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Clinical medicine L.R. > Clinical Final Mock Exam > Flashcards

Clinical Final Mock Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of shunt has cyanosis?
right to left
left to right

A

right to left

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2
Q

patient has renal function without ability to concentrate urine

A

pyelonephritis

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3
Q

decreased # of nephrons

A

chronic renal insufficiency

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4
Q

Antigen-antibody reaction in which the glomeruli become inflamed. Results in total or partial blockage of large number of glomeruli and those that are not blocked develop increased permeability of the glomerular membrane, allowing large amounts of protein and red blood cells to leak into GF.

A

acute glomerulonephritis

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5
Q

Hypoproteinemia - Peeing out lots of plasma proteins due to increased permeability of the glomerular membrane causing a fall in colloid osmotic pressure and serious edema

A

nephrotic syndrome

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6
Q

retention of bilirubin in the liver causes

A

jaundice

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7
Q

barrett esophagus

A

metaplasia

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8
Q

congenital pyloric stenosis affects who

A

male newborns

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9
Q

inflammatory disease w presence of focal necrosis and petechial hemorrhages of mucosa due to aspirin, toxins, alcohol, stress, CNS trauma or hyper-secretion of gastric acid.

A

acute gastritis

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10
Q

Occurring in duodenum or stomach.
results from acid-pepsin digestion of mucosa as solitary lesions. men who smoke and drink

A

chronic peptic ulcer

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11
Q

common intestinal vascular disease due to chronic constipation, portal hypertension and pregnancy.

A

hemorrhoids

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12
Q

acute or chronic inflammation of unknown etiology causing extensive ulcerations of the mucosal surface of the colon.

Begins as mucosal hemorrhages, abscesses and ulcerations in the rectum that spreads proximally and extends to muscular layer.
Sx: manifested in adulthood as abdominal pain, cramps and bloody diarrhea.

A

ulcerative colitis

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13
Q

liver decreases in size with fine nodularity (micronodules).

A

laenecc’s alcoholic cirrhosis

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14
Q

liver is small with large, irregular regenerative macronodules interspersed among scars of varied size and prominent bile stasis.

A

postnecrotic cirrhosis

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15
Q

tetralogy of fallot has which 4 symptoms?:
pulmonary artery stenosis
atrial septal defect
ventricular septal defect
dextroposition of aorta
dextroposition of the pulmonary artery
left ventricular hypertrophy
right ventricular hypertrophy

A
  • pulmonary artery stenosis
  • ventricular septal defect
  • dextroposition of aorta
  • right ventricular hypertrophy
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16
Q

which is (are) an example of a left to right shunt?

ductus arteriosus persistant
atrial septal defect
transposition of the great vessels
ventricular septal defect

A

atrial septal defect
ventricular septal defect

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17
Q

left to right shunts divert blood away from the ___ circulation and send it to the ______circulation

A

systemic
pulmonary

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18
Q

right to left shunts divert blood away from the __ circulation and send it to the ___ circulation

A

pulmonary
systemic

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19
Q

which shunt results in reduced O2 saturation of arterial blood?

A

right to left

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20
Q

which shunt results in hypertrophy of pulmonary arteriole walls and increased pulmonary resistance leading to right ventricular hypertrophy and shunt “reversal”?

A

left to right

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21
Q

tga and vsd combined with pulmonary stenosis leads to:
more frequent chest infections and development of lung hypertension

prevent chest infections and development of lung hypertension

A

more frequent chest infections and development of lung hypertension

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22
Q

which is (are) an example of right to left shunt?

coarctation of the aorta
ventricular septal defect
tetralogy of fallot
transposition of the great vessels

A

tetralogy of fallot
transposition of the great vessels

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23
Q

the severity of tetralogy of fallot is related to:
the amount of pulmonary artery stenosis
the amount of ateriole resistance
the amount of cyanosis

A

the amount of pulmonary artery stenosis

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24
Q

what is the deadly quartet?
high hdl hypertension obesity smoking
high hdl low ldl diabetes smoking
high ldl low hdl obesity smoking
high hdl hypertension diabetes smoking

A

high hdl
hypertension
diabetes
smoking

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25
Q

in transposition of the great vessels the ___ arises from the ___ventricle and the ____ arises from the _____ ventricle

A

aorta from the right ventricle
pulmonary artery from the left ventricle

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26
Q

the most important complication of an anyeursem is?
rupture followed by severe haemorrhage into the peritoneal cavity
rupture followed by severe haemorrhage into the cardiac pleurae

A

rupture followed by severe haemorrhage into the peritoneal cavity

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27
Q

risk factor for atherosclerosis
high hdl low ldl
low hdl high ldl

A

low hdl high ldl

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28
Q

what are fatty streaks? where do they occur? in what population?

A

lesions which begin in children in all populations and show collections of foamy lipid-laden macrophages and smooth muscle cells just beneath the intimal surface of the arteries.

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29
Q

what is a fibrous cap? in what stage of athersclerosis does it occur? is it reversible?

A

2nd phase: is specific lesion that occurs later as the fibrolipid plaque, and at this point intimal changes are not reversible. In general the intimal surface shows a layer of fibrosis - “fibrous cap” which encloses a zone of fatty, necrotic, and partly calcified debris full of elongated smooth muscle cells, fibroblasts and macrophages

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30
Q

what is the third stage of athersclerosis?
lesion in fibrolipid plaque
foamy lipid-laden macrophages
damage to the tunica intima
formation of complicated plaque

A

formation of the complicated plaque, and it is the one that causes signs and symptoms of disease.

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31
Q

where is the aneurysm commonly caused by athersclerosis?
in the aorta below the a. media, and often going down into the iliac arteries
in the aorta below the a. renalis, and often going down into the iliac arteries

A

in the aorta below the a. renalis, and often going down into the iliac arteries.

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32
Q

Berry aneurysm may bleed to produce ?
aterial wall degeneration
subdural bleeding
venous bleeding
subarachnoid bleeding

A

subarachnoid bleeding

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33
Q

Tumors composed of masses of capillary-like channels filled with blood:
hemangioma
hemangiosarcoma

A

hemangioma

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34
Q

Congestive heart failure usually implies significant infarction of the ?
right ventricle
left ventricle
pulmonary artery
coronary artery

A

left ventricle

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35
Q

coronary vasoconstriction is superimposed on an increase in myocardial oxygen requirements ?
variant angina
stable angina
unstable angina
myocardial infarct

A

unstable angina

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36
Q

necrotic area is extended through the full thickness of the myocardium ?
unstable angina
stable angina
subendocardial infarct
myocardial infarct
transmural infarct

A

transmural infarct

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37
Q

most common of all metabolic diseases in post-menopausal women
Cushing’s disease
osteoporosis
gastritis

A

osteoporosis

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38
Q

schemic necrosis of the heart muscle with partial-thickness that is not associated with regional thrombosis ?
unstable angina
stable angina
subendocardial infarct
myocardial infarct
transmural infarct

A

subendocardial infarct

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39
Q

The oxygen supply to the myocardium decreases because of coronary artery vasospasm ?
variant angina
stable angina
unstable angina
myocardial infarct

A

variant angina

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40
Q

calcium channel blockers are the drug of choice for?
stable angina
unstable angina
variant angina

A

variant angina

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41
Q

long standing heart failure is often associated with:
ventricular hypertrophy
hypertension
hypotension
tachycardia

A

ventricular hypertrophy

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42
Q

acute cor pulmonale is often seen with
acute pulmonary embolism
acute pulmonary artery hypertrophy
acute pulmonary hypertension

A

acute pulmonary embolism

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43
Q

chronic cor pulmonale is often seen in:
COPD associated with loss of pulmonary vascular cross section area and constriction of remaining vessels due to response to acidosis and hypoxia

COPD associated with acute pulmonary hypertension and ventricular hypertrophy due to hypoxia

A

COPD associated with loss of pulmonary vascular cross section area and constriction of remaining vessels due to response to acidosis and hypoxia

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44
Q

stable angina occurs
at rest
after increased activity
either

A

after increased activity

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45
Q

variant angina occurs
at rest
after increased activity
either

A

either

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46
Q

unstable angina occurs
at rest
after increased activity
either

A

either

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47
Q

beta blockers are the drug of choice for?
stable angina
unstable angina
variant angina

A

stable angina

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48
Q

Calcific aortic stenosis, mitral valve prolapse, nonbacterial and bacterial endocarditis, systemic lupus erythematosus can result in which two ?
stenosis
embolus
pump failure
insufficiency
mitral regurgitation

A

stenosis
insufficiency

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49
Q

which type of pericarditis produces a loud pericardial friction rub with adhesions?
purulent acute
serous acute
fibrinous acute
hemorrhagic

A

fibrinous acute

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50
Q

preload reduction ?
use of diuretics reduce renal absorption of sodium and water and increase the clearance of these substance from the body and result in reduction of central blood volume

agents that cause arterial dilation diminish total peripheral resistance and cardiac output rises as the left ventricle can eject more

A

use of diuretics reduce renal absorption of sodium and water and increase the clearance of these substance from the body and result in reduction of central blood volume

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51
Q

Cardiac edema, pitting edema, ascites

right sided heart failure
left sided heart failure

A

right sided heart failure

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52
Q

heart infarction happens during
rest
vigorous activity

A

rest

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53
Q

an extensive infarction shows - choose two
hypotension
hypertension
bradycardia
tachycardia

A

hypotension
tachycardia

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54
Q

most sudden cardiac deaths are due to:
middle meningeal artery rupture
acute arrhythmia

A

acute arrhythmia

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55
Q

inflammatory consolidation in a patchy distribution usually on lower lobe:

Viral pneumonia
Bronchopneumonia
Pneumococcal pneumonia
Lobar pneumonia

A

Bronchopneumonia

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56
Q

Characterized by normal total lung capacity but DECREASED EXPIRATORY FLOW RATE

restrictive
obstructive

A

obstructive

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57
Q

Reduced expansion of lung parenchyma accompanied by DECREASED TOTAL LUNG CAPACITY but expiratory flow rate is normal

restrictive
obstructive

A

restrictive

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58
Q

episodic, reversible bronchoconstriction resulting from increased responsiveness (chronic inflammation) of the tracheobronchial tree to various stimuli. Sx: dyspnea, cough & wheezing (whistling during expiration)

which disease is this?
bronchitis
emphysema
asthma

A

asthma

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59
Q

COPD characterized by abnormal, permanent increase in the size of air space distal to the terminal bronchiole (the septa and alveolar walls appear broken with the wall fragments floating in large distorted air space)

which disease is this?
bronchiectasis
emphysema
asthma

A

emphysema

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60
Q

permanent dilatation of bronchi and bronchioles due to destruction of the muscle and elastic supporting tissue, resulting from chronic necrotizing infections (non-obstructive; widespread), or mechanical obstruction of bronchi by tumors or foreign bodies (obstructive; localization distal to the obstruction

which disease is this?
bronchiectasis
emphysema
asthma

A

bronchiectasis

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61
Q

lung abscess has ?
suppuration and coagulative necrosis
suppuration and liquefactive necrosis
liquefactive gangrene and suppuration
liquefactive gangrene and consolidation

A

suppuration and liquefactive necrosis

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62
Q

when traction from a scarred or congenitally shortened esophagus pulls the cardia of the stomach through the esophageal hiatus

sliding hernia
rolling hernia

A

sliding hernia

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63
Q

Failure of the gastroesophageal sphincter to relax.

diverticula
atresia
achalasia

A

achalasia

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64
Q

the most common to least common sites for the thrombosis in a transmural infarct are in order:

left anterior descending, right coronary, and left circumflex artery
left anterior descending, left circumflex artery, and right coronary
right coronary, left anterior descending, and left circumflex artery

A

left anterior descending, right coronary, and left circumflex artery

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65
Q

Blind upper segment of the esophagus, which has a hypertrophied wall and lower segment, which is connected to the trachea with tracheo-esophageal fistula.

diverticula
atresia
achalasia

A

atresia

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66
Q

portion of the gastric fundus protrudes through a defect in the esophageal hiatus

hiatal hernia
rolling hernia
sliding hernia

A

rolling hernia

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67
Q

dysphagia, food regurgitation and aspiration pneumonia are symptoms of which disease?

hiatal hernia
reflux esophagitis
chronic gastritis
achalasia
atresia

A

achalasia

68
Q

“pigeon-breast”- the ribcage is pulled outward by the muscles attached to it, barreling out over the diaphragm, lumbar lordosis, bowed is a characteristic of which disease?
paget’s disease
osteomalachia
rickets
kyphosis

A

rickets

69
Q

the three phases of bone healing in correct order

inflammatory
reparative
remodeling

inflammatory
remodeling
reparative

A

inflammatory
reparative
remodeling

70
Q

Sx: Sacrum and vertebral column localization w. asymmetric joint involvement , Inflammation of periarticular tendons, Carditis (heart inflammation), aortitis

osteoarthritis
gout arthritis
rheumatoid arthritis
ankylosing spondylitis

A

ankylosing spondylitis

71
Q

benign, painful lesion in the diaphysis of long bones (femur, tibia)

osteosarcoma
enchondroma
osteoid osteoma
chondrosarcoma

A

osteoid osteoma

72
Q

disordered bone remodeling (tile or puzzle like) resulting in a mosaic pattern in a bone.. It can be mono or polyostotic and can involve any bone (usually spine, skull, pelvis, proximal femur and tibia). The common symptoms are unexplained bone fractures (snapping)

Osteogenesis imperfecta
Osteitis fibrosa cystica
Osteitis deformans

A

Osteitis deformans

73
Q

Sx: Slowly progressive joint stiffness, Spur formation in distal IP joints, causing pain and ↓ mobility, Nodular swelling

osteoarthritis
gout arthritis
rheumatoid arthritis
ankylosing spondylitis

A

osteoarthritis

74
Q

associated with advanced primary hyperparathyroidism

Paget’s disease
Osteomyelitis
von Ricklinghausen’s disease

A

von Ricklinghausen’s disease

75
Q

osteitis fibrosa cystica “brown tumor.” The basic lesion is osteoclastic resorption of bone with fibrous replacement and formation of cysts. Mandibula and maxilla are initially affected but entire skeletal system may develop lesions

Paget’s disease
Osteomyelitis
von Ricklinghausen’s disease

A

von Ricklinghausen’s disease

76
Q

in the reparative stage of fracture healing:

Process proceeds from the periphery toward the center of the fracture
Process proceeds from the center of the fracture toward the periphery

A

Process proceeds from the periphery toward the center of the fracture

77
Q

Occurs usually in children secondary to transient bacteriemia: hematogenous route (involving ends of the long bones: knee, ankle, hip or in adults vertebral bodies) or by direct bone penetration (wounds, fractures or surgery)

Paget’s disease
Osteomyelitis
von Ricklinghausen’s disease

A

Osteomyelitis

78
Q

pain and lung metastases are early features of ?
neoblastoma
osteoid osteoma
osteosarcoma
Ewing sarcoma

A

osteosarcoma

79
Q

is rare but extremely malignant neoplasm (early metastases and poor prognosis) that occurs in older children.

neoblastoma
osteoid osteoma
osteosarcoma
Ewing sarcoma

A

Ewing sarcoma

80
Q

malignant tumor of chondroblasts that occurs in pts over 35 y.o. (older than in osteosarcoma). Involves pelvic bones, ribs, and vertebrae

osteosarcoma
enchondroma
osteoid osteoma
chondrosarcoma

A

chondrosarcoma

81
Q

Sx: fatigue, low-grade fever, and progressively deforming arthritis affecting multiple, bilateral, symmetric, small joints of the feet and hands. (claw-like appearance w. ulnar deviation) joint induration, morning stiffness, w. permanent, disabling ankylosis (abnormal stiffening and immobility of a joint, due to bone fusion)

osteoarthritis
gout arthritis
rheumatoid arthritis
ankylosing spondylitis

A

rheumatoid arthritis

82
Q

Sx: recurrent attacks of acute arthritis due to precipitation of uric acid crystals deposits (Tophus is chalky masses of the crystal deposits) creating inflammatory response.

osteoarthritis
gout arthritis
rheumatoid arthritis
ankylosing spondylitis

A

gout arthritis

83
Q

benign neoplasm occurring in small bones of the hands and feet in young adults. May cause pain, swelling, or pathological fx.

osteosarcoma
enchondroma
osteoid osteoma
chondrosarcoma

A

enchondroma

84
Q

most common primary bone tumor in young people
osteosarcoma
enchondroma
osteoid osteoma
chondrosarcoma

A

osteosarcoma

85
Q

which 2 of these diseases is X-linked recessive?
which 2 of these diseases is autosomal dominant?

Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy
Becker Muscular Dystrophy
Myotonic Dystrophy
Limb Girdle Muscular Dystrophy
Facio-scapulo-humeral Muscular Dystrophy

A

x-linked: Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy
Becker Muscular Dystrophy

autosomal: Myotonic Dystrophy
Facio-scapulo-humeral Muscular Dystrophy

86
Q

autosomal recessive disease?
Myotonic Dystrophy
Limb Girdle Muscular Dystrophy
Facio-scapulo-humeral Muscular Dystrophy

A

Limb Girdle Dystrophy

87
Q

an acquired autoimmune remitting disease in which weakness and extreme muscular fatigue are main characteristics. In this disease antibodies attack the acetylcholine receptor of the postsynaptic membrane of the neuromuscular junction.

Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy
Becker Muscular Dystrophy
Myotonic Dystrophy
Myastenia Gravis

A

Myastenia Gravis

88
Q

Myoglobin will appear in the urine, and creatinin kinase (enzyme) will rise in blood serum.

myasthenia gravis
rhabdomyolysis

A

rhabdomyolysis

89
Q

hearing loss due to fractures of middle ear ossicles

Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Osteomalacia

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

90
Q

autosomal recessive disease. Weakness in the hips or shoulders leads to progressive disability

Facio-scapulo-humeral Muscular Dystrophy
Limb-Girdle Muscular Dystrophy
Becker Muscular Dystrophy

A

Limb-Girdle Muscular Dystrophy

91
Q

acquired autoimmune remitting disease in which weakness and extreme muscle fatigue are main characteristics. caused by circulating antibodies that block nicotinic ACh receptors at the postsynaptic neuromuscular junction. Receptors then degrade rapidly.

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
Paget’s Disease
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Myasthenia Gravis

A

Myasthenia Gravis

92
Q

Middle meningeal artery is severed

Subdural Hematoma
Subarachnoid Hematoma
Epidural Hematoma

A

Epidural Hematoma

93
Q

Compressing the brain parenchyma rather than destroying it

hemorrhage
infarction

A

hemorrhage

94
Q

The result of an inertial brain injury. When the skull is struck, it stops moving but the brain continues moving causing vein injury

Subdural Hematoma
Subarachnoid Hematoma
Epidural Hematoma

A

Subdural Hematoma

95
Q

loss of blood supply with ensuing necrosis

hemorrhage
infarction

A

infarction

96
Q

blockage is in the brain

noncommunicating hydrocephalus
communicating hydrocephalus

A

noncommunicating hydrocephalus

97
Q

blockage is in subarachnoid space

communicating hydrocephalus
subarachnoid hemmorhage

A

communicating hydrocephalus

98
Q

Acute inflammatory reaction with neutrophil infiltrations and liquefactive necrosis associated with extensive cerebral edema.

leptomeningitis
cerebral abscess

A

cerebral abscess

99
Q

autoimmune reaction (after viral infection) against oligodendroglia with numerous patches of demyelination throughout white matter “plaque”

multiple sclerosis
alzheimer’s disease
guillain-barre disease
charcot-marie-tooth

A

MS

100
Q

meninges are thickened, the gyri become atrophic with dilation of ventricles due to cortical atrophy

guillain-barre disease
parkinson’s disease
multiple sclerosis
alzheimer’s disease

A

alzheimer’s disease

101
Q

loss of neurons in the substantia nigra, loci cerulei and dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus

myasthenia gravis
parkinson’s disease
multiple sclerosis
alzheimer’s disease

A

PD

102
Q

Sx: tremors and bradykinesia which progresses to rigidity and postural changes, slowness of voluntary movements, poor balance, shuffling gate, mask-like face & dementia

myasthenia gravis
parkinson’s disease
multiple sclerosis
alzheimer’s disease

A

PD

103
Q

autoimmune disorder with progressive ascending motor paralysis, which may affect spinal and cranial nerves. preceded by viral infection
characterized by segmental demyelination

multiple sclerosis
alzheimer’s disease
guillain-barre disease
charcot-marie-tooth

A

guillain-barre disease

104
Q

degeneration of upper motor neurons in the spinal cord and brain stem. Damage to the corticospinal tracts and degeneration of anterior horn cells results in denervation atrophy of muscles

myasthenia gravis
Huntington’s disease
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
viral meningitis

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

105
Q

hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy characterized by progressive loss of muscle tissue and touch sensation across various parts of the body

multiple sclerosis
alzheimer’s disease
guillain-barre disease
charcot-marie-tooth

A

charcot-marie tooth

106
Q

Atrophy of the caudate and putamen nucleus with corresponding ventricular enlargement

myasthenia gravis
Huntington’s disease
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
viral meningits

A

Huntington’s disease

107
Q

Protrusion of a portion of the stomach above the diaphragm

hiatal hernia
rolling hernia
sliding hernia

A

hiatal hernia

108
Q

reflux esophagitis and heartburn

atresia
hiatal hernia

A

hiatal hernia

109
Q

healing of inflammatory process external to the esophagus with fibrosis creating distortion?

atresia
hiatal hernia
achalasia
diverticula

A

diverticula

110
Q

Superficial epithelial necrosis, peptic ulcerations, and submucosal inflammation are present to varying degrees in the distal third of the esophagus leading to fibrosis and strictures or replacement of squamous by columnar epithelium- Barrett esophagus

atresia
gastritis
reflux esophagitis
diverticula

A

reflux esophagitis

111
Q

ulcer with bleeding that does not progress to chronic

acute peptic ulcer
erosive gastritis
hypersecretory type B gastritis

A

acute peptic ulcer (stress ulcer) - what Milo is giving us

112
Q

Intestinal inflammatory disease probably initiated by obstruction of mucus drainage

hemorrhoids
ulcerative collitis
acute appendicitis

A

acute appendicitis

113
Q

Divert blood containing reduced hemoglobin away from the pulmonary circuit into the systemic circulation, reducing O2 saturation of the arterial blood that results in cyanosis

right to left shunt
left to right shunt

A

right to left shunt

114
Q

This defect is associated with an atrial or ventricular septal defect (VSD) or patent ductus arteriosus, which will keep the child alive for a few days and can be repaired.

ductus arteriosus patent
transposition of the great vessels
coarctation of the aorta

A

transposition of the great vessels

115
Q

Upper extremities exhibit increased blood pressure (and left ventricular hypertrophy), but lower extremities show decreased blood pressure, diminished peripheral pulses, pallor and coldness predisposing to intermittent claudication in calf muscles

transposition of the great vessels
coarctation of the aorta
atrial septal defect
atherosclerosis

A

coarctation of the aorta

116
Q

Divert blood from the systemic into the pulmonary circulation depriving tissues of O2

right to left shunt
left to right shunt

A

left to right shunt

117
Q

dissecting aneurysm type A involves

ascending aorta
descending aorta

A

ascending aorta

118
Q

usually associated with pulmonary congestion and respiratory symptoms like dyspnea and orthopnea progressing to pulmonary edema

left sided heart failure
right sided heart failure
cor pulmonale

A

left sided heart failure

119
Q

the oxygen supply to the myocardium decreases because of coronary artery vasospasm

stable angina
unstable angina
variant angina

A

variant angina

120
Q

chronic passive congestion of the liver, spleen and gut and is associated with peripheral edema and ascites ?

left sided heart failure
right sided heart failure
cor pulmonale

A

right sided heart failure

121
Q

coronary vasoconstriction is superimposed on an increase in myocardial oxygen requirements

stable angina
unstable angina
variant angina

A

unstable angina

122
Q

myocardial oxygen demand greatly exceeds oxygen supply, with attacks usually precipitated by a certain level of physical activity

stable angina
unstable angina
variant angina

A

stable angina

123
Q

RNA virus liver infection usually spread through contaminated blood

Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C

A

Hepatitis C

124
Q

right ventricular enlargement and associated heart failure developed secondary to pulmonary disease that is associated with pulmonary hypertension

left sided heart failure
right sided heart failure
cor pulmonale

A

cor pulmonale

125
Q

Buffalo hump, menstrual disorders, osteoporosis, truncal obesity

hypoadrenalism
hyperadrenalism
hypothyroid
hyperthyroid

A

hyperadrenalism

126
Q

myxedema, apathy, dilated heart, mental retardation in infants, impaired growth

hypoadrenalism
hyperadrenalism
hypothyroid
hyperthyroid

A

hypothyroid

127
Q

hyperkinesia, increased appetite with decreased weight, heat intolerance, muscle weakness with tremors, warm moist skin, sweating

hypoadrenalism
hyperadrenalism
hypothyroid
hyperthyroid

A

hyperthyroid

128
Q

fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, nausea, vomiting

hypoadrenalism
hyperadrenalism
hypothyroid
hyperthyroid

A

hypoadrenalism

129
Q

alteration in posterior pituitary function affects the secretion of _____ which leads to ______

ACH, diabetes insipidus
ADH, diabetes insipidus
ACH, dwarfism
ADH, dwarfism

A

ADH, diabetes

130
Q

loss of large quantities of plasma proteins into the urine due to increased permeability of the glomerular membrane

acute glomerulonephritis
chronic renal insufficiency
nephrotic syndrom

A

nephrotic syndrome

131
Q

RNA virus liver infection acquired from fecal contaminated food/water

Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C

A

Hepatitis A

132
Q

DNA virus liver infection

Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C

A

Hepatitis B

133
Q

a complication of cirrhosis

hemorrhoids
gallstones
gastritis
portal hypertension

A

portal hypertension

134
Q

protein deprivation greater than calorie reduction

marasmus
kwashiorkor
canandria

A

kwashiorkor

135
Q

antigen-antibody reaction where the glomeruli become inflamed causing partial or total blockage

acute glomerulonephritis
renal ischemia
chronic renal insufficiency
pyelonephritis

A

acute glomerulonephritis

136
Q

infectious and inflammatory process that usually begins in the renal pelvis and extends progressively into renal parenchyma. patients have reasonably normal renal function with inability to concentrate urine.

acute glomerulonephritis
renal ischemia
chronic renal insufficiency
pyelonephritis

A

pyelonephritis

137
Q

BENIGN but PAINFUL (exacerbated by alcohol & relieved by aspirin) occurring in the diaphyses of long bones in patients under 30

Osteoid osteoma
Osteosarcoma
Enchondroma
Chondrosarcoma

A

Osteoid osteoma

138
Q

Malignant tumor of forming cells that occur in an older group than osteosarcoma (after age 35) It involves pelvic bones, ribs and vertebrae and prognosis is better than for osteosarcoma?

Enchondroma
Chondrosarcoma

A

Chondrosarcoma

139
Q

occurs in patients over age 20 at the ends of the long bones (present with pain in local joints)?

giant cell tumor
ewing sarcoma
ankylosing spondylitis

A

giant cell tumor

140
Q

adult form in which the presenting complaint is usually muscular weakness (facial muscles) and atrophy plus MYOTONIA

becker muscular dystrophy
duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
myotonic dystrophy

A

myotonic dystrophy

141
Q

Muscular weakness is progressive (usually not apparent until age 3: Gower’s sign - using UE to get up) and most patients can no longer walk by age 10.

becker muscular dystrophy
duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
myotonic dystrophy

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

142
Q

what is the cause of epidural hemotoma?

CAUSE: Usually severing of middle meningeal artery due to blow to side of head (fracturing temporal bone)
CAUSE: inertial brain injury (frontal or occipital portion of the head is struck usually without skull fracture, but when the skull stops the brain continues moving causing veins injury).
CAUSE: trauma and rupture of a preexisting arterial ANEURYSM

A

middle meningeal artery

143
Q

what is the cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage?

CAUSE: Usually severing of middle meningeal artery due to blow to side of head (fracturing temporal bone)
CAUSE: inertial brain injury (frontal or occipital portion of the head is struck usually without skull fracture, but when the skull stops the brain continues moving causing veins injury).
CAUSE: trauma and rupture of a preexisting arterial ANEURYSM

A

rupture preexisting arterial aneurysm

144
Q

saccular aneurysm arises from at bifurcation of vessels in ?

middle meningeal artery
middle cerebral artery
a. renalis

A

middle cerebral artery

145
Q

an infarction is loss of blood supply and ensuing necrosis due to - pick two

vascular thrombosis
aneurysm
rupture of artery
embolism
arterial insufficiency

A

vascular thrombosis

embolism

146
Q

leptomeningitis in adults is caused by

e. coli
n. meningitidis
h. influenza
strep. pneumoniae

A

strep. pneumoniae

147
Q

leptomeningitis in children is caused by

e. coli
n. meningitidis
h. influenza
strep. pneumoniae

A

h. influenza

148
Q

“dying back” involve toxic & metabolic neuropathies with proximal axon intact & regeneration

if cause is removed
segmental demyelination
wallerian degeneration
myastenia gravis
distal axonopathy

A

distal axonopathy

149
Q

refers to degenerative changes in distal segment of a transected nerve & atrophy of Schwann cells replaced by fibrotic tissue.

segmental demyelination
wallerian degeneration
myastenia gravis
distal axonopathy

A

wallerian degeneration

150
Q

the pathologic lesions are peribronchiolar and within the alveolar walls which are widened by edema. The alveolar spaces are generally FREE OF SIGNIFICANT EXUDATION.

viral pneumonia
bacterial pneumonia

A

viral

151
Q

the 4 stages of pneumococcal pneumonia are ?

red hepatization
grey hepatization
suppuration
brown hepatization
congestion
serrous exudate
resolution

A

congestion
red
grey
resolution

152
Q

name 4 obstructive lung diseases

A

asthma, emphysema, chronic bronchitis and bronchiectasis

153
Q

leading cause of death in children under one y.o ?

kwashiorkor
congenital heart disease
pneumonia
meningitis

A

congenital heart disease

154
Q

myasthenia gravis is due to

type I hypersensitivity reaction
type II hypersensitivity reaction
type III hypersensitivity reaction
type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A

type II

155
Q

multiple sclerosis is due to

type 1 hypersensitivity reaction
type II hypersensitivity reaction
type III hypersensitivity reaction
type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A

type IV

156
Q

anaphylactic shock is due to

type I hypersensitivity reaction
type II hypersensitivity reaction
type III hypersensitivity reaction
type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A

type I

157
Q

Antigen-antibody (IgM, IgG, IgA) complexes formed and deposited in different tissues. Complexes activate enzymes responsible for tissue damage.

type I hypersensitivity reaction
type II hypersensitivity reaction
type III hypersensitivity reaction
type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A

type III

158
Q

Cell-mediated immune response (no antibodies involvement) with sensitized lymphocytes as the ultimate cause of the tissue injury

type I hypersensitivity reaction
type II hypersensitivity reaction
type III hypersensitivity reaction
type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A

type IV

159
Q

IgG or IgM antibody identifies antigen on cell and participates in direct cytotoxicity.

type I hypersensitivity reaction
type II hypersensitivity reaction
type III hypersensitivity reaction
type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A

Type II Hypersensitivity

160
Q

Antigen binds to antibody IgE on mast cell or basophil.

type I hypersensitivity reaction
type II hypersensitivity reaction
type III hypersensitivity reaction
type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A

type I

161
Q

Destruction via:

  • direct lysis: membrane attack complex (C5-9)
  • opsonization: enhancing phagocytosis (C3b)

type I hypersensitivity reaction
type II hypersensitivity reaction
type III hypersensitivity reaction
type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A

type II

162
Q

inflammatory response correct order:

vasodilation then vasoconstriction
vasoconstriction then vasodilation

A

vasoconstriction then vasodilation

163
Q
  1. Excessive damage of cell membrane
  2. Vacuolization (formation of vacuoles) of mitochondria
  3. Swelling of lisosomes
  4. calcium influx into cell
  5. Release of oxygen free radicals

reversible cell injury
irreversible cell injury
acute cell injury

A

irreversible cell injury

164
Q
  1. cell swelling
  2. mitochondrial swelling
  3. plasma membrane alterations
  4. dilation of ER
  5. nuclear alterations
    reversible cell injury
    irreversible cell injury
    acute cell injury
A

acute cell injury

165
Q

which is more deadly, bacterial or viral meningitis?

A

bacterial

Clinical medicine L.R. (5 decks)

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