Clinical Pharmacology V (16-21) Flashcards
(156 cards)
1
Q
What is the clinical significance of Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton spp.?
A
2
Q
What is the clinical significance of Malassezia spp.?
A
3
Q
What is the clinical significance of Sporothrix schenckii?
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4
Q
What is the clinical significance of Blastomyces dermatitidis, Histoplasma capsulatum, and Coccidiodes immitis?
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5
Q
What is the clinical significance of cryptococcus neoformans?
A
6
Q
What is the clinical significance of Candida spp?
A
7
Q
What is the clinical significance of Aspergillus fumigatus?
A
8
Q
An antifungal agent is a drug that ____ fungal pathogens from a host with minimal toxicity to the host.
A
selectively eliminates
9
Q
There are far less antifungal agents than antibacterial agents, why?
A
10
Q
List the major antifungal agents.
A
11
Q
The polyene compounds are named because of the _____.
A
12
Q
A number of polyene antifungals have been isolated from various strains of ____.
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13
Q
List the different polyene macrolides that are used in veterinary medicine.
A
14
Q
What is the mode of action of polyene macrolides?
A
15
Q
Describe how the mechanism of action of Amphotericin B is different than other polyene macrolides.
A
16
Q
Describe the fungal resistance of polyene macrolides.
A
17
Q
Describe the general antifungal spectra of polyene macrolides.
A
18
Q
Amphotericin B is effective against ____, ____, ____, and ____.
A
19
Q
____ is mainly used for the treatment of mucocutaneous candidiases, but it is effective against other yeasts and fungi.
A
20
Q
The antimicrobial activity of ____ is similar to that of nystatin, although it is mainly used for the local treatment of ____, ____, and ____.
A
21
Q
What is the therapeutic indication for Amphotericin B?
A
22
Q
What is the therapeutic indication for nystatin?
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23
Q
What is the therapeutic indication for pimaricin?
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24
Q
What are the adverse effects of Amphotericin B?
A
25
____ have antibacterial, antifungal, anti protozoan and anthelmintic activity.
26
Imidazoles in general are considered ____ and ____.
Broad spectrum and safe
27
The anthelmintic ____ is also an imidazole with antifungal properties.
28
List the most clinically important imidazoles that we use in veterinary medicine.
29
Describe the mode of action imidazoles.
30
Describe the fungal resistance related to imidazoles.
31
Describe the antifungal spectra of miconazole.
32
Describe the antifungal spectra of ketoconazole.
33
_____ and ____ are the most active antifungal imidazoles.
34
What is the therapeutic indication for clotrimazole and econazole?
35
Describe the general therapeutic indications for imidazoles.
36
What is the mode of action of flucytosine?
37
How do we store and administer flucytosine?
38
Describe the fungal resistance to flucytosine.
39
Which fungi are sensitive to flucytosine? Which are not?
40
What are the therapeutic indications for flucytosine?
41
Griseofulvin is a ____ that is effective against the common ____.
42
What is the mode of action of griseofulvin?
43
_____ can be made resistant to griseofulvin in vitro.
44
Griseofulvin is active against _____.
45
What are the therapeutic indications for griseofulvin?
46
What are the therapeutic indications for iodine?
47
A number of agents that have antifungal activity are applied topically either on the skin, in the ear or eye, or on mucus membranes (buccal, nasal, vaginal) to control _____.
48
Describe amorolfine as a topical antifungal agent.
49
Describe terbinafine as a topical antifungal agent.
50
What are the different kinds of antiviral drugs we use against herpes virus?
51
What are the different kinds of antiviral drugs we use against retroviruses?
52
What are the different kinds of antiviral drugs we use against influenza virus?
53
The antiviral drugs that we use in veterinary medicine are ____ NOT ____. Most of them work when _____.
54
What kind of virus is a herpes virus? Provide examples.
55
What are the two main drug classes that we use against herpes viruses? List the main drugs that belong to each.
56
What is the MOA of nucleoside analogs?
57
What is the analog, indicated species, and form available for acyclovir?
58
What is the analog, indicated species, and form available for valacyclovir?
59
What is the analog, indicated species, and form available for penciclovir?
60
What is the analog, indicated species, and form available for famciclovir?
61
What is the analog, indicated species, and form available for idoxuridine?
62
What is the analog, indicated species, and form available for trifluridine?
63
What are the uses and indications for purine (nucleoside) analogs?
64
What is the MOA for purine (nucleoside) analogs?
65
Describe the PK/PD for purine (nucleoside) analogs.
66
What are the precautions for purine (nucleoside) analogs?
67
____ improved clinical signs in cats with presumed FHV-1 infections with few adverse effects.
68
_____ treatment significantly decreased viral replication and signs of disease inEHV-1 infected horses. The effects were greatest when treatment was initiated before viral inoculation.
69
What are the uses and indications for pyrimidine (nucleoside) analogs?
70
What is the MOA for pyrimidine (nucleoside) analogs?
71
What are the precautions when using pyrimidine (nucleoside) analogs?
72
____ is contraindicated in cats due to risk of myelosuppression and nephrotoxicity. It is primarily indicated for EHV.
73
____ is contraindicated in cats due to hepatic, renal and bone marrow toxicity. It is primarily indicated for EHM.
74
____ is the drug of choice for FHV-1.
75
What are the different antiviral drugs indicated for ocular herpevirus manifestations?
76
What are retroviruses? Provide examples.
77
List the three main drugs we use to treat retroviruses.
78
Describe the MOA and precautions associated with plerixafor.
79
Describe the MOA and precautions associated with zidovudine.
80
Why do we not use nucleotide synthesis inhibitors to treat retroviruses?
81
Describe the MOA, uses and precautions associated with raltegravir.
82
What are the uses and indications of oseltamivir?
83
What is the MOA of oseltamivir?
84
Describe the PK/PD of oseltamivir.
85
Describe the uses, indications and MOA of interferons.
86
Describe the uses, indications and MOA of amantadine/rimantadine.
87
Describe the uses, indications and MOA of L-lysine.
88
Describe the uses, indications and MOA of remdesivir/GS-4441524.
89
List some of the different ways we try to intervene with the respiratory system from a pharmacology perspective.
90
Describe the importance and guidelines of rest and recovery when it comes to respiratory disease.
91
How can we decrease exposure to allergens and irritants in our small animal patients?
92
How can we decrease exposure to allergens and irritants in our large animal patients?
93
Why are some of the different ways we rehydrate the airways?
94
List some examples of physiotherapy that we perform on the respiratory patient.
95
What are some ways we can prevent respiratory disease?
96
Describe the effect, frequency of administration, cost, and likelihood for complication associated with systemic respiratory treatments.
97
Describe the effect, frequency of administration, cost, and likelihood for complication associated with local inhalant respiratory treatments.
98
What is an inhaler?
99
What is a nebulizer? List the different types.
100
Describe the pathophysiology of bronchoconstriction.
101
What is the indication for a bronchodilator? List the main drug classes of bronchodilators that are used.
102
Regardless of the drug class, all bronchodilators ____.
103
Which of the drug classes of bronchodilators is the most effective? Provide examples that belong to each of the 3 classes.
104
List the different b2-selective agonist bronchodilators. What are the different indications and uses?
105
Describe the MOA and other effects of adrenergic agonist bronchodilators.
106
List the different short acting and long acting beta 2 agonists. Describe them briefly.
107
Describe the pk/pd of beta 2 selective agonist bronchodilators.
108
What are some precautions to using beta 2 selective agonists?
109
Differentiate between the clinical use of terbutaline and albuterol.
110
____ are the gold standard treatment for respiratory crisis as they are rapidly acting and potent.
111
List the different methylxanthines that we use in veterinary medicine.
112
Describe the MOA and other effects of methylxanthines.
113
What are the indications and uses of methylxanthines?
114
Describe the PK/PD of methylxanthines.
115
What precautions are associated with methylxanthines?
116
List some of the different anticholinergic drugs that we use to treat equine asthma.
117
Describe the MOA and possible uses of chromolyn.
118
List the different systemic glucocorticoids we use in our respiratory patients.
119
List the different inhaled glucocorticoids we use in our respiratory patients.
120
What are the uses and indications of glucocorticoids in our respiratory patients?
121
Describe the MOA of glucocorticoids in relation to respiratory disease.
122
Describe the PK/PD of glucocorticoids.
123
What are some precautions to uses glucocorticoids in the respiratory patient?
124
What drugs should be included in your acute management of a dyspnea patient with feline lower airway disease?
125
What drugs should be included in your chronic management of a patient with feline lower airway disease?
126
Describe the indications and uses of phenylephrine.
127
Describe the pharmacology and MOA of phenylephrine.
128
Describe the precautions to using phenylephrine.
129
Before using antitussive drugs, you should ____.
130
In general, antitussive drugs decrease _____.
131
List the different kinds of antitussive drugs we use in veterinary medicine.
132
Describe the efficacy, indications, and uses of hydrocodone in the respiratory patient.
133
Describe the MOA and precautions to using hydrocodone in the respiratory patient.
134
Describe the indications, MOA, and precautions associated with the use of diphenoxylate in the respiratory patient.
135
Describe the efficacy, indications and MOA to using butorphanol in the respiratory patient.
136
Describe the PK/PD and precautions to using butorphanol in the respiratory patient.
137
Describe the indications and MOA of dextromethorphan in the respiratory patient.
138
Describe the indications, MOA, and PK/PD of maropitant.
139
Describe the indications, MOA and precautions to using benzonatate in the respiratory patient.
140
In general, describe the use of antitussives in dogs, cats, horses and food animals.
141
What is the SODAPOP approach to controlling infection and inflammation?
142
What is the SPACED approach to controlling infection and inflammation?
143
Analyze the use of doxycycline for feline URI or CIRDC using the SPACED approach.
144
Analyze the use of amoxicillin for feline URI or CIRDC using the SPACED approach.
145
What is the etiology and clinical prevention of bacterial bronchitis in the dog and cat?
146
How do we diagnose and treat bacterial bronchitis in the dog and cat?
147
Describe the etiology and clinical presentation of bacterial pneumonia in the dog and cat.
148
How do we diagnose and treat bacterial pneumonia in the dog and cat?
149
Analyze the use of fluoroquinolones for SA pneumonia using the SPACED approach.
150
What should be your first line treatment for sinusitis in the horse?
151
What should be your first line treatment for strangles in the horse?
152
What should be your first line treatment for foal pneumonia?
153
What should be your first line treatment for pneumonia in the adult horse?
154
What is the MOA, efficacy and withdrawal times for macrolides?
155
What is the MOA, efficacy and withdrawal times for beta-lactams?
156
What is the MOA, efficacy and withdrawal times for quinolones?
