Clinical Haematology Flashcards

(197 cards)

1
Q

What are the basic features of anaemia?

A

Pale conjunctivae
Fatigue
Increased RR and HR in severe forms

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2
Q

What is aniso-poikilocytosis?

A

Different shaped RBCs

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3
Q

What are the causes of IDA?

A

Reduced uptake

  • Malnutrition
  • Coeliac
  • IBD

Increased Loss

  • GI malignancy
  • Peptic ulcer
  • IBD
  • Menstruation

Increased requirement

  • Pregnancy
  • Breast feeding
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4
Q

A triad of IDA, change in bowel habit and PR bleeding is suggestive of what?

A

Colon cancer

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5
Q

What is the triad of colon cancer?

A

IDA
Change in bowel habit
PR bleeding

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6
Q

What hormone is indicated in anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Hepcidin

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7
Q

What is the function of hepcidin?

A

Reduced iron uptake
Decreased iron transport
Increased storage of iron

-Reduced circulating iron

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8
Q

What is raised in anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Ferritin

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9
Q

Is TIBC raised or reduced in anaemia of chronic diseae?

A

Decreased

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10
Q

Is ferritin raised or decreased in IDA?

A

Reduced

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11
Q

What happens to the TIBC in anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Increased

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12
Q

What type of anaemia is typically associated with ACD?

A

Normocytic anaemia

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13
Q

What type of protein is ferritin?

A

Acute-phase protein - raised in infections.

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14
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of thalassaemia?

A

Autosomal recessive

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15
Q

What are the two types of thalassaemia?

A

Alpha defect

Beta defect - minor, intermediate and major

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16
Q

What are the three variants of alpha defect of thalassaemia?

A

Alpha +
Alpha*
HbH
Hb Barts

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17
Q

What type of anaemia is associated with thalasseamia?

A

Microcytic anaemia
Normal iron studies
Gel electrophoresis

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18
Q

What physiological advantage is occurred with thalassaemia minor?

A

Resistance to falciparum malaria

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19
Q

What is the long term management for beta-thalassaemia major?

A

Regular red cell transfusions every 2-4 weeks with iron chelation regime

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20
Q

Which thalassaemia Hb chains remain constant from birth?

A

Alpha chains

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21
Q

When does Hb Beta chains increase?

A

Increase from early infancy

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22
Q

What are the components of HbA1?

A

2-alpha, 2 beta

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23
Q

What are the components of HbA2?

A

2a and2 delta

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24
Q

What are the components of HbF?

A

2a and 2y

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25
What is the hereditary pattern for sickle cell disease?
Autosomal recessive
26
What are the predisposing factors for sickling?
Hypoxia Dehydration Acidosis Infection
27
What characteristic cell is associated from SCD?
Howell-Jolly body | And sickle cells
28
What occurs in a sickle cell crisis?
Acute painful crisis Stroke Sequestration crisis Chronic cholecytisis
29
What is the management of an acute painful crisis?
``` Saturate with supportive oxygen Antibiotics (if needed) Pain relief Cannula (IV fluids) Crizanlizumab for prevention ```
30
What investigations are performed for the diagnosis of sickle cell anaemia?
Hb electrophoresis and blood film
31
What are the medical therapies available for the management of sickle cell anaemia?
Vaccinations Hydroxyurea Hydroxycarbamide Prophylactic ABx
32
What is the surgical/curative management for SCA?
Bone marrow transplant (curative)
33
What are the features of SCA?
``` Haemolytic anaemia Dactylitis Acute chest syndrome Pripaism Aplastic crisis ```
34
What is the cause of megaloblastic anaemia?
Folate or B12 deficiency
35
What type of neutrophils are associated with folate and B12 deficiency?
Hypersegmented neutrophils
36
What are the causes of vitamin b12 deficiency?
Alcohol IBD and coeliac disease Pernicious anaemia
37
What are the causes of folate deficiency?
Alcohol IBD & coeliac Anti-folate drugs Pregnancy
38
What are the neurological signs are associated with B12 deficiency?
Glove and stocking paraesthesia Hyporeflexia Romberg's positive Subacute degeneration of the spinal cord
39
What autoantibodies are associated with B12 deficiency?
Anti-parietal cells | Anti-intrinsic factor
40
What are the causes of non-megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia?
Myelodysplasia Hypothyroidism Liver disease Alcohol
41
What are the common causes of microcytic anaemia (IDA)?
GI blood loss from hookwork infections Reduced absorption (Small bowel disease) Increased demands Reduced intake
42
What hormone is elevated in anaemia of chronic disease?
Hepcidin - Suppresses iron absorption and transport
43
What is the presentation of IDA?
``` Tiredness Lethargy Malaise Dyspnoea Pallor Palpitations Exacerbations of ischaemic conditions ```
44
What is the presentation of lead poisoning (Haem)
``` Anorexia Nausea/vomiting Abdominal pain Constipation Peripheral nerve lesions ```
45
What are the main causes of microcytic anaemia?
``` Thalassemia Anaemia of chronic disease Iron deficiency anaemia Lead poisoning Sideroblastic anaemia ```
46
What examination signs are seen in iron deficiency anaemia?
Glossitis Angular stomatitis Pallor Koilonychia
47
What are the examination signs for lead poisoning induced anaemia?
Blue gumline Peripheral nerve lesions (causing wrist or foot drop) Convulsions Reduced consciousness
48
What is the serum ferritin in IDA?
Ferritin is low in IDA
49
Why is serum ferritin raised in anaemia of chronic disease?
Is an acute phase protein
50
What is the TIBC level in IDA?
High in IDA
51
What is the transferrin level in IDA?
Raised
52
What is the transferrin saturation level in IDA?
Low
53
What signs are seen in a blood film for IDA?
Microcytic anaemia Hypochromic Anisocytosis Poikilocytosis
54
What blood film signs are seen in sideroblastic anaemia?
Dimorphic blood film Hypochromic microcytic cells Ring sideroblasts in the bone marrow
55
What blood film signs are see in lead poisoning?
Basophilic stippling
56
What is the first-line management for iron deficiency anaemia?
Ferrous sulphate
57
What is the management for sideroblastic anaemia?
* Treat underlying cause * Pyridoxine used in inherited forms * Blood transfusions and iron chelation can be considered if there is no response to other treatments.
58
What is the management for lead poisoning induced anaemia?
* Remove the source * Dimercaprol * D-penicillamine
59
What are the complications for IDA?
High-output cardiac failure
60
What are the causes of normocytic anaemia?
Acute blood loss - peptic ulcer, trauma, oesophageal varices Failure of RBC production Haemolysis Uncompensated increase in plasma volume Hypersplenism
61
What is macrocytic anaemia?
Anaemia is associated with an elevated MCV of erythrocytes (>100 fL in adults). Megaloblastic refers to a delay in the maturation of the nucleus while the cytoplasm continues to mature. • Structurally abnormal, immature red cells (Oval macrocytes).
62
Which drugs are indicated in interfering with DNA synthesis resulting in macrocytic anaemia?
- Azathioprine - Methotrexate (Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor) - Hydroxyurea - Zidovudine
63
What are the causes of macrocytic anaemia?
• Vitamin B12/Folate deficiency • Use of drugs interfering with DNA synthesis: - Azathioprine - Methotrexate (Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor) - Hydroxyurea - Zidovudine • Liver disease and ethanol toxicity • Haemolytic anaemia (Reticulocytosis increased) • Myelodysplasias
64
Which two vitamin deficiencies result in macrocytic anaemia?
Folic acid | B12 deficiency
65
What is the function of B12?
• B12 is required for DNA synthesis and the integrity of the nervous system.
66
Where is b12 ultimately absorbed?
Terminal ileum
67
Which gastric peptide facilitates the absorption of vitamin b12?
Intrinsic factor
68
What are the common causes of vitamin b12 deficiency?
Inadequate diet veganism Gastrectomy - Autoimmune -Pernicious anaemia Crohn's disease - Ileal resection Dietary: Poverty alcoholism ``` Malabsorption • Coeliac disease Jejunal resection Pregnancy Lactation ``` Increased cell turnover: Haemolysis Poverty alcoholism
69
What is the definitive management for pernicious anaemia?
Hydroxocobalamin injections (IM)
70
What is the most common cause of B12 deficiency?
Pernicious anaemia
71
What are the signs of pernicious anaemia?
Mild jaundice Glossitis (Beefy) Angular stomatitis Weight loss Signs of anaemia - Pallor - Tachycardia - Breathlessness
72
What are the neurological signs of B12 deficiency?
Peripheral neuropathy Ataxia Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord Optic atrophy Dementia Positive Babinski's sign - absent ankle reflex, upwards plantars
73
What blood test investigations are performed for macrocytic anaemia?
High MCV, low haematocrit Serum B12 and folate Red cell folate Anti-parietal cell and anti-intrinsic factor antibodies
74
What autoantibodies are associated with pernicious anaemia?
• Anti-parietal cell and anti-intrinsic factor antibodies
75
What does a peripheral blood smear reveal in pernicious anaemia?
* Megaloblasts (Large with nucleocytoplasmic dissociation) | * Hypersegmented polymorphonucleated cells
76
Which dietary supplements are administered in b12 deficiency?
• Dietary supplements – PO cyanocobalamin
77
What is the management for folate deficiency?
Oral folic acid
78
Is there is co-existing B12 deficiency with folate acid deficiency, which should be treated first?
• If B12 deficiency is present – Treated prior to the folic acid deficiency as B12 is required for folate uptake.
79
Why is prophylactic folate administered during pregnancy from conception until 12 weeks?
To prevent spina bifida
80
What risk is associated with chronic pernicious anaemia?
Gastric carcinoma
81
What complications are associated with folate deficiency during pregnancy?
Increases risk of neural tube defects - Spina bifida
82
What is the lifespan for RBCs?
120 days
83
What are the two types of haemolysis?
Intravascular and extravascular
84
What is intravascular haemolysis?
Occurs in circulation to damaged RBCs
85
What is extravascular haemolysis?
Occurs in the reticuloendothelial system (Macrophages of the liver, spleen and bone marrow remove defective RBCs)
86
What are hereditary membrane defects of haemolysis?
Spherocytosis | Elliptocysosis
87
What are the metabolic defects for haemolysis?
G6PD deficiency | Pyruvate kinase deficiency
88
What are the abnormal defects for haemolysis?
Sickle cell anaemia
89
What are the auto-immune causes of haemolysis?
Autoimmune hamolytic anaemia
90
Which drugs are associated with haemolysis?
Penicillin | Quinine
91
What are the causes of microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia?
Caused by RBC fragmentation in abnormal microcirculation - intravascular -Haemolytic anaemia in which red blood cells lyse due to shear forces encountered as they pass through small blood vessels
92
Which test is used to investigate autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?
Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)
93
What blood findings are reveaedl in haemolytic anaemia?
``` Low Hb High reticulocytes High MCV High unconjugated Low haptogloblin Raised serum LDH ```
94
What cells are associated with thalassemia?
Hypochromic microcytic anaemia
95
What cells are evident in microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia?
Schistocytes
96
What cells are associated with G6PD deficiency?
Heinz cells
97
What are the features associated of extravascular haemolysis?
Splenic hypertrophy and splenomegaly
98
What are the features of intravascular haemolysis?
Increased plasma Hb Methaemalbuminaemia Decreased plasma haptoglobin
99
What is G6PD?
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is a form of haemolytic anaemia that results from an inability of red cells to generate glutathione.
100
What is the inheritance pattern for G6PD ?
X-linked recessive
101
What do Heinz bodies represent?
Lumps of denatured precipitated haemoglobin within red cells are a marker of oxidative damage
102
What are the risk factors for developing G6PD?
Oxidative drugs Broad means Antimalarial drugs
103
What is the presentation of G6PD?
``` Jaundice Pallor Dark urine Nausea Gallstones are common ```
104
What is the management of G6PD?
Supportive care + folic acid | Blood transfusion for severe anaemia (Haemoglobin)
105
What is sideroblastic anaemia?
A condition where erythrocytes incompletely form haem resulting in iron deposits within the mitochondria - forming a ring around the nucleus called a ring sideroblast
106
What is seen in sideroblastic anaemia?
Ring sideroblast
107
What are the acquired causes for sideroblastic anaemia?
Myelodysplasia Alcohol Lead Anti-tb - Isoniazid
108
What do iron studies reveal in sideroblastic anaemia?
High ferritin High iron High transferrin saturation
109
What bone marrow staining is seen in sideroblastic anaemia?
Prussian blue staining will show ringed sideroblasts
110
What is the inheritance pattern for haemophillia?
X-linked recessive disorder
111
What factor deficiency is associated with Haemophilia A?
Factor VIII
112
what factor deficiency is associated with haemophilia B?
Factor IX
113
What happens in haemophilia?
In haemophilia, there is a failure to generate fibrin to stabilise the platelet plug. Both factors 8 and 9 play a role in the intrinsic coagulation pathway.
114
What is the hallmark feature of haemophilia?
Hemarthrosis- the spontaneous bleeding of the joints and msk bleeding.
115
What should be avoided in haemophilia?
Intramuscular injections - can lead to extensive haematoma
116
What is the presentation of haemophilia?
Spontaneous/recurrent bleeding in joints and muscles, excessive bleeding after surgery, dental procedures or trauma Recurrent nasal bleeding and easy bruising Bleeding into muscles - erythema, warmth, decreased range of motion -High pressure can lead to nerve palsies and compartment syndrome -Prolonged bleeding following heel prick Mucocutaneous bleeding - Epistaxis, bleeding from the gums, and easy bruising Haemarthrosis Fatigue Menorrhagia
117
What does APTT reveal for haemophillia?
Prolonged APTT
118
What are the investigations for haemophillia?
APTT | Plasma factor VIII and IX assay - decreased or absent factor 8 and 9 levels
119
What is the first-line management for haemophilia?
Factor concentrate
120
What is DIC?
Disseminated intravascular coagulation is an acquired disorder of the clotting cascade characterised by the activation of the coagulation cascade resulting in the formation of intravascular thrombi and depletion of platelets and coagulation factors
121
What are the major triggers for DIC?
Major trauma Organ destruction Sepsis severe infection
122
What type of coagulopathy occurs in DIC?
The release of fibrin degradation products into circulation interferes with platelet aggregation and clot formation. • Consumption coagulopathy – Depletion of platelets, fibrin, and coagulation factors – associated with thrombocytopenia and raised D-dimer.
123
What are the obstetric complications of DIC?
Pre-eclampsia Obstetric haemorrhage Retained dead foetus Amniotic embolic
124
What is the presentation of DIC?
Systemic signs of circulatory collapse -Oliguria, hypotension, tacycardia -Confusion, Dyspnoea, evidence of bleeding Examiantion - Petechiae, purpura, ecchymoses - Epistaxis - Mucosal bleeding - Overt haemorrhage - Signs of end-organ damage - Respiratory distress - Oliguria due to renal failure
125
What blood investigations are consistent with DIC?
Reduced platelets Reduced fibrinogen Increased PT and APTT Increased fibrinogen degradation products (D-dimer)
126
What is the first-line management for DIC?
Fresh-frozen plasma - reduced clotting factors, consider cryoprecipitate, or fibrinogen concentrates as second-line Platelet transfusion if platelet count <30,000 oxygen and fluids
127
What is Von Willebrand Disease?
Von Willebrand disease is an inherited bleeding disorder (autosomal dominant), and characteristically behaves as a platelet disorder (Epistaxis and menorrhagia – Superficial bleeding).
128
What is the inheritance pattern for Von Willebrand Disease?
Autosomal dominant
129
What is VWF?
A multimeric glycoprotein that is synthesised by endothelial cells and megakaryocytes circulating in the plasma -Mediates adhesion of platelets to the site of injury - promoting platelet-platelet aggregation by binding onto the glycoproteiin-1b receptor
130
What are the three roles of VWF?
To bring platelets into contact with exposed sub-endothelium To facilitate platelet-platelet aggregation To bind to factor VIII and protect it from degradation
131
What is type 1 VWD?
Partial quantitative deficiency
132
What is type 2 VWD?
VWF with an abnormal function
133
What is type 3 VWD?
Severe quantitative deficiency (Complete + Autosomal recessive).
134
What is the presentation of VWD?
``` Easy bruising (Ecchymosis) Epistaxis (Prolonged >20 minutes) Prolonged bleeding from gums Menorrhagia ``` There is spontaneous mucosal and cutaneous bleeding
135
In severe disease which clotting factor is deficiency in VWD?
Factor VIII
136
What investigations are performed in VWD?
APTT is prolonged PFA-100 test Defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin
137
What is the first-line management for VWD?
DDAVP (desmopressin)
138
What is thalassemia?
Thalassemia is a group of genetic disorders characterised by reduced globin chain synthesis – There is under or no production of one globin chain. • Unmatched globins precipitate  Damaging RBC membranes causing their haemolysis. • Autosomal recessive
139
What is the thallasemia trait?
Asymptomatic Mild microcytic anaemia Increased red cell count
140
Explain the pattern of the iron studies in thalassemia?
Associated with an accumulation of iron - raised serum iron, ferritin and low TIBC
141
What is the presentation of beta-thalassemia major?
* Severe anaemia (Shortness of breath, fatigue, dizziness, malaise) * Presenting at 3-6 months: This is when the change from HbF to HbA takes place. * Failure to thrive- Growth retardation * Prone to infection * Abdominal distension due to hepato-splenomegaly * Large head with frontal and parietal bossing * Chipmunk facies * Mis-aligned teeth * Bone pain and fragility * Cardiac failure and arrhythmias – Secondary to anaemia and iron overload.
142
What blood film findings are associated with beta-thalassemia?
``` Hypochromic microcytic anaemia Target cells Howell-jolly bodies Nucleated red cells High reticulocyte count ```
143
What is the diagnostic investigation of beta-thalassemia?
Hb electrophoresis - Absent or reduced HbA - High HbF
144
What does a skull X-ray reveal in beta-thalassemia?
Hair on end appearance - caused by expansion of marrow into the cortex
145
What is the management of beta-thalassemia major?
Regular transfusion | Iron monitoring and chelation (desferrioxamine) to reduce iron overload toxicity
146
What is the inheritance pattern of SCA?
The autosomal recessive single-gene defect
147
What is the pathophysiology of sickle cell anaemia?
In the deoxygenated state  HbS undergoes polymerisation – sickle shape = Fragile shape and haemolyse. • The abnormal shape of erythrocytes induces microcirculation clotting – precipitating as a vaso-occlusive crisis leading to ischaemic of vital organs and pain. • Sequestration and destruction (Reduced red cell survival ~ 20 days) • Occlusion of small blood vessels causes hypoxia, which leads to further sickling.
148
Which factors promote sickling in sickle cell disease?
Infection Dehydration Hypoxia Acidosis
149
What are the symptoms of sickle cell?
Auto-splenectomy (Splenic atrophy or infarction) Sickle cells sequester within the spleen, undergoing reticular endothelial phagocytosis  Extravascular haemolysis. • Splenic congestion arises + splenomegaly • Compensated spleen reduces the immune function and individuals are more prone to bacteriaemia. Abdominal pain due to mesenteric ischaemia Bones • Painful crises affect small bones of the hands and feet causing dactylitis in children. • Affect the ribs, spine, pelvis, and long bones in adults • Avascular necrosis Myalgia and arthralgia Leg ulcers Low flow priapism CNS • Fits, and strokes + cognitive defects ``` Sequestration crisis Sequestration crises occur because of multi-organ erythrocyte pooling (predominantly the spleen) – affects children as the spleen has not undergone atrophy. • Liver – Exacerbation of anaemia • Lungs – Acute chest syndrome - Breathlessness - Cough - Pain - Fever ``` Corpora cavernosa • Persistent painful erection (priapism) • Impotence Symptoms of aplastic anaemia • Due to parvovirus B19 with a sudden reduction in marrow production, especially RBCs.
150
What are the examination findings associated with sickle cell?
* Bone: Joint or muscle tenderness or swelling (Avascular necrosis) * Short digits – Due to infarction in small bones of the hands * Retina- Cotton wool spots due to retinal ischaemia
151
What blood smear findings are associated with functional hyposplenism?
Howell-Jolly bodies
152
What investigations diagnose SCA?
Haemoglobin electrophoresis - HbS, absence of HbA | High HbF
153
What is the management of an acute sickle cell crisis?
``` Oxygen IV fluids Strong analgesia ABx Cross-match blood Transfusion ```
154
What infection prophylaxis is administered for sickle cell?
Penicillin V | Regular vaccinations
155
What is the management of chronic sickle cell disease?
* Hydroxycarbamide/Hydroxyurea – If frequent crises  Increase foetal haemoglobin concentrations. * Reduces the frequency and duration of sickle cell crisis.
156
What is the curative management of sickle cell disease?
Bone marrow transplantation
157
What is a complication of sickle cell disease secondary to parvovirus b19?
Aplastic crisis
158
What is polycythaemia?
Characterised by an increase in haemoglobin concentration (haematocrit) beyond the upper limit of normal
159
What is relative polycythaemia?
Normal red cell mass, low plasma volume. There is a falsely elevated haemoglobin concentration. - Excessive diuretic use - Dehydration
160
What is primary polycythaemia?
Excess erythrocytosis independent of erythropoietin (EPO).
161
What is secondary polycythaemia?
Excess red blood cell production driven by excess EPO (Secondary to an appropriate rise in EPO – Chronic hypoxia (COPD, high altitude) or para-neoplastic (inappropriate secretion).
162
What is the pathophysiology of polycythaemia rubra vera?
* Characterised by clonal proliferation of myeloid cells * Varied morphologic maturity and haemopoietic efficiency * Mutations in JAK2 tyrosine kinase are involved.
163
What are the causes of secondary polycythaemia vera?
Increase in EPO production Appropriate increase -Due to chronic hypoxia (Chronic lung disease, living at high altitude) Inappropriate increase - Renal (Carcinoma, cysts, hydronephrosis) - Hepatocellular carcinoma - Fibroids - Cerebellar haemangioblastoma
164
What is the presentation of polycythaemia vera?
``` Headaches Dyspnoea Tinnitus Blurred vision Pruritus Erythromelalgia Night sweats Thrombosis Pain from peptic ulcder disease Angina Gout ```
165
What examination findings are associated with polycythaemia vera?
* Plethoric complexion (red). * Scratch marks from itching. * Conjunctival suffusion (redness of the conjunctiva). * Retinal venous engorgement * Hypertension * Splenomegaly * Signs of underlying aetiology
166
What investigations are done in polycythaemia vera?
FBC • High Hb • High haematocrit • Low MCV Isotope Dilution Techniques • Allows confirmation of plasma volume and red cell mass • Distinguishes between relative and absolute polycythaemia ``` Polycythaemia Rubra Vera • High Hb, RCC, HCT, PCV • High WCC • High platelets • Low serum EPO • JAK2 mutation • Bone marrow trephine and biopsy  erythroid hyperplasia and raised megakaryocytes. ``` Secondary Polycythaemia • High serum EPO • Exclude chronic lung disease/hypoxia • Identify for EPO-secreting tumours
167
What is the management for polycythaemia?
Address factors that may lead to reduced plasma volume – Smoking, alcohol consumption, obesity and hypertension (Relative). Secondary: • Phlebotomy • Low dose aspirin Cytoreductive therapy – Hydrocarbamide
168
What is Hodgkin's lymphoma?
A malignant proliferation of lymphocytes originating from the lymph nods or lymphoid tissues
169
Where does Hodgkin's lymphoma arise from?
Lymph nodes and lymphoid tissues
170
What cells are characteristic of Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Reed-Sternberg cells
171
What are the risk factors for Hodgkin's lymphoma?
``` Affected sibling EBV SLE Post-transplantation Westernisation Obese ```
172
What is the epidemiology of Hodgkin's lymphoma?
* Bimodal age distribution with peaks at 20-30 years and >50 years. * Males (2:1)
173
What is the presentation of Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Lymphadenopathy- Enlarged, painless, non-tender, superficial. • Cervical and supraclavicular nodal chain. • Mass becomes painful after alcohol ingestion • Mediastinal lymph node involvement can cause mass effects e.g., bronchial/SVC obstruction. B symptoms of Lymphoma (Systemic) • Fever >38 degrees – Cyclical = Pel-Ebstein fever • Night sweats • Weight loss > 10% body weight in the past 6 months. Other symptoms • Pruritus • Cough • Dyspnoea
174
What type of lymphadenopathy is associated with Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Enlarged, painless, non-tender and superficial Cervical and supraclavicular node chain
175
What are the B-cell symptoms of lymphoma?
Fever >38 degrees, cyclical Night sweats Weight loss
176
What are the blood test results for Hodgkin's lymphoma?
``` High WCC Leucocytosis High neutrophils High eosinophils Lymphopenia in advanced disease Raised ESR CRP LDH ```
177
What is the diagnostic investigation for Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Lymph node biopsy revealing Reed-Sternberg cells
178
What is the definitive management for Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Chemotherapy - doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine
179
What is non-Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Malignancies of lymphoid cells originating in the lymphoid tissues -Does not include Reed-Sternberg cells
180
What is the most common type of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma?
B-Cell derived | -Aggressive and associated with HepC
181
What is the presentation of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma?
• Painless enlarging mass in the neck, axilla, or groin – superficial lymphadenopathy. ``` Systemic symptoms • Fever • Night sweats • Weight loss >10% body weight • Symptoms of hypercalcaemia ``` ``` Symptoms related to organ involvement • Extranodal disease is more common in NHL • Skin rashes • Headache • Sore throat • Abdominal discomfort • Testicular swelling ```
182
What skin rash is associated with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Mycosis fungoides
183
What is acute myeloid leukaemia?
Acute myeloid leukaemia is characterised as a malignancy of primitive myeloid lineage white blood cells (myeloblasts) with proliferation in the bone marrow and blood
184
What is myelodysplastic syndrome?
Defective maturation of myeloid cells, and an accumulation of blasts. • Blast % increases with disease progression.
185
What are the acute promyelocytic features of AML?
Auer rods | Blasts
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What are the risk factors for AML?
* Ionising Radiation, MPD/MPS, cancer therapy (alkylating agents), chemotherapy. * Down’s syndrome (Chromosome 21)
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What is the aetiology of AML?
Myeloblasts undergo malignant transformation and proliferation. • Replacement of normal marrow and bone marrow failure. • Mutation of transcription factors.
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What is the presentation of AML?
* Anaemia (Lethargy, dyspnoea, pallor) * Bleeding (Due to thrombocytopenia) * Opportunistic or recurrent infections (Neutropenia) * Bone pain * Splenomegaly
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What does an FBC reveal in AML?
* Low Hb, low platelets, variable WCC * High uric acid * High LDH * Clotting studies: Fibrinogen, and D-dimers (identify for DIC)
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What does a blood film reveal in AML?
* Myeloblasts * Auer rods * Bilobed nucleus/indented nucleus
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What is the first-line management of AML?
Induction chemotherapy - Cyarabine - Idarubicin
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What is the definitive management for AML?
Stem-cell and bone marrow transplant
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What is the most common leukaemia in children?
Acute lymphocytic leukaemia
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What is ALL?
ALL is the most common malignancy affecting children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemia. A malignancy of the bone marrow is characterised by the proliferation of lymphoblasts (primitive lymphoid cells). • Peak incidence is 2-5 years of age.
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What is the peak incidence of ALL?
2-5 Years
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Which cells are associated with ALL?
Lymphoblasts
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What is the prophylaxis for CNS complications in ALL?
Methotrexate