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MRCP Part 1 > Clinical Sciences > Flashcards

Clinical Sciences Flashcards

1
Q

5 Factors stimulating renin secretion

A

hypotension causing reduced renal perfusion

hyponatraemia

sympathetic nerve stimulation

catecholamines

erect posture

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2
Q

Factors reducing renin secretion

A

drugs: beta-blockers, NSAIDs

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3
Q

Actions of Angiotensin II

A

stimulates thirst(via the hypothalamus)

stimulates aldosterone and ADH release

increases proximal tubule Na+/H+activity

causes vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscle leading to raised blood pressure and vasoconstriction of efferent arteriole of the glomerulus→ increased filtration fraction (FF) to preserve GFR.
Remember that FF = GFR / renal plasma flow

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4
Q

Actions of Aldosterone

A

released by the zona glomerulosa in response to raised angiotensin II, potassium, and ACTH levels

causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in distal tubule

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5
Q

elfin-like facies

characteristic like affect - very friendly and social

learning difficulties

short stature

transient neonatal hypercalcaemia

supravalvular aortic stenosis

Features of

A

William’s syndrome

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6
Q

William’s syndrome is an inherited neurodevelopmental disorder caused by a microdeletion on chromosome ….

A

chromosome 7

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7
Q

Fatty casts associated with

A

Nephrotic syndrome

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8
Q

Waxy casts associated with

A

Advanced chronic kidney disease

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9
Q

Epithelial casts associated

A

Acute tubular necrosis

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10
Q

White blood cell casts associated

A

Acute pyelonephritis
Interstitial nephritis

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11
Q

Red blood cell casts associated with

A

Glomerulonephritis
Renal ischaemia and infarction

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12
Q

Hyaline casts

A

Common and non-specific
May be seen following exercise or dehydration

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13
Q

Formula of Sensitivity

A

TP / (TP + FN )

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14
Q

Specificity formula

A

TN / (TN + FP)

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15
Q

Positive predictive value

A

TP / (TP + FP)

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16
Q

Negative predictive value

A

TN / (TN +FN)

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17
Q

Likelihood ratio for a positive test result

A

sensitivity / (1 - specificity)

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18
Q

Likelihood ratio for a negative test result

A

(1 - sensitivity) / specificity

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19
Q

Which sleep stage is stage be associated with hypnic jerks?

A

Non-REM stage 1 (N1)

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20
Q

In which sleep stage, Dreaming occurs
Loss of muscle tone, erections

A

REM stage

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21
Q

EEG & sleep stages

A

N1 → N2 → N3 → REM

Theta →Sleep spindles/K-complexes →Delta →Beta

TheSleepDoctor’sBrain

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22
Q
  • ghrelin stimulates
A
  • ghrelin stimulates hunger
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23
Q

Noonan syndrome is an autosomal ………..condition associated with ………. karyotype.It is thought to be caused by a defect in a gene on chromosome …..

A

Noonan syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition associated with a normal karyotype.

chromosome 12

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24
Q

characteristic clinical signs may also be seen in Noonan syndrome

A

pulmonary valve stenosis

ptosis

triangular-shaped face

low-set ears

coagulation problems: factor XI deficiency

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25
Q

Causes of metabolic alkalosis

A

Vomiting
diuretics

liquorice,carbenoxolone

hypokalaemia

primary hyperaldosteronism

Cushing’s syndrome

Bartter’s syndrome

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26
Q

Interferon-alpha
1. bind to type …. receptors

  1. produced by ……….
  2. useful in …….
A
  1. bind to type 1 receptors
  2. produced by leucocytes
  3. useful in hepatitis B & C, Kaposi’s sarcoma, metastatic renal cell cancer, hairy cell leukaemia
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27
Q

Interferon-beta

  1. bind to type ………. receptors
  2. produced by ……….
  3. reduces the frequency of ………
A
  1. bind to type 1 receptors
  2. produced by fibroblasts
  3. reduces the frequency of exacerbations in patients with relapsing-remitting MS
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28
Q

Interferon-gamma

  1. binds to type ….. receptors.
  2. Produced by ……
  3. may be useful in ……….
A
  1. binds only to type 2 receptors.
  2. Produced by natural killer cells and T helper cells
  3. may be useful in chronic granulomatous disease and osteopetrosis
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29
Q

Achondroplasia is an autosomal ………..disorder associated with short stature. It is caused by a mutation in ………

A

Achondroplasia is an autosomal dominant disorder associated with short stature. It is caused by a mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR-3) gene.

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30
Q

There are two main causes of ATN

A
  1. ischaemia
  • shock
  • sepsis
  1. nephrotoxins
  • aminoglycosides
  • myoglobin secondary to rhabdomyolysis
  • radiocontrast agents
  • lead
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31
Q

tubular epithelium necrosis: loss of nuclei and detachment of tubular cells from the basement membrane

dilatation of the tubules may occur

necrotic cells obstruct the tubule lumen

Histopathological Features of….

A

ATN

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32
Q

Phases of ATN

A

oliguric phase

polyuric phase

recovery phase

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33
Q

pigmented sclera

urine turns black if left exposed to the air

intervertebral disc calcification may result in back pain

renal stones

Features of……?

A

Alkaptonuria

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34
Q

Treatment of Alkaptonuria

A

high-dose vitamin C

dietary restriction of phenylalanine and tyrosine

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35
Q

Alkaptonuria (ochronosis) is a rare autosomal …… disorder of ……….. metabolism caused by a lack of the enzyme ……….. which results in a build-up of toxic homogentisic acid.

A

Alkaptonuria (ochronosis) is a rare autosomal recessive disorder of phenylalanine and tyrosine metabolism caused by a lack of the enzyme homogentisic dioxygenase (HGD) which results in a build-up of toxic homogentisic acid.

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36
Q

ADH promotes water reabsorption in ………….of the kidneys by theinsertion of ……….

A

promotes water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys by the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.

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37
Q

drugs should be avoided during breastfeeding

A

antibiotics:ciprofloxacin,tetracycline, chloramphenicol,sulphonamides

aspirin

amiodarone

benzodiazepines , lithium

carbimazole

cytotoxic drugs

clozapine

methotrexate

sulfonylureas

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38
Q

Actions of parathyroid hormone

A

increases plasma calcium, decreases plasma phosphate

  1. increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
  2. increases osteoclastic activity*
  3. increases renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
  4. decreases renal phosphate reabsorption
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39
Q

Actions of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

A
  • increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate*
  1. increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium
  2. increases osteoclastic activity
  3. increases renal phosphate reabsorption
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40
Q

osteoclasts don’t have …… receptors

A

PTH receptors

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41
Q

Calcitonin

  1. Secreted by …….
  2. Inhibits ……….
  3. Inhibits………..
A
  1. Secreted by C cells of thyroid
  2. Inhibits osteoclast activity
  3. Inhibits renal tubular absorption of calcium
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42
Q

Factors which increase pulse pressure

A

less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)

increased stroke volume

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43
Q

The cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) =

A

CPP= MAP - ICP

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44
Q

Non-modifiable Risk factors for developing diabetic nephropathy

A
  1. Male sex
  2. Duration of diabetes
  3. Genetic predisposition (e.g. ACE gene polymorphisms
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45
Q

Regulation of growth hormone
Increases secretion by ……

A

sleep (particularly delta sleep)

exercise

Fasting

*SEF

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46
Q

Regulation of growth hormone
Decreases secretion by ……

A

glucose

somatostatin

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47
Q

American College of Rheumatology guidelines recommend a temporal artery biopsy if:

A
  1. Age of onset older than 50 years
  2. New-onset headache or localized head pain
  3. Temporal artery tenderness to palpation or reduced pulsation
  4. ESR > 50 mm/h
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48
Q

Contraindication of temporal artery biopsy

A

Glucocorticoid therapy > 30 days

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49
Q

Vitamin K acts as a cofactor in the carboxylation of clotting factors ……

A

II, VII, IX, X

  • 1972
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50
Q

failure to thrive

normal serum calcium, low phosphate, elevated alkaline phosphotase

x-ray changes: cupped metaphyses with widening of the epiphyses

Features of….

A

Vitamin D-resistant rickets

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51
Q

Vitamin D-resistant rickets, Diagnosis is made by

A

increased urinary phosphate

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52
Q

Management of Vitamin D-resistant rickets

A

high-dose vitamin D supplements

oral phosphate supplements

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53
Q

Vitamin D-resistant rickets is inherited in

A

X-linked dominant

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54
Q

Features vitamin C deficiency

A

gingivitis, loose teeth

poor wound healing

bleeding from gums, haematuria, epistaxis

general malaise

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55
Q

Consequences of vitamin B6 deficiency

A

peripheral neuropathy

sideroblastic anemia

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56
Q

Consequences of niacin deficiency:

A

pellagra: dermatitis, diarrhoea, dementia

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57
Q

Consequences of ( B2) riboflavin deficiency:

A

angular cheilitis

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58
Q

Conditions associated with thiamine deficiency

A
  1. Wernicke’s encephalopathy:nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia and ataxia
  2. Korsakoff’s syndrome:amnesia, confabulation
  3. dry beriberi: peripheral neuropathy
  4. wet beriberi: dilated cardiomyopathy
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59
Q

What is a measure of the spread of scores away from the mean.

A

Variance

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60
Q

Variance = ……?

A

Variance = square of standard deviation

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61
Q

3 Indications for surgery in secondary (renal) hyperparathyroidism:

A

Soft tissue calcifications

Bone pain

Persistent pruritus

*SPP = 2ry hyperparathyroidism
2ry : Soft tissue calcifications
Hy(p)er(p)arathyroidism P2: pain & pruritus

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62
Q

8 Primary hyperparathyroidism
Indications for surgery

A
  1. Creatinine clearance < 30% compared with normal
  2. Hypercalciuria > 400mg/day
  3. Elevated serum Calcium > 1mg/dL above normal
  4. Episode of life threatening hypercalcaemia
  5. Neuromuscular symptoms
  6. Age < 50 years
  7. Osteoporosis
  8. Nephrolithiasis
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63
Q

Homocystinuria is a rare autosomal …………. disease caused by adeficiency of …………………

A

Homocystinuria is a rare autosomal recessive disease caused by adeficiency of cystathionine beta synthase.

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64
Q

Investigations of Homocystinuria

A

increased homocysteine levels in serum and urine

cyanide-nitroprusside test: also positive in cystinuria

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65
Q

Treatment of Homocystinuria

A

Treatment is vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)supplements.

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66
Q

ocular features of Homocystinuria

A

downwards (inferonasal) dislocation of lens

severe myopia

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67
Q

learning difficulties

large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate

macroorchidism

hypotonia

autism is more common

mitral valve prolapse

Features of…….

A

Fragile X syndrome, Features in males

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68
Q

Diagnosis of Fragile X syndrome

A

can be made antenatally by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis

analysis of the number of CGG repeats using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis

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69
Q

Drugs which interfere with folate metabolism

A

trimethoprim

methotrexate

pyrimethamine

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70
Q

Drugs which can reduce folate absorption

A

phenytoin

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71
Q

Fabry disease is inherited in…….1….

& deficiency of ……2……

A

1.X-linked recessive

  1. alpha-galactosidase A
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72
Q

burning pain/paraesthesia in childhood

angiokeratomas

lens opacities

proteinuria

early cardiovascular disease

Features of…..?

A

Fabry disease

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73
Q

the kidney receives up to …?……% of resting cardiac output

A

up to 25% of resting cardiac output

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74
Q

The thin ascending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to …..

A

water

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75
Q

Phases of Cardiac action potential

A

0 : Rapid Na influx
1: K efflux
2: slow Ca influx
3: K efflux
4: Resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase

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76
Q

DiGeorge syndrome is a primary immunodeficiency disorder caused by……

deletion of a section of chromosome ……..

A

T-cell deficiency and dysfunction

chromosome 22

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77
Q

Features of DiGeorge syndrome

A

mnemonic CATCH22:

C -Cardiac abnormalities

A - Abnormal facies

T - Thymic aplasia

C -Cleft palate

H -Hypocalcaemia/ hypoparathyroidism

22 - Caused by chromosome 22 deletion

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78
Q

What is the commonest cause of Down’s syndrome

A

Nondisjunction. 94% of cases

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79
Q

Cardiac complications of Down’s syndrome

A
  1. VSD
  2. Secundum ASD
  3. tetralogy of Fallot
  4. isolated PDA
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80
Q

8 Later complications of Down’s syndrome

A
  1. subfertility
  2. learning difficulties
  3. short stature
  4. repeated respiratory infections(+hearing impairment from glue ear)
  5. acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

6.hypothyroidism
7. Alzheimer’s disease
8. atlantoaxial instability

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81
Q

Hirschprung’s disease is associated with

A

Down syndrome

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82
Q

Effects of nitric oxide

A

acts on guanylate cyclase leading to raised intracellular cGMP levels and therefore decreasing Ca2+ levels

vasodilation, mainly venodilation

inhibits platelet aggregation

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83
Q

What is the most common renal abnormality in Turner’s syndrome

A

horseshoe kidney

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84
Q

In Turner’s syndrome, There is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease especially ………..

A

autoimmune thyroiditis and Crohn’s disease

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85
Q

Turner’s syndrome is denoted as…….

A

45,XO or 45,X.

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86
Q

Microtubules are found in all cells except ……

A

red blood cells.

87
Q

Microtubules helpguide movement during

A

intracellular transport and also help bind internal organelles

88
Q

dynein moves in

A

retrograde fashion, down the microtubule towards the centre of the cell (+ve → -ve)

89
Q

kinesin moves in

A

anterograde fashion, up the microtubule away from the centre, towards the periphery (-ve → +ve)

90
Q

The haploid human genome has a total of …..1….. DNA base pairs

Making up to …..2…… protein coding genes

A
  1. 3 billion DNA base pairs
  2. 25,000 protein coding genes
91
Q

p53 is a ……………. gene located on chromosome ………., It is the most commonly mutated gene in …………….. cancer

A

p53 is a tumour suppressor gene located on chromosome 17p. It is the most commonly mutated gene in breast, colon and lung cancer

92
Q

p53 preventing entry into ….

A

the S phase until DNA has been checked and repaired

93
Q

Li-Fraumeni syndromeis a rare autosomal ……. disorder characterised by the early onset of a variety of cancers such as…………….

It is caused by mutation in the ……..

A

autosomal dominant disorder characterised by the early onset of a variety of cancers such as sarcoma, breast cancer and leukaemias.

It is caused by mutation in the p53 gene.

94
Q

Main functions of Nucleus

A

DNA maintenance
RNA transcription
RNA splicing

95
Q

Main function of Nucleolus

A

Ribosome production

96
Q

Main function of Peroxisome

A

Catabolism of very long chain fatty acidsand amino acids
Results in the formation of hydrogen peroxide

97
Q

Main function of Proteasome

A

Along with the lysosome pathway involved in degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin

98
Q

Main function of Ribosome

A

Translation of RNA into proteins

99
Q

CD…., Receptor for Epstein-Barr virus

A

CD 21

100
Q

CD…..,
Found on cytotoxic T cells.
Co-receptor for MHC class I
Found on a subset of myeloid dendritic cells

A

CD8

101
Q

CD….., Expressed on Reed-Sternberg cells (along with CD30)

A

CD15

102
Q

CD…., Found on helper T cells.
Co-receptor for MHC class II
Used by HIV to enter T cells

A

CD4

103
Q

CD…, Cell surface marker for macrophages

A

CD14

104
Q

C1 inhibitor (C1-INH) protein deficiency

  • Can Cause
  • probable mechanism is
A
  • hereditary angioedema
  • mechanism is uncontrolled release of bradykinin resulting in oedema of tissues
105
Q

C3 deficiency causes

A

recurrent bacterial infections

106
Q

C5-9 deficiency predisposes to…………..infections

A

Neisseria meningitidis infections

107
Q

C5 deficiency predisposes to …..

A

Leiner disease

108
Q

Defect in type I collagen associated with

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

109
Q

Defect in type III collagen associated with

A

Vascular variant of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

110
Q

Defect in type IV collagen associated with

A

Alport syndrome,

Goodpasture’s syndrome

111
Q

Defect in type V collagen associated with

A

Classical variant of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

112
Q

Raised levels of Endothelin in

A

primary pulmonary hypertension

MI

HF

AKI

asthma

113
Q

Promotes release of Endothelin

A

angiotensin II

ADH

hypoxia

mechanical shearing forces

114
Q

Inhibits release of Endothelin

A

nitric oxide

prostacyclin

115
Q

APC is a tumour suppressor gene commonly associated with

A

colorectal carcinomas

116
Q

BRCA1 &BRCA2 associated with

A

Breast Cancer ( in male & female )
ovarian cancer
prostate cancer

117
Q

NF1 associated with

A

Neurofibromatosis

118
Q

Rb is associated with

A

Retinoblastoma

119
Q

WT1 associated with

A

Wilm’s tumour

120
Q

Multiple tumor suppressor 1 (MTS-1, p16) associated with

A

Melanoma

121
Q

Which oncovirus can cause
Burkitt’s lymphoma
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Post transplant lymphoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

Epstein-Barr virus

122
Q

Which oncovirus can cause

Cervical cancer
Anal cancer
Penile cancer
Vulval cancer
Oropharyngeal cancer

A

Human papillomavirus 16/18

123
Q

Which oncovirus can cause

Tropical spastic paraparesis
Adult T cell leukaemia

A

Human T-lymphotropic virus

124
Q

Which oncovirus can cause Kaposi’s sarcoma

A

Human herpes virus 8

125
Q

Type ……. pneumocytes secrete surfactant

A

Type 2

126
Q

the total number of cases per population at a particular point in time

A

prevalence

127
Q

the number of new cases per population in a given time period.

A

incidence

128
Q

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an autosomal ……… condition caused by a disorder of ………… metabolism.

due to defect in ……….., an enzyme which converts ……. to ……

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an autosomal recessive condition caused by a disorder of phenylalanine metabolism.

due to defect in phenylalanine hydroxylase, an enzyme which converts phenylalanine to tyrosine.

129
Q

usually presents by 6 months e.g. with developmental delay

child classically has fair hair and blue eyes

learning difficulties

seizures, typically infantile spasms

eczema

‘musty’ odour to urine and sweat*

Features of…?

A

Phenylketonuria

130
Q

precocious puberty

cafe-au-lait spots

polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

short stature

Features of….?

A

McCune-Albright syndrome

131
Q

Microcephalic, small eyes
Cleft lip/palate
Polydactyly
Scalp lesions

Features of…..?

A

Patau syndrome(trisomy 13)

132
Q

Micrognathia
Low-set ears
Rocker bottom feet
Overlappingof fingers

Features of…?

A

Edward’s syndrome(trisomy 18)

133
Q

Micrognathia
Posterior displacement of the tongue (may result in upper airway obstruction)
Cleft palate

Features of …?

A

Pierre-Robin syndrome

134
Q

The majority of tumours are supratentorial in …..1…., where as the majority of tumours are infratentorial in ……2….

A
  1. Adult
  2. Childhood
135
Q

Tumours that most commonly spread to the brain

A

lung (most common)

breast

bowel

skin (namely melanoma)

kidney

136
Q

What is themost common primary brain tumour in adults and is associated with a poor prognosis

A

Glioblastoma

137
Q

What is The second most common primary brain tumour in adults

A

Meningioma

138
Q

Meningiomas arise from …….

A

arise from the arachnoid cap cells of the meninges and are typically located next to the dura

139
Q

Neurofibromatosis type 2 is associated with….
Which brain tumor ?

A

bilateral vestibular schwannomas.

140
Q

Haemangioblastoma Associated with

A

von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

141
Q

What is the most common congenital infection in the UK?

A

Cytomegalovirus

142
Q

Cerebral calcification
Chorioretinitis
Hydrocephalus
Anaemia
Hepatosplenomegaly
Cerebral palsy

Which congenial infection?

A

Toxoplasmosis

143
Q

Low birth weight
Purpuric skin lesions
Sensorineural deafness
Microcephaly
Visual impairment
Learning disability
Encephalitis/seizures
Pneumonitis
Hepatosplenomegaly
Anaemia
Jaundice
Cerebral palsy

Which congenial infection?

A

CMV

144
Q

Sensorineural deafness
Congenital cataracts
Congenital heart disease (e.g. PDA)
Glaucoma

Growth retardation
Hepatosplenomegaly
Purpuric skin lesions
‘Salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis
Microphthalmia
Cerebral palsy

Which congenial infection?

A

Rubella

145
Q

Examples of Type I - Anaphylactic

& mechanism

A
  • Anaphylaxis
  • Atopy (e.g.asthma, eczema and hayfever)

Mechanism: Antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells

146
Q

quality improvement process that seeks to improve patient care and outcomes through systematic review of care against explicit criteria and the implementation of change’.

A

Clinical audit

147
Q

ABL associated with

A

CML

148
Q

c-MYC associated with

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

149
Q

n-MYC associated with

A

Neuroblastoma

150
Q

BCL-2 associated with

A

Follicular lymphoma

151
Q

RET associated with

A

Multiple endocrine neoplasia (types II and III)

152
Q

RAS associated with

A

Many cancers especially pancreatic

153
Q

erb-B2 (HER2/neu) associated with

A

Breast and ovarian cancer

154
Q

Tumor suppressor genes - ………. of function results in an increased risk of cancer

A

loss

155
Q

Oncogenes - ………. of function results in an increased risk of cancer

A

Gain

156
Q

the extent to which a genotype shows its phenotypic expression in an individual. (( severity))

A

Expressivity

157
Q

……describes ‘how likely’ it is that a condition will develop

A

Penetrance

158
Q

IgA is the predominant immunoglobulin found in

A
  1. breast milk
  2. secretions of digestive, respiratory and urogenital tracts and systems
159
Q

Enhance phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses
•Fixes complement and passes to the fetal circulation
•Most abundant isotype in blood serum

Which immunoglobulin?

A

IgG

160
Q

What is the First immunoglobulins to be secreted in response to an infection?

A

IgM

161
Q

Which immunoglobulin is Involved in activation of B cells?

A

IgD

162
Q

Which immunoglobulin is Least abundant isotype in blood serum?

A

IgE

163
Q

IgE Synthesised by …..

A

plasma cells

164
Q

IgE Provides immunity to

A

parasites such as helminths

165
Q

Primary phagocytic cell in acute inflammation

Granules contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme

A

Neutrophil

166
Q

Involved in the cell-mediated immune response
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class I molecules

A

Cytotoxic T cells

167
Q

Involved in the cell-mediated immune response
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules

A

Helper T cells

168
Q

Which cell Mediates hyperacute organ rejection

A

B cells

169
Q

Examples of Type II - hypersensitivity

A
  1. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
  2. Acute hemolytic reaction
  3. Pernicious anemia
  4. ITP
  5. Goodpasture’s syndrome
  6. Rheumatic fever
  7. Pemphigus vulgaris /bullous pemphigoid
170
Q

Examples of Type III - Immune complex

A
  1. Serum sickness
  2. SLE
  3. Post streptococcal GN
  4. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (especially acute phase)
171
Q

Examples of Type IV - Delayed hypersensitivity

A

Tuberculosis/tuberculin skin reaction
•Graft versus host disease
•Allergic contact dermatitis
•Scabies
• Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (especially chronic phase)
•Multiple sclerosis
•Guillain-Barre syndrome

172
Q

Examples of Type V hypersensitivity

A

Graves’ disease

Myasthenia gravis

173
Q

Interleukin 1 (IL-1) is secreted mainly by …….. and acts as a costimulator of ……….

A

secreted mainly by macrophages and monocytes and

acts as a costimulator of T cell and B cell proliferation.

174
Q

anakinra is

A

IL-1 receptor antagonist

175
Q

Main function of IL1

A

Acute inflammation
Induces fever

176
Q

Main function of IL 2

A

Stimulates growth and differentiation of T cell response

177
Q

Main function of IL 3

A

Stimulates differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells

178
Q

Main function of IL 4

A

Stimulates proliferation and differentiation of B cells

179
Q

Main function of IL 5

A

Stimulate production of eosinophils

180
Q

Main function of IL 6

A

Stimulates differentiation of B cells
Induces fever

181
Q

Main function of IL 8

A

Neutrophil chemotaxis

182
Q

Main function of IL 10

A

Inhibits Th1 cytokine production
Also known as human cytokine synthesis inhibitory factor and is an ‘anti-inflammatory’ cytokine

183
Q

Main function of IL 12

A

Activates NK cells and stimulates differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells

184
Q

Main function of Interferon-γ

A

Activates macrophages

185
Q

Main function of Tumour necrosis factor-α

A

Induces fever
Neutrophil chemotaxis

186
Q

Cribriform plate is pathway of which cranial nerves

A

I (Olfactory)

187
Q

Optic canal is pathway of which cranial nerves

A

II optic

188
Q

Superior orbital fissure (SOF ) is pathway of which cranial nerves

A

III, IV , V, VI

189
Q

Internal auditory meats is pathway of which cranial nerves

A

VII, VIII

190
Q

Jugular foramen is pathway of which cranial nerves

A

IX
X
XI

191
Q

Hypoglossal canal is pathway of which cranial nerves

A

XII

192
Q
  1. Southern blotting Detects ……..
  2. Northern blotting Detects ……….
  3. Western blotting Detects ……….
A
  1. DNA
  2. RNA
  3. Proteins

SNOW (South -NOrth -West)

DROP (DNA -RNA -Protein)

193
Q

types of skeletal muscle fibres

By Contraction time

A

Type 1 : slow
Type 2: fast

194
Q

types of skeletal muscle fibres

By colour

A

Type 1: Red (due to presence of myoglobin)
Tpye 2: White (due to absence of myoglobin)

195
Q

types of skeletal muscle fibres

By main use

A

Type 1: sustained force
Tpye 2: sudden movement

196
Q

types of skeletal muscle fibres

By major fuel

A

Type 1: triglycerides
Tpye 2: ATP

197
Q

types of skeletal muscle fibres

By mitochondrial density

A

Type 1: high
Tpye 2: low

198
Q

In Case-control study, The usual outcome measure is …..

A

the odds ratio

199
Q

Cohort study, The usual outcome measure is …..

A

the relative risk

200
Q

The average of a series of observed values

A

Mean

201
Q

The middle value if series of observed values are placed in order

A

Median

202
Q

The value that occurs most frequently within a dataset

A

Mode

203
Q

The difference between the largest and smallest observed value

A

Range

204
Q

Normal (Gaussian) distributions:

A

mean = median = mode

205
Q

Positively skewed distribution

A

mean > median > mode

206
Q

Negatively skewed distribution

A

mean < median < mode

207
Q

used in statistics to imply consistency of a measure

A

Reliability

208
Q

determined by whether a test accurately measures what it is supposed to measure.

A

Validity

209
Q

Regression is not used unless two variables have firstly been shown to ….

A

correlate

210
Q

predict how much one variable changes when a second variable is changed.

A

linear regression

211
Q

variable which correlates with other variables within a study leading to spurious results.

A

confounding

212
Q

similar to relative risk but is used when risk is not constant to time.

It is typically used whenanalysing survival over time.

A

hazard ratio (HR)

213
Q

used to demonstrate the existence ofpublication bias in meta-analyses.

A

funnel plot

MRCP Part 1 (15 decks)

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