Clinical Pathology

Question 1

What is the problem with a fast bleed/ high suction?

Answer 1

it can cause haemolysis of the blood, or a possible vein collapse.

Question 2

what happens in a slow bleed?

Answer 2

platelet clumping, coagulation, can be caused by low blood pressure.

Question 3

What is serum derived from?

Answer 3

clotted blood

Question 4

how do we mix the sample?

Answer 4

invert it 5 times

Question 5

what are the 4 microscopic powers used on a microscope?

Answer 5

10x
40x
100x
1000x

Question 6

what does FNA stand for?

Answer 6

Fine Needle Aspiration

Question 7

what is written on a cytology slide? (labelling)

Answer 7

patient name, owner name, date, area the sample was taken from.

Question 8

should all slides be stained in house?

Answer 8

no, some labs prefer to do it themselves.

Question 9

should the cell layer thickness on a cytology slide be thick of thin?

Answer 9

thin (monolayer)

Question 10

how many 1 second dips in the diff quik?

Answer 10

5 dips in each

Question 11

label parts of a plain tube after 30 minutes

Answer 11

serum, blood clot

Question 12

label parts of an EDTA tube after 30 minutes

Answer 12

plasma, buffy coat, red blood cells

Question 13

what is found in plasma thats not in serum?

Answer 13

fibrinogen

Question 14

what microscopic fibre is formed when blood clots?

Answer 14

fibrin

Question 15

why do we separate blood from clot for long term storage?

Answer 15

to prevent chemicals leaching out of old or damaged cells

Question 16

what are 2 methods of separating serum from a clot?

Answer 16

pipette, serum separator tube

Question 17

what is the most versatile anti-coagulant?

Answer 17

Lithium Heparin

Question 18

what is the best anti-coagulant for blood smears in mammals?

Answer 18

EDTA

Question 19

what test do we use a citrate tube for?

Answer 19

coags, PT, PTT (blue tube)

Question 20

What test do we use a FLOX tube for?

Answer 20

glucose levels (grey tube)

Question 21

what does serum centrifuged before clot retraction result in?

Answer 21

the serum becomes a gel (platelets will be spun out before they get a chance to contract fibrin in the clot)

Question 22

where should we leave a sample for clotting? how long?

Answer 22

left to stand on the bench at room temperature for 30 minutes

Question 23

how many times do we invert a serum separator tube?

Answer 23

5 times after the sample is taken

Question 24

how do we store a serum separator tube?

Answer 24

left at room temperature to separate then serum can be frozen

Question 25

when do we centrifuge a SST?

Answer 25

after 30 minutes

Question 26

when should the SST sample be poured off?

Answer 26

within 60 minutes

Question 27

which blood cells are responsible for clot retraction/ contraction?

Answer 27

platelets or thrombacin

Question 28

why is it best to fast an animal before collecting blood?

Answer 28

to avoid lipemia

Question 29

what is a better blood smear at gross level?

Answer 29

blood will be spread out evenly over the slide, not too skinny

Question 30

what is a better blood smear at microscopic level?

Answer 30

cells wont overlap

Question 31

label blood smear

Answer 31

Red blood cells (erythrocytes), platelets (thrombocytes)

Question 32

label microhaematecrit tube

Answer 32

plasma, buffy coat, red blood cells

Question 33

what is an anaemic PCV?

Answer 33

dogs: less than 37% cats: less than 30%

Question 34

healthy PCV?

Answer 34

dog: 45% cat: 35%

Question 35

healthy TP?

Answer 35

cats and dogs: 70g/L

Question 36

do we read the meniscus from the top or bottom?

Answer 36

bottom

Question 37

what are the 2 blood tests which help diagnose dehydration?

Answer 37

PCV, TPP

Question 38

what is an enzyme?

Answer 38

a protein produced by a living cell that increases the rate of a chemical reaction.

Question 39

how is blood stored within 30 minutes?

Answer 39

at room temperature (around 20 degrees)

Question 40

how is blood stored between 30 mins - 48 hours?

Answer 40

in the fridge (around 4 degrees)

Question 41

list 2 enzymes tested to investigate liver injury.

Answer 41

ALP, ALT

Question 42

list 2 enzymes tested to investigate liver function.

Answer 42

ammonia, bile acids

Question 43

list 2 enzymes tested to investigate pancreatic injury.

Answer 43

amylase, lipase

Question 44

list 2 enzymes tested to investigate kidney function.

Answer 44

urea, creatinine

Question 45

what is the pigmented liver metabolite responsible for jaundice?

Answer 45

bilirubin

Question 46

detecting antigens - do they detect infection and previous exposure?

Answer 46

yes

Question 47

what do antibodies do?

Answer 47

detect antigens, formed as an immune reaction to fight infection

Question 48

when can antigens be detected?

Answer 48

2-3 weeks after the infection

Question 49

how long can antigens remain in the body?

Answer 49

months or year after infection

Question 50

when should urine be refrigerated?

Answer 50

if it isnt going to be tested within 30 minutes

Question 51

what are some changes that occur to urine with age?

Answer 51

glucose levels fall, pH rises, bacteria usually proliferate, renal tubular casts break up.

Question 52

why do we note urine collection method?

Answer 52

it indicates an expected level of contamination by bacteria and blood

Question 53

when can we dipstick a refrigerated sample?

Answer 53

when it has warmed back to room temperature

Question 54

why do we hold the dipstick horizontally?

Answer 54

so that the urine from the different pads dont mix

Question 55

why do we not remove desiccating gel from dipstick bottle?

Answer 55

if it is removed the moisture can ruin the dipsticks, they absorb moisture

Question 56

should we refrigerate dipsticks?

Answer 56

no

Question 57

non-haemolysed blood in urine dipstick is indicated by? indicates what?

Answer 57

it is indicated by red spots, indicates the presence of intact red blood cells

Question 58

which 2 urine dipstick tests are considered inaccurate?

Answer 58

USG (specific gravity) and leukocytes

Question 59

which 2 tests may be affected by flea droppings on a urine dipstick?

Answer 59

blood and protein

Question 60

should pH of urine always be recorded?

Answer 60

yes

Question 61

advantage and disadvantage of collecting urine via cysto.

Answer 61

advantage: less contamination, sterility disadvantage: invasive, could be contaminated by blood on the needle

Question 62

what does turbidity mean?

Answer 62

cloudiness

Question 63

what does flocculent mean?

Answer 63

floating particles

Question 64

list 2 gross characteristics of urine other than turbidity.

Answer 64

colour, smell, volume

Question 65

list 3 alternatives for "coffin lid" crystals found in cat and dog urine

Answer 65

struvite, triple phosphate, magnesium ammonium phosphate

Question 66

what is the zoonotic disease contracted from dog urine?

Answer 66

leptospirosis

Question 67

what is the parasite egg found in dog faeces which is dangerous to humans?

Answer 67

hydatid tapeworm

Question 68

how much poo is needed in faecal floatation decide?

Answer 68

1ml

Question 69

how long should a faecal floatation device float for?

Answer 69

10-20 minutes

Question 70

whipworm egg looks like:

Answer 70

a casserole dish

Question 71

hookworm egg looks like:

Answer 71

oval with big circles in the middle

Question 72

roundworm egg looks like:

Answer 72

big circle with fuzzy edges

Question 73

tapeworm egg looks like:

Answer 73

circle with shaded inside,lines around the edge

Question 74

eggs that look like a string of circles:

Answer 74

coccus

Question 75

eggs that look like rods:

Answer 75

bacillus

Question 76

adult dog faecal floatation with mucoid blood, flecked diarrhoea is which worm?

Answer 76

whipworm

Question 77

what is the name of the stain used to divide bacteria into 2 groupings?

Answer 77

gram stain

Question 78

what is the purpose of a bacterial culture plate?

Answer 78

culture and sensitivity

Question 79

what is a fungassay?

Answer 79

test for ringworm

Question 80

where do we grow a bacterial culture plate?

Answer 80

on a shelf, away from direct sunlight

Question 81

how should the cap be placed on a culture plate?

Answer 81

partially closed

Question 82

how often should the culture plate be checked?

Answer 82

daily for up to 2 weeks

Question 83

a pathogenic fungus is indicated by the appearance of what?

Answer 83

colour change during early growth

Question 84

how is a deep skin scraping performed?

Answer 84

the skin is squeezed to get the mites out of the follicles, a blunt scalpel is used

Question 85

how many superficial skin scrapings are needed for scabies?

Answer 85

up to 10

Question 86

should the scalpel blade be sharp or blunt?

Answer 86

blunt

Question 87

what 3 things make skin adhere to slide?

Answer 87

sterile lube, paraffin oil, water/saline

Question 88

how do we minimise tissue deterioration of a biopsy before placing in formalin?

Answer 88

keeping moist with sterile physiological saline