Clinical Neuroscience Final Flashcards
(399 cards)
1
Q
Which lobe of the brain is considered to be most closely associated with touch or pain sensation?
a. Temporal lobe
b. Frontal lobe
c. Occipital lobe
d. Parietal lobe
A
d. Parietal lobe
2
Q
Which type of neuronal recording uses electrodes especially for finite position recording?
a. Invasive EEG
b. Multiple Unit Recording
c. Extracellular Unit Recording
d. Intracellular Unit Recording
A
a. Invasive EEG
3
Q
Which deep brain structure is most responsible for emotional processing (e.g. stress or reward function)?
a. hypothalamus
b. amygdala
c. pituitary gland
d. hippocampus
A
b. amygdala
4
Q
Which method is NOT considered an intracellular electrophysiology method?
a. patch clamping
b. sharp electrode
c. voltage clamping
d. multi-unit electrode array
A
d. multi-unit electrode array
5
Q
Which is NOT considered a main division of the spinal cord?
a. cervical
b. sacral
c. ribcage
d. lumbar
e. thoracic
A
c. ribcage
6
Q
Which of the following ions has a lower extracellular concentration compared to intracellular concentration in the mammalian neuron?
a. calcium (Ca2+)
b. potassium (K+)
c. chloride (Cl-)
d. sodium (Na+)
A
b. potassium (K+)
7
Q
Which of the following is not true regarding an EPSP?
a. is a local depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane
b. stands for “excitatory postsynaptic potential”
c. brings the neuron away from the threshold potential
d. is induced by influx of positively charged ions
A
c. brings the neuron away from the threshold potential
8
Q
In reference to the GHK equation, which of the following ions has the highest relative Pm across the membrane of a neuron at rest?
a. sodium ion
b. potassium ion
c. chloride ion
d. calcium ion
A
b. potassium ion
9
Q
Which of the following is NOT correct in regards to neuropeptide synthesis, storage, release, or inactivation?
a. Pro-peptides are packaged in the Golgi apparatus
b. storage occurs in dense-core vesicles
c. post-synaptic effects can be excitatory or inhibitory
d. neuropeptide release occurs close to the target site
e. removal from the synapse involves enzymatic degradation via peptidases
A
d. neuropeptide release occurs close to the target site
10
Q
Which of the following is NOT classified as a possible component for signal transduction?
a. G-protein-coupled receptor
b. enzyme-linked receptor
c. intracellular receptor
d. channel-linked (ligand-gated) receptor
e. ALL of the above are involved in signal transduction
A
e. ALL of the above are involved in signal transduction
11
Q
Arrange the following components of chemical signaling in the CORRECT order.
receptor
effector molecule
signal
response
A
signal
receptor
effector molecule
response
12
Q
Which of the following is NOT a key activator protein associated with nuclear signaling?
a. c-fos
b. cAMP response element binding (CREB) protein
c. nuclear receptors
d. all of the above are key activator proteins
A
d. all of the above are key activator proteins
13
Q
Which of the following is NOT correct regarding activation/inactivation of kinases in signal transduction?
a. increase in second messenger concentration activates a kinase
b. kinases catalyze the phosphorylation of amino acids
c. kinases are held inactive by regulatory regions
d. kinases facilitate the removal of phosphate groups from target proteins
A
d. kinases facilitate the removal of phosphate groups from target proteins
14
Q
Whereas most forms of short-term plasticity occur over a timescale of milliseconds to seconds, which of the following can occur over a timescale of seconds to minutes?
a. facilitation
b. augmentation
c. potentiation
d. depression
A
c. potentiation
15
Q
Which of the following is NOT a location that is important for mediating proprioception?
a. muscle spindles
b. golgi tendon organ
c. joint receptors
d. all of the above are specialized mechanoreceptors for proprioception
A
d. all of the above are specialized mechanoreceptors for proprioception
16
Q
Which of the following asserts that non-painful input can prevent pain sensations from traveling to the CNS (e.g. rubbing the site of injury)?
a. Gate Control Theory
b. The Dorsal Column-Medial Lemniscal System
c. Central Pain Theory
d. Peripheral Sensitization
e. The Anterolateral System
A
a. Gate Control Theory
17
Q
Which of the following is NOT classified as a spinal reflex?
a. stretch reflex
b. all of the above are spinal reflexes
c. golgi tendon reflex
d. flexion reflex
A
b. all of the above are spinal reflexes
18
Q
Which of the following has an important role in the bilateral control of “anti-gravity” extensor muscles?
a. corticobulbar tract
b. reticulospinal tract
c. vestibulospinal tract
d. corticospinal tract
A
c. vestibulospinal tract
19
Q
Of the following, which TWO areas are important for the modulation of movement by regulating activity of upper motor neuronal circuits?
basal ganglia
cerebellum
motor cortex
brain stem
spinal cord
A
basal ganglia
cerebellum
20
Q
true or false: nondeclarative memory is also referred to as “procedural” memory
A
true
21
Q
true or false: long-term memory can last for an entire lifetime
A
true
22
Q
true or false: priming cues are an example of declarative memory
A
false
23
Q
which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement?
a. driving the speed limit after you just received a speeding ticket
b. leaving your house earlier so that you can make it to class
c. moving your car in response to someone honking their car horn
d. driving the speed limit to get a perfect score on your driving test
A
c. moving your car in response to someone honking their car horn
24
Q
In the example of classical conditioning presented in class, which of the following is the conditioned stimulus?
a. saliva
b. dog food
c. whistle
d. the dog
A
c. whistle
25
Which of the following is NOT true about autism spectrum disorder (ASD)?
a. autism affects all ethnic and socioeconomic groups
b. boys are four times more likely to be diagnosed compared to girls
c. the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine increases the likelihood of ASD
d. ASD affects how a person acts and interacts with others, communicates, and learns
c. the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine increases the likelihood of ASD
26
Which of the following is not a likely cause or risk factor for ADHD?
a. alcohol or tobacco use during pregnancy
b. brain injury
c. genetics
d. low birth weight
e. lack of vitamin B1 (thiamine)
e. lack of vitamin B1 (thiamine)
27
Which of the following criterion for Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) is required for a DMS diagnosis?
a. diminished interest or pleasure in activities most of the day
b. diminished ability to think/concentrate
c. fatigue or loss of energy
d. significant weight change
a. diminished interest or pleasure in activities most of the day
28
Reduction of which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT consistent with the Monoamine Hypothesis of depression?
a. acetylcholine
b. norepinephrine
c. dopamine
d. serotonin
a. acetylcholine
29
true or false: chronic stress can be MALADAPTIVE, whereas acute stress can be ADAPTIVE.
true
30
Which of the following mechanisms makes Lithium an effective medication for the treatment of bipolar disorder?
a. enhances apoptotic processes through activation of the glycogen synthase kinase 3 enzyme
b. decreases brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF).
c. reduces inhibitory (GABA) neurotransmission
d. reduces excitatory (DA and glutamate) neurotransmission
d. reduces excitatory (DA and glutamate) transmission
31
Which of the following are possible mediators of Anxiety Disorders?
a. behavioral genetics
b. endocrine changes
c. corticolimbic circuit dysfunction
d. only A and C.
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
32
Which of the following is NOT a category of anxiety disorders?
a. phobias
b. post-traumatic stress disorder
c. obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. panic disorders
e. all of the above are classified as anxiety disorders
e. all of the above are classified as anxiety disorders
33
Select which physiological changes (3 CORRECT ANSWERS IN TOTAL) are most often associated with emotions.
a. tinnitus (i.e. ringing in the ears)
b. change in heart rate
c. hyper-excitability of muscles
d. gut motility
e. change in skin temperature
b. change in heart rate
d. gut motility
e. change in skin temeprature
34
Which of the following is/are effect(s) of Kluver-Bucy Syndrome? (SELECT ONLY 1 ANSWER)
a. Inappropriate Tameness
b. Hyperorality
c. Hypersexuality
d. Answers A and B only
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
35
Which of the following individuals is the current Director if the National Institute on Drug Abuse
a. Nora Volkow, Ph.D.
b. Phineas Gage, Ph.D.
c. Brenda Milner, Ph.D.
d. Santiago Ramón y Cajal, Ph.D.
e. George Koob, Ph.D.
a. Nora Volkow, Ph.D.
36
Which of the following does NOT directly influence the subjective "reward value"?
a. reward amount
b. individual resting state
c. reward type
d. reward probability
e. individual satiety state
b. individual resting state
37
How many genes are expressed exclusively in the nervous system?
6000 genes
38
How many genes are expressing all cell and tissue types?
8000 genes
39
What allows for increased diversity?
splice variants
40
Camillo Golgi
- reticular theory
- staining technique with silver salts
- Golgi apparatus
41
Santiago Ramón y Cajal
- neuron doctrine
- described micro-organization of the nervous system
42
Charles Sherrington
- neuron doctrine
- studied the transfer of electrical signals
- coined the term "synapse"
43
What is the rough ER known for?
synthesis of proteins
44
What is the smooth ER known for?
synthesis of lipids
45
What is the Golgi Apparatus known for?
packages proteins
46
What is the mitochondria known for?
produce energy via oxidative phosphorylation
47
How many neurons are in the human brain?
90 billion
48
What is the most common neuronal classification?
multipolar
49
what is intra-neuronal communication?
the action potential travels down the length of the axon away from the nerve terminal
50
what is the inter-neuronal communication?
the presynaptic nerve terminal comes in close apposition to another postsynaptic neuron, releasing transmitter in the the synapse
51
What are the functions of glial cells?
-support
nutrition
maintain ionic (K+, NT) concentrations
tight junction of the BBB
-insulation via myelination
-scavenge debris
-axonal guidance
52
which macroglia are in the CNS?
oligodendrocytes
53
which macroglia are in the PNS?
Schwann cells
54
What do astrocytes do?
structural support, nutritional supply, maintain ionic balance
55
what do microglia do?
scavenge debris, immune response
56
What are glial stem cells
self-renewing, multipotent cells located next to the ventricles
57
what are ependymal cells
line the ventricular system of the CNS
58
what do radial glia do
guide neuronal migration and pathway formation
59
what is the role of the frontal lobe?
personality characteristics, decision-making, movement
60
what is the role of the parietal lobe?
spatial awareness, pain sensation, touch
61
what is the role of the occipital lobe?
vision
62
what is the role of the temporal lobe?
short-term memory, speech, smell
63
what is the role of the hypothalamus?
homeostatic processes, temperature, hunger, thirst
64
what is the role of the pituitary gland?
hormone (anterior: ACTH, FHS, GH, LH; posterior: oxytocin, ADH)
65
what is the role of the amygdala?
emotion, stress, reward
66
what is the role of the hippocampus?
learning, memory
67
what is the role of the pineal gland?
melatonin
68
What are the names of the 3 meninges?
dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
69
describe the dura mater
(tough mother)
thick, tough, inextensible; is innervated and has vasculature
70
describe the arachnoid mater
resembles a web' forms subarachnoid space with CSF; no vasculature/inntervation
71
describe the pia mater
(tender mother)
thin, tightly adheres; follows brain contours; highly vascularized
72
What is the purpose of the spinal cord?
-control body mvmts and function, report sensory info to the brain, manage reflexes (i.e. involuntary mvmts)
73
is the dorsal or ventral horn known for sensory?
dorsal
74
is dorsal column ascending, descending, or both
ascending
75
name the types of intracellular recording
patch clamping, sharp microelectrode, voltage clamping, current clamping
76
name the types of extracellular recording
single unit recording, multi-unit electrode array
77
what is an action potential?
Changes in resting membrane potential in relation to K+ concentration
78
who developed the action potential?
Hodgkin and Katz
79
describe intracellular unit recording
***inside a neuron
an intracellular
microelectrode records the membrane potential from one neuron as it fires
80
describe a multiple-unit recording
***measure rate of firing/action potentials; larger electrode picks up potentials form many nearby neurons
a small electrode records the action potentials of many nearby neurons. these are added up and plotted.
81
describe extracellular unit recording
****near a neuron
an extracellular microelectrode records the electrical disturbances that is created each time an adjacent neuron fires
82
describe an invasive EEG recording
***finite position recording
a large implanted electrode picks up general changes in electrical brain activity
83
what is GCamp3
calcium indicator
84
describe calcium imaging
optically measure calcium
*** in vivo, freely moving objects
85
describe fiber photometry
detect bulk activity changes in neuronal populations
86
describe miniscope
visualize neuronal activity at single-cell level
87
what is immunohistochemistry
antibody-based detection of an antigen in tissues
88
what is immunocytochemistry
antibody-based detection of an antigen in cells
89
what is immunofluorescence
detection method, during which antibody binding to an antigen is visualized using a fluorophore
90
what is in situ hybridization
a means of identifying where mRNAs are present in fixed tissue samples
91
what is heavy metal staining
electron microscopy to visual subcellular structures
92
what are the three bacterial opsins used for single-component optogenetics
bacteriorhodopsin, halorhodopsin, channelrhodopsin
93
describe optogenetics
genetic and optical methods to activate or inhibit neuronal events
transmembrane ion conductance
tool for mapping functional activity
microbial opsin genes and microbiral rhodopsin proteins
94
are neurons strong or poor conductors of electricity?
poor!
95
what is electrochemical equilibrium?
when there is no net flux of ions; a balance between the electrical and chemical gradients
96
what is the Nernst equation
used to calculate the equilibrium potential for a single ion based on its concentration difference across the membrane
97
what is learning
process through which new info is acquired by the nervous system (i.e. cellular and molecular plasticity of neuronal connections)
98
what is memory
recovered experiences that can be brought into consciousness and/or manifest as changes in behavior
99
who developed forgetting?
Hermann Ebbinghaus
100
what is the forgetting curve?
decline of memory retention in time; "strength" of memory
101
what is the spacing effect?
encoding of info via spaced repetition vs massed presentation
102
what is declarative memory?
material that is available to consciousness and can be expressed by language
103
what is nondeclarative (procedural) memory
material NOT available to consciousness, at least not in any detail
104
describe immediate/sensory memory
ability to hold onto ongoing experience for approximately one second
105
describe short-term/working memory
ability to hold & manipulate info for seconds to minutes while it is being used to achieve a particular goal or process
106
describe long-term memory
retaining info in a more permanent form of storage for days, week, or even a lifetime
107
108
what is consolidation
the process by which info is transferred into LTM at the cellular level
109
describe synaptic/cellular consolidation
rapid biochemical/morphological changes to the neuronal network supporting new memory
110
describe systems consolidation
gradual reorganization of hippocampal-dependent memory across a cortical network
111
what is BF Skinner known for?
behaviorism
- operant conditioning
- schedules of reinforcement
112
describe positive punishment
***punishment
-adding something unpleasant like time out
113
describe negative punishment
removing something valued or desired
-penalty
114
describe positive reinforcement
adding something valuable or desirable
- gold star
115
describe negative reinforcement
avoiding something unpleasant
-taking advil before wax to avoid pain
116
what is priming
Change in the processing of a stimulus due to a previous encounter with the same or related stimulus with/without conscious awareness of the original encounter
117
Who tested the subject that was unable to forget?
Alexander Luria
118
Describe patient H.M.
suffered from epilepsy, so had his medial temporal lobes and bilateral hippocampus removed
-induced anterograde amnesia
**preserved semantic memory, and procedural memory, but has poor long-term memory and had temporally-graded retrograde amnesia
119
what is amnesia
loss of memories. may be transient, meaning for a short time.
120
what are the causes of amnesia?
normal aging, brain injury, alcohol or substance abuse
121
what is amnesia a sign of?
alzheimers, Lew body dementia, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
122
what is semantic priming?
improved processing of a stimulus after exposure to one that has a related meaning
123
what is subliminal priming?
stimuli use to influence a person's cognitive processing without that person being aware of the prompts
124
what is repetition priming?
a stimulus and response are paired repeatedly; experience
125
what is perceptual priming?
based on the form of the stimulus and is enhanced by the match between the early and later stimuli
126
what are symptoms
manifestation of disease apparent to the patient themselves
--subjective
127
what are signs?
manifestation of disease that is perceptible to the physician
--objective
128
what is cerebral localization?
precise science of predicting which regions of the brain are damaged or malfunctioning
based on careful examination of a patient's signs and symptoms
129
do all neurodegenerative diseases lead to disability and death?
yes
130
motor disorders of basal ganglia
parkinsons and huntingtons
131
motor disorders of cerebellar ataxias
creutzfeld-Jakob disease
132
what are the 3 principle features of alzheimer's disease?
neurofibrillary tangles
AB plagues
loss of neurons
133
where does alzheimers cause the most changes in the brain?
neocortex
limbic system
134
what is the most common form of dementia?
alzheimer's
135
what does schizophrenia mean?
splitting of the mind
136
when is schizophrenia diagnosed?
after the first episode of psychosis
137
what are positive symptoms of schizophrenia?
overt symptoms that should not be present
-hallucinations
-delusions
-disorganized thoughts
-movement disorder
138
what are negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
lack of characteristics that should be present
-reduced speech
-lack of emotional and facial expression
-diminished ability to begin or sustain activities
-less pleasure
-social withdrawal
139
what are cognitive deficits of schizophrenia?
difficulties with following aspects of cognition can make it hard to live a normal life or earn a living
-memory
-attention
-planning
-decision making
140
what is Alogia?
reduced speech
141
what is affective flattening?
lack of emotional and facial expression
142
what is avolition
diminished ability to begin or sustain acitivites
143
what is anhedonia
decreased ability to find pleasure in everyday
144
what is asociality
social withdrawal
145
How to diagnose schizophrenia?
2+ symptoms for at least one month
1. delusions
3. hallucinations
3. disorganized speech
146
what is the original dopamine hypothesis for schizophrenia?
hyperactive dopamine transmission results in schizophrenic symptoms
147
How does inhalation change drug pharmacokinetics?
-similar peaks effects by inhalation vs injection
-achieved at a lower overall plasma level after inhalation
-achieved on rising phase (much quicker)
-plasma levels decline more rapidly after inhalation
-recipe for more frequent re-dosing, potentially binging
148
what are some criteria for SUD in DMS5
defense against increasing workload, tolerance, continued drug taking with aversive stimuli or alternate reinforcers
149
where are the endocannabinoid receptors in addiction-related circuitry?
CeNA, VTA, Nuc.Accum
150
What are the physiological changes associated with emotions?
-heart rate
-blood flow
-skin temp
-sweating
-piloerection
-pupil size
-gut motility
151
What are symptoms of Kluver-Bucy syndrome
-inappropriate tameness
-hyperorality
-hypersexuality
152
what are the components of limbic system
-cingulate gyrus
-hippocampus
-amygdala
-hypothalamus
-thalamus
153
what does the corticolimbic circuit do?
recognizes danger and organizes adaptive behavioral responses
154
what does the corticostriatal circuit do?
involved in reward learning and goal-oriented behavior
155
what is the function of cingulate gyrus
-regulates emotion and pain
-conscious response to unpleasant experiences
-negative learning
156
what is the function of hippocampus
memory formation
157
what is the function of amygdala
fight-or-flight
fear and other complex emotions
regulates emotional responses
emotional memory
158
what is the function of hypothalamus
regulates autonomic functions
fighting, fleeing, feeding, fornicating
159
what is the function of the thalamus
sensory info
alertness/awareness
160
What neurotransmitters are involved in psychosis?
dopamine, glutamate, GABA
161
what are chemogenetics?
designer receptor exclusively activated by designer drugs
162
what is CRISPR/Cas9?
clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats
163
what is GWAS?
genome wide association studies
-data collections
-genotyping
-quality control
-imputation
-association testing
-meta-analysis
-replication
-post-GWAS analysis
164
PET scan
use of radioactive tracers
165
what are the advantages of fMRI?
good spatial resolution
shows activity in the brain based on bloodflow
166
what are the disadvantages of fMRI?
poor temporal resolution
time-consuming
subjects cant move
167
What are the advantages of MEG scan?
noninvasive
great spatial resolution of cortical regions
good temporal resolution
168
what are the disadvantages of MEG?
very expensive
time consuming
169
what are the advantages of EEG?
good temp res
cost effective
animal subjects
170
what are the disadvantages of EEG?
poor spatial red
limited to cortical activity
171
What are Event-related potentials?
time-locked to sensory, motor, or cognitive events
summed activity of post synaptic potentials
172
What is transcranial magnetic stimulation?
brief, strong magnetic field that alters. neural activity
activate/deactivate brain regions
173
What is transcranial magnetic stimulation used for?
treatment-resistant depression
anxiety
Parkinson's disease
174
How do contrast x-rays work and what're they used for?
inject something that absorbs x-rays differently than tissue
medical purposes
175
How do ct scans work and what're they used for?
x-rays of the brain from multiple angles
primarily medical settings
176
How do pet scans work and what're they used for?
radiolabel for a substance (usually glucose) of interest and scan brain for that radioactivity
brain activity
177
How does an mri work and what're they used for?
magnetic and radio waves to map location of water, fat, tissues
brain structure
178
How do fMRIs work and what're they used for?
alignment of hydrogen molecules BOLD signal: blood oxygen level dependent
brain activity
179
How do MEG scans work and what're they used for?
changes in magnetic fields on the scalp shows underlying neural activity
neuronal activity
180
what is a neuron's resting membrane potential?
-70mV
181
which ion is most concentrated intracellulary?
potassium
182
which ions are commonly concentrated extracellularly?
sodium, chloride, calcium
183
What is the function of NA/K pump (ATPase)
to keep membrane "battery" charged
maintains appropriate ionic concentrations
184
what is the rule about Na And K?
3 Na+ out 2K+ in
ATP is required against concentration gradients
185
what would cooling do to membrane potentials?
mildly deprolarize
186
what would heating do to membrane potentials?
mildly hyperpolarize
187
What is the Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz equation used for?
when the membrane is simultaneously permeable to several ions
188
What is an EPSP
a local depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane
brings the neuron closer to the threshold potential
can be induced by influx of positively charged ions
189
What is an IPSP
a local hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane
brings the neuron away from the threshold potential
can be induced by influx of negatively charged ions
190
at rest, the neuronal membrane is selectively permeable to ___?
K+
191
what is an action potential?
an electrical signal generation by nerve cells and arises from changes in membrane permeability to specific ions
a rapid, brief reversal of membrane potential
result of voltage and time-dependent changes in membrane permeability
192
What is excitotoxicity
changes in glutamate homeostasis during psychostimulant addiction
193
what is the voltage clamp method used for?
to determine the membrane conductance for Na and K
time and voltage dependent
194
what is saltatory conduction?
depolarization occurs only on bare axon between myelin segments and not along the entire axon surface
195
what is an example of a myelination disorder?
multiple sclerosis
196
what are some examples of ion channels disorders?
epilepsy
febrile seizures
migraine
cerebral ataxia
197
what is multiple sclerosis?
a disabling disease of the nervous system resulting from a disruption neural communication
198
what causes MS?
autoimmune disease
"bystander effect" of response to clearing a viral infection of oligodendrocytes
199
what are ways to improve neuronal signalling?
increase diameter of axon
myelin
200
where are voltage-gates Na+ channels localized?
nodes of ranvier
201
what are examples of neurotoxins?
tetrodotoxin
alpha toxin
beta toxin
202
describe alpha toxin
derived from scorpions
slow inactivation of Na+ channels, reducing APs
paralysis and arrhythmia
203
describe beta toxins
derived from scorpions
negative shift of the voltage dependence of Na+ channel
fast contraction paralysis
204
describe tetrodotoxin
potent blocker of voltage-gated Na+ channels
205
what is SCN9A?
sodium voltage-gated channel
responsible for making NaV1.7 on nociceptors
a molecular gatekeeper of pain detection at peripheral nociceptors
206
what is episodic ataxia type 1?
single gene mutation: KCNA1
autosomal dominant
loss of function mutation
207
what are symptoms of episodic ataxia type 1?
brief attacks of incoordination, dominated by gait ataxia
neuromyotonia
myokymia
208
severe myoclonic epilepsy of infancy
Na+ channel mutations
209
benign familial neonatal convulsion
K+ channel mutations
210
childhood absence epilepsy
Ca2+ channel mutations
211
what is the most common type of synapse?
axodendritic
212
What key experiment was done to support idea of chemical synapses?
Otto Loewi
stimulation of the Vagus nerve attached to a donor's heart caused the heart to slow. A solution from donor's heart was allowed to flow to a secondary recipient heart, slowing that heart rate as well.
***vagusstoff now known as acetylcholine
213
How are neurotransmitters stopped?
diffusion
removal by glial cells
enzyme degradation
reuptake into presynaptic terminal
214
what are the two primary NT release modes?
full fusion and kiss and run
215
what is full fusion?
terminal and vesicle membranes fully merge and flatten
requires full exocytosis
216
what is kiss-and-run
vesicle content exits through a fusion pore
quickly disconnects after NT release
217
what is myasthenic syndrome
synapse disorder
abnormal transmission at NMJ leading to weakness and fatigability of skeletal muscles
218
what is botulism?
synapse disorder
caused by a clostridium botulinum toxin, can impair NT release at skeletal and smooth muscles leading to flaccid paralysis
219
what is tetanus?
synapse disorder
caused by clostridium tetani toxin, can impair inhibitory control of primary motor neurons leading to spastic paralysis
220
what is alpha-latrotoxin?
synapse disorder
from black widow spider venom induces exhaustive release of neurotransmitters from vertebrate nerve terminals
221
what presynaptic proteins are used in mobilization?
synapsins
CaMKII
222
what presynaptic proteins are used in fusion?
synaptotagmins
SNAREs
223
describe ligand-gated ion channels
direct, fast transmission
224
describe g protein-coupled receptors
indirect, slow activation, long-last effects
impacts intracellular biochemistry
225
how is vesicle mobilization done?
vesicles held in a reserve pool by synapsin
CaMK-II phosphorylates synapsin to release vesicles
226
what presynaptic proteins are used in endocytosis
NSF & SNAP
Clathrin
227
what presynaptic proteins are used in docking/priming
SnaRe proteins
--syntaxin, SNAP-25
synaptobrevin
228
what is the rate-limiting step in vesicular release?
docking/priming
229
how to small molecules and peptides differ in synthesis?
SM: enzymatic, in final form, in nerve terminal
peptide: propeptide, in soma, axonal transport to NT
230
how to small molecules and peptides differ in storage?
sm: small, clear-core vesicles; vesicle recycling
peptide: large, dense-core vesicles; no vesicle recycling
231
how to small molecules and peptides differ in release?
sm: close to target site
peptide: target often distant
232
how to small molecules and peptides differ in inactivation?
sm: reuptake, enzymatic degradation
peptide: enzymatic degradation
233
how to small molecules and peptides differ in synthesis location?
sm: cytosol of presynaptic terminal
peptide: rough ER and golgi
234
how to small molecules and peptides differ in speed of action?
sm: fast
peptide: slow
235
what is the rate-limiting step in ACh synthesis?
choline uptake
ChAT
236
what are Sarin, VX, insecticides
irreversible AChE inhibitors
237
what are Aricept and Exelon?
reversible AChE inhibitors
238
what modulators block nACh?
a-bungarotoxin (snake)
alpha-conotoxin (snail)
239
what modulators stimulate nACh?
betal nut and nicotine
240
What is myasthenia gravis?
chronic autoimmune disorder affecting voluntary muscles of the body
antibodies destroy ACh
241
what is oxycodone?
potent opioid analgesic
schedule II controlled substance
m and k opioid receptor
242
what is fentanyl?
potent opioid analgesic
schedule II
243
what are examples of exogenous cannabinoids?
CBD
THC
244
who discovered cannabis sativa?
Carl Linnaeus
245
who discovered cannabis indica
jean-baptiste lamarck
246
what drug schedule is cannabis?
schedule I
247
what is psilocybin?
a naturally occurring psychedelic compound found in magic shrooms
treatment for major depression and anxiety
248
what are some effector proteins?
adenylyl cyclase and phospholipase c
249
what are some second messengers
cAMP, diacylglycerol, IP3
250
what are some late effectors?
protein kinase A, protein kinase C, Ca2+ release
251
what is a kinase?
an enzyme that adds phosphate groups to other molecules
252
what is phosphatase?
an enzyme that removes phosphate groups to other molecules
253
what are the steps of activation/inactivation of G proteins?
1. inactive--> GDP bound
2. exchange GDP for GTP
3. active--> GTP bound
4. hydrolyze GTP into GDP
254
what are the Ca2+ binding proteins
calbindin and calmodulin
255
what are 3 key activator proteins?
CREB
nuclear receptors
c-fos
256
What is the rate limiting step for catecholamine synthesis?
TH
257
who coined the phrase "cells that wire together fire together"
Donald Hebb
258
what is Hebb's organization of behavior?
the 1st comprehensive theory of how complex psychological phenomena might be produced by brain activity
259
what are sensitization and habituation?
changes in behavior
260
describe synaptic facilitation
increase calcium due to quick AP succession
increase vesicle release
10s of milliseconds
synaptotagmin 7
261
describe synaptic augmentation
increase calcium-induced fusion
enhance SNARE protein --Munc-13
increase vesicle release
few seconds
262
describe synaptic potentiation
increase calcium-induced fusion
protein kinases
increase vesicle release
10 sec to minutes
263
describe synaptic depression
depletion of vesicles due to high release rate
decrease vesicle release
100s of milliseconds
264
describe long-term sensitization
1. PKA phosphorylates CREB
2. pCREB activates tf's
3. ubiquitin hydrolase
265
what type of signaling is used to convey sensation to brain
afferent signalling
266
sensory receptors are ____
organs!
267
describe receptor potentials
--pasive, electrotonic
--are NOT all-or-none responses
--can sum
--may trigger APs
268
proprioception receptor type
muscle spindle
1a, II
large diameter
269
touch receptor type
merkel, meissner, pacinian, riffini
A beta
6-12 micro m diamter
270
pain, temp receptor type
free nerve endings
a delta
1-5 micro m diameter
271
slow adapting
merkel and ruffini
272
fast adapting
meissner and pacinian
273
small receptive field
merkel
meissner
274
large receptive field
pacinian
ruffini
275
meissner corpsucle
movement of across the skin
276
merkels disc
shape and texture
277
pacinian corpuscle
detect vibration through objects
278
riffini endings
stretch of skin
279
Piezo 1 and Piezo 2
mechanosensitive ion channels
proprioception
ardem patapoutian
280
what is responsible for mechanosensory system
dorsal column/ medial lemniscal system
281
what is responsible for pain and temp
anterolateral system
282
Ia muscle fibers
large myelinated sensory axons, rapidly adapt; respond to changes in muscle length
myelinated
283
II muscle fibers
sustained responses to constant muscle lengths; provides sense of muscle position when still
myelinated
284
1b muscle fibers
golgi tendon organ
myelinated
285
describe dissociated sensory loss
unilateral spinal cord injury results in loss of sensation on the ipsilateral side and pain symptoms on the contralateral side
286
allodynia
non-painful becomes painful
287
hyperalgesia
increased pain in response to painful stimuli
288
inflammatory pain
increases pain sensitivity due to inflammation associated tissue damage
289
neuropathic pain
chronic pain that persists in the absence of an ongoing pain stimuli, likely caused by damage to nervous system
290
type I A delta
low threshold for mechanical and chemical stimulation
291
type II A delta
low heat threshold
292
what brain structures are responsible for short term memory storage
hippocampus
293
what brain structures are responsible for long term storage
cerebral cortex
wernicke's area
temporal cortex (memories of objects and faces)
294
the hippocampus is important for establishing ______ memories
declarative!
295
what type of amnesia is caused by damage to hippocampus
anterograde amnesia
296
what brain structures are responsible for non-declarative long-term storage
basal ganglia
cerebellum
premotor cortex
297
what brain structure helps build habit?
caudate
298
how is wernicke-korsakoff syndrome caused?
lack of vitamin B1
--chronic alcohol abuse
--gastric or colon cancers
--kidney dialysis
--AIDS
299
pathophysiology of Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome
-volume loss
-loss of Purkinje cells in superior cerebellar vermis
--decreased GABA and aspartate
300
what is Autism Spectrum Disorder
a neurodevelopmental disorder that begins early in childhood and lasts throughout a person's life
301
what is the function of the NEGR1 gene?
modulates synapse formation in hippocampal neurons
302
what is the function of the PTBP2 gene?
alternative-splicing programs
303
what is the function of the CADPS gene?
exocytosis of neurotransmitters
304
what is the function of the KCNIN2 gene?
voltage-independent Ca2+-activated K+ channel; modulate neuronal excitability
305
what is the function of KMT2E gene?
chromatin regulation, control of cell-cycle progression, and maintaining genomic stability
306
what is the function of MACROD2 gene?
expressed in lung and brain, nuclear enzyme that binds mon-ADP-ribosylated proteins
307
what is WNT2 secreted growth factor responsible for?
neuronal migration, axon guidance, and dendrite branching
308
what is BDNF responsible for?
neurogenesis, axodendritic growth, neuronal/synaptic differentiation
309
what is reelin responsible for?
neuronal migration, cortical patterning, and brain development
310
what is psychosis
conditions that affect the mind, where there has been some loss of contact with reality
311
tonic-clonic seizure
"grand-mal"
loss of consciousness, stiffening of body then jerking of limbs
312
absence seizure
"petit mal"
staring fit
313
tonic seizure
"drop attack"
abrupt fall, either with stiffening or loss of muscle tone
314
myoclonic
sudden muscle jerks
315
focal (partial) seizures
with or without loss of awareness, or with impaired awareness
316
what is the monoamine hypothesis of depression?
reduced levels of monoamine disorders (NE, 5-HT, DA) underlie depression
317
what is often used to treat bipolar disorder?
lithium
318
lithium mechanism for treatment of bipolar
reduces dopamine and glutamate, increasing GABA
increased BDNF
319
which brain structure integrates info from amygdala to hippocampus
BNST
320
neurons in _______ release ________ in response to threat
LC
NE
321
increasing NE is _______
anxiogenic
322
decreasing NE is _______
anxiolytic
323
Prazosin
alpha1 AR antagonist
increase peripheral vasodilation
reduces sleep disturbances in PTSD
324
endocrine changes in PTSD
decreased cortisol
increased CRH
325
cingulate gyrus function
involved in prediction of negative consequences and avoidance
326
what brain structures are the major sources of DA
SNc
VTA
327
tonic mode of DA transmission
steady, baseline level of DA in downstream neural structures and vital for normal circuit function
328
phasic mode of DA transmission
sharp increase or decrease in firing rates, causing large changes in DA concentration in downstream structures
329
describe the mesocorticolimbic system
VTA --> Nucleus accumbens --> amygdala
learning, motivation, reward, memory, mvmt
330
describe the nigrostriatal pathway
SNc --> caudate nucleus --> putamen
learning, motivation, reward, memory, mvmt
331
reward value is influenced by
1. reward type
2. reward amount
3. reward probability
4. individual's satiety state
332
TRPV1
found in A delta and C fibers
detects noxious heat and confers sensitivtiy to capsaicin
333
what modulates TRPV1 receptor activity?
Ca2+
334
ASIC
potent proton sensors located in the PNS and CNS to detect extracellular acidification in the periphery and brain
335
SCN9A
voltage-gated Na+ channel
c fibers
volume knob on pain
336
Brown-Séquard syndrome
dissociated sensory loss
ipsilateral loss of discriminative touch
contralateral loss of pain/temp sense
337
what is cognitive wanting
goal-oriented and based typically on declarative memories and on cognitive expectations of ant-outcome relations, and less tied to mesolimbic dopamine-related systems
338
substance use disorders are diseased characterized by disturbances in what 3 major circuits?
basal ganglia
extended amygdala
prefrontal cortex
339
what brain structures are involved with binge/intoxication?
basal ganglia
340
what brain structures are involved with withdrawal/negative?
extended amygdala and habenula
341
what brain structures are involved with preoccupation/anticipation?
PFC, insula, allocortex
342
neurobiological mechanisms of the withdrawal/negative affect stage
--increases in receptor responsivity to drugs
--decreases in GABAergic and increases in NMDA glutamatergic transmission in the nucleus accumben
--HPS axis and brain stress system mediated by CRF are dysregulated
343
______ potentiates the escalation of oxycodone self-administration
intermittent abstinence
344
_______ to oxycodone self-administration attenuates escalation under LgA
daily access
345
_______ attenuates escalation of oxycodone self-administration under LgA
KOR antagonism
346
in preoccupation/anticipation stage, what does the overactive glutamatergic and CRF systems mediate?
craving-like responses
347
what are the 4 neural centers for mvmt
1. local circuit neurons
2. descending systems
3. cerebellum
4. basal ganglia
348
what is the serial organization in the motor system
cortex --> brainstem --> spinal cord
349
extrafusal muscle fibers are innervated by what?
alpha motor neurons
350
intrafusal muscle fibers are innvervated by what?
gamma motor neurons
351
what maintains spindle sensitivity when muscle shortens
gamma motor neurons
352
slow motor unit categories
type I
contract slowly with relatively small force (posture)
small "red" muscle fibers, rich in myoglobin, mitochondrial, and capillary beds
resistant to fatigue
353
fast fatigue-resistant motor unit categories
in between properties and intermediate size
slower than FF, but sustain lower than S
use both oxidative phosphorylation and glycolysis
354
fast fatigable motor unit category
Brief extension, large force
larger, pale, muscle fibers, less mitochondria
355
describe muscle spindles
detect muscle length
arranged in parallel
356
describe golgi tendon organ
detect muscle tension
arranged in series
357
phasic stretch reflex
--simple, monosynaptic reflex
elicited by muscle stretch
activates la afferents
358
flexion reflex
--complex, polysynaptic and often coordinates withdrawal of whole limbs
often occurs with extension of the opposite limb
359
golgi tendon reflex
innervated by ib sensory organs
in series w muscle fibers
360
central pattern generators
can control timing and coordination, as well as adjust in response to changes
361
what does the medial divison of motor tract control
***from brainstem
primarily posture, balance, and orienting mechanisms
362
what does the lateral division of motor tract control?
voluntary, skilled mvmts of the distal extremities
363
vestibular nuclear complex
body posture and position; feedback concerning postural instability
364
reticular formation
body posture & position; autonomic and stereotypical behaviors
365
superior colliculus
orienting of the head and eyes; muscles of the neck
366
red nucleus
control arms/forearms in non-human mammals
367
latVST
bilateral control of "anti-gravity extensor muscles
368
LMN and LC neurons medial VH bilateral
control bilateral axial and proximal limb muscle
involved in feedforward postural control
369
primary motor cortex
firing rates code the force of contraction and direction of mvmt
370
premotor cortex
planning and programming of mvmt
lateral premotor areas driven by external cues, medial driven by internal cues
371
PFC
integration and evaluation of multimodal sensory inputs
motivation to elicit behavior
372
cortical pyramidal neurons in primary motor cortex
corticobulbar, to the brainstem
corticospinal to spinal cord
373
betz cells in primary motor cortex
about 5%
fine control of the hand/fingers
374
red nucleus
controls the limbs
cerebellum training
375
reticular formation
control the trunk
376
pons
provides cerebellum with info about the motor plan
377
cranial nerve nuclei
control muscles of the face, jaw, throat, and eyes
378
ALS
affects both UMN and LMN
379
PLS
only affect UMN
380
PMA
LMN
381
SMA
LMN disease, related to defects in SMN1 gene
1. Wernig-Hoffmann disease: evident by 6 months of age
2. 6-18 months of age; can sit but not stand/walk independently
3. Kugelberg-Welander disease: 2-17 years of age
382
areflexia
loss of reflexes
383
symptoms of LMN
paralysis, paresis, areflexia, fibrillations, fasciculations, muscle atrophy
384
symptoms UMN
babinksi sign and clonus
fine voluntary mvmts impaired
385
who discovered als?
jean martin charcot
386
basal ganglia function
voluntary mvmt
motor planning
initiation of mvmt
nondeclarative learning
motivation
387
corticostriatal projections
--excitatory
--synapse onto medium spiny neurons
--topographically organized
388
Parkinson's Disease
hypokinetic disorder
symptoms:
--tremor
--stiffness/rigidity
--slowness of mvmt
--impaired balance and coordination
389
Huntington's Disease
hyperkinetic disorder
related to atrophy of caudate and putamen
result of a mutation in the HTT gene
390
Creutzfeld-Jakob disease
symptoms:
--cerebellar ataxia
--myoclonic jerks and seizures
--dementia
--fatal
spongiform degeneration
--caused by a prion (protein that can trigger normal proteins in the brain to fold abnormally)
391
cerebellar ataxia
lack of muscle control/coordination of voluntary mvmt
symptoms:
--brain degen
--substances
--stroke/tumor
--cerebral palsy
--genetic factors
--infections
392
purkinje cells
GABAergic neuron inhibiting neurons in the deep cerebellar nuclei
393
granule cells
glutamatergic cells that excite Purkinje cells via axonal branches called "parallel fibers"
394
basket cells
GABAergic interneuron that inhibit Purkinje cells
395
climbing fibers
axons from the olivary nucleus of the medulla oblongata that use glutamate to excite Purkinje cells and neurons in the cerebellar nuclei
396
mossy fibers
other axons that enter the cerebellum, excitatory granule cells and neurons in the cerebella nuclei
397
superior peduncle
major efferent pathway
tracts from the deep nuclei of cerebellum to contralateral cortex
398
middle peduncle
major afferent pathway
tracks from the contralateral cortex
399
inferior peduncle
afferent and efferent pathways
afferent tracts carrying ipsilateral proprioceptive info from the spinal cord
efferent tracks form purkinje cell axons
