrome 5 Ziprowski-Margolis syndrome
Albinism 2 Vitiligo Patients with albinism have a normal number of epidermal melanocytes, however, these melanocytes synthesize inadequate amounts of melanin. Vitiligo, piebaldism, Waardenburg's syndrome and Ziprowski-Margolis syndrome all feature a decreased number or total absence of epidermal melanocytes.
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A healthy 50 year old man presents to your office with 3 red-brown indurated plaques on his forehead. Biopsy reveals a focal leukocytoclastic vasculitis, with a diffuse infiltration of neutrophils, eosinophils, and lymphocytes. Which of the following is a potential treatment option for this patient? 1 Q-switched alexandrite laser 2 Pulse dye laser 3 Q-switched ruby laser 4 Nd:YAG laser 5 Frequency-doubled Nd:YAG laser
Pulse dye laser The question stem describes a case of granuloma faciale. This condition presents with red-brown papules and plaques on the face, most commonly in middle-aged Caucasian males. While traditional treatment options include intralesional steroids with or without cryotherapy, pulse dye laser (595 nm) represents another treatment option for this condition, with successful clearance in a number of case reports.
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What is the major constituent of sebaceous gland lipid? 1 Triglyceride 2 Wax esters 3 Squalene 4 Free cholesterol 5 Cholesterol esters
Triglyceride Triglyceride is the major constituent of sebaceous lipid, accounting for over 50% of the lipid. Wax esters constitute about 25% of sebaceous lipid and Squalene accounts for about 15%. The remainder is free cholesterol and cholesterol esters.
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A patient with holocarboxylase synthetase deficiency is most at risk for developing a deficiency in: 1 Niacin 2 Pyridoxine 3 Biotin 4 Zinc 5 Essential fatty acids
Biotin There are three autosomal recessive syndromes that can lead to biotin deficiency: holocarboxylase synthetase deficiency, biotinidase deficiency, and an inability to transport biotin into cells. All of these syndromes present with a dermatitis similar to that of zinc deficiency as well as neurologic abnormalities
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First line treatment of chromoblastomycosis includes surgery and a medication with which mechanism of action? 1 Inhibits squalene epoxidase 2 Inhibits 14-alpha-demethylase 3 Disrupts microtubule mitotic spindle formation 4 Inhibits sythesis of beta-1,3-diglucan and disrupts cell walls 5 Inhibits fungal cytochrome P-450 mediated 14 alpha-lanosterol demethylation
Inhibits 14-alpha-demethylase The correct answer is surgery and itraconazole, which inhibits 14-alpha-demethylase. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase. Griseofulvin disrupts microtubule mitotic spindle formation. Caspofungin inhibits synthesis of beta-1,3-diglucan. Foscarnet inhibits fungal cytochrome P-450 mediated 14 alpha-lanosterol demethylation.
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Which is the most common site for abdominal carcinoid tumors causing the classic carcinoid syndrome? 1 Ileum 2 Appendix 3 Rectum 4 Bronchus 5 Liver
Appendix Carcinoid tumors are derived from enterochromaffin (Kulchitsky) cells. The appendix is the most common site, followed by the ileum. Less than 4% of abdominal carcinoid tumors have the carcinoid syndrome; the presence of the syndrome implies hepatic metastases, extraabdominal carcinoid tumor, or a large enough tumor burden such that the liver cannot degrade the increased level of hormone. Ileal tumors are the most common source of the classic carcinoid syndrome, and these tumors metastasize most frequently.
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What is the most common malignancy associated with this condition in this female? 1 Brain cancer 2 Thyroid cancer 3 Breast cancer 4 Ovarian cancer 5 Liver cancer
Ovarian cancer Dermatomyositis is an autoimmune polymyositis with characteristic cutaneous findings. Patients with dermatomyositis should be screened for a underlying malignancy. Risk factors for having an underlying malignancy include a negative ANA, adult age, and female gender. Ovarian cancer is one of the most frequently associated dermatomyositis.
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Increased LDL and VLDL is seen in which type of hyperlipoproteinemia? 1 Type IIb 2 Type I 3 Type III 4 Type IV 5 Type V
Type IIb Type IIb hyperlipoproteinemia is autosomal dominant and features increased LDL and VLDL. Associated clinical findings include xanthelasma, planar, tendinous and tuberous xanthomas. Type I hyperlipoproteinemia is autosomal recessive and manifests with increased chylomicrons. Clinically, patients develop eruptive xanthomas and lipemia retinalis. Type IIa hyperlipoproteinemia is autosomal dominant. Patients have increased LDL and may develop tendinous, tuberous, planar or eruptive xanthomas in addition to xanthelasma and arcus juvenilis. Type III hyperlipoproteinemia is autosomal recessive and features increased IDL. Clinically, these patients are prone to develop palmar, planar, tendinous, tuberous and eruptive xanthomas. Type IV hyperlipoproteinemia is autosomal dominant and manifests with increased VLDL. Patients develop eruptive, tendinous and tuberous xanthomas. Type V hyperlipoproteinemia is autosomal dominant. Patients have increased chylomicrons and VLDL and may develop eruptive xanthomas and lipemia retinalis.
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What is the treatment of choice for neurotic excoriations? 1 Risperidone 2 Doxepin 3 Olanzapine 4 Gabapentin 5 Diphenhydramine
Doxepin Doxepin is the treatment of choice for patients with neurotic excoriations. It has both antidepressant and antipruritic effects. Combined psychiatric and pharmacologic intervention is recommended. Other agents such as risperidone, olanzapine, gabapentin, and diphenhydramine are not drugs of choice for this disorder.
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Eyebrow growth: 1 Is androgen-dependent in men but not in women 2 Is regulated by dehydroepiandrosterone but not androstenedione 3 Is not androgen-dependent 4 Requires conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone in the hair follicle 5 Is regulated only by testosterone and dihydrotestosterone
Is not androgen-dependent Eyebrows, eyelashes, and vellus hair are not androgen-dependent, thus there is no difference between these areas of hair growth in men and women.
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Bonus! What 7 labs do you order before placing a psoriatic patient on biologics?
Biologic Labs: 1. ANA w/ Titer & Pattern 2. CBC w/ Diff 3. CMP 4. HEP B panel 5. VDRL 6. TB (QUANTIFERON GOLD replaces PPD) 7. Vit. D
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Bonus! What are the labs before placing a patient on Isotretinoin?
ICD-9: 706.1 & v67.51 FASTING: CBC w/ Diff, CMP, CHOL, TRIG, QUAL BETA HCG X2 (FEMALES)
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What labs are ordered for Soriatane in normal patient? What labs are ordered for a diabetic patient?
FASTING CBC w/ Diff, CMP, TRIG, CHOL, QUAL BETA HCG X2 (Avoid Pregnancy 3 years after D/C of med) Diabetic patients: HbA1C
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What initial 7 labs should you order to rule out this condition? What labs are ordered if you want to start Plaquenil?
1. ANA, 2. Anti-dsDNA, 3. Anti-Sm, 4. Anti-U1RNP, 5. Anti-histone, 6. Anti-SS-A/Ro, 7.Anti-SS-B/La 2. Plaquenil: (Lupus 695.4) Baseline: 1. CBC w/ Diff, 2. CMP, 3. UA, 5. G6PD (Ist Time Only), 6. Yearly Ophthal exam Eye exam & CBC w/ Diff Q3mo if prolong Rx
327
What labs are ordered for Lamisil in the treatment of onychomycosis?
Onychomycosis: 110.1 FASTING: CBC w/ Diff, CMP, PLATELET count
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What labs are ordered to confirm this condition?
Vitiligo: 709.01 Antiparietal cell Antibodies & Antimicrosomal Antibodies
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What labs should you order?
Thyroid: TSH & Antithyroid Antibody
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Patient is on treatment with Methotrexage for what condition? What labs should you order to monitor therapy?
1. Rheumatoid Arthritis 2. Methotrexate: Every 3 months: Fasting: CBC w/ Diff, CMP, UA
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