Clinical Sciences Flashcards
(223 cards)
1
Q
5 Factors stimulating renin secretion
A
hypotension causing reduced renal perfusion
hyponatraemia
sympathetic nerve stimulation
catecholamines
erect posture
2
Q
Factors reducing renin secretion
A
drugs: beta-blockers, NSAIDs
3
Q
Actions of Angiotensin II
A
stimulates thirst(via the hypothalamus)
stimulates aldosterone and ADH release
increases proximal tubule Na+/H+activity
causes vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscle leading to raised blood pressure and vasoconstriction of efferent arteriole of the glomerulus→ increased filtration fraction (FF) to preserve GFR.
Remember that FF = GFR / renal plasma flow
4
Q
Actions of Aldosterone
A
released by the zona glomerulosa in response to raised angiotensin II, potassium, and ACTH levels
causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in distal tubule
5
Q
elfin-like facies
characteristic like affect - very friendly and social
learning difficulties
short stature
transient neonatal hypercalcaemia
supravalvular aortic stenosis
Features of
A
William’s syndrome
6
Q
William’s syndrome is an inherited neurodevelopmental disorder caused by a microdeletion on chromosome ….
A
chromosome 7
7
Q
Fatty casts associated with
A
Nephrotic syndrome
8
Q
Waxy casts associated with
A
Advanced chronic kidney disease
9
Q
Epithelial casts associated
A
Acute tubular necrosis
10
Q
White blood cell casts associated
A
Acute pyelonephritis
Interstitial nephritis
11
Q
Red blood cell casts associated with
A
Glomerulonephritis
Renal ischaemia and infarction
12
Q
Hyaline casts
A
Common and non-specific
May be seen following exercise or dehydration
13
Q
Formula of Sensitivity
A
TP / (TP + FN )
14
Q
Specificity formula
A
TN / (TN + FP)
15
Q
Positive predictive value
A
TP / (TP + FP)
16
Q
Negative predictive value
A
TN / (TN +FN)
17
Q
Likelihood ratio for a positive test result
A
sensitivity / (1 - specificity)
18
Q
Likelihood ratio for a negative test result
A
(1 - sensitivity) / specificity
19
Q
Which sleep stage is stage be associated with hypnic jerks?
A
Non-REM stage 1 (N1)
20
Q
In which sleep stage, Dreaming occurs
Loss of muscle tone, erections
A
REM stage
21
Q
EEG & sleep stages
A
N1 → N2 → N3 → REM
Theta →Sleep spindles/K-complexes →Delta →Beta
TheSleepDoctor’sBrain
22
Q
- ghrelin stimulates
A
- ghrelin stimulates hunger
23
Q
Noonan syndrome is an autosomal ………..condition associated with ………. karyotype.It is thought to be caused by a defect in a gene on chromosome …..
A
Noonan syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition associated with a normal karyotype.
chromosome 12
24
Q
characteristic clinical signs may also be seen in Noonan syndrome
A
pulmonary valve stenosis
ptosis
triangular-shaped face
low-set ears
coagulation problems: factor XI deficiency
25
Causes of metabolic alkalosis
Vomiting
diuretics
liquorice, carbenoxolone
hypokalaemia
primary hyperaldosteronism
Cushing's syndrome
Bartter's syndrome
26
Interferon-alpha
1. bind to type .... receptors
2. produced by ..........
3. useful in .......
1. bind to type 1 receptors
2. produced by leucocytes
3. useful in hepatitis B & C, Kaposi's sarcoma, metastatic renal cell cancer, hairy cell leukaemia
27
Interferon-beta
1. bind to type .......... receptors
2. produced by ..........
3. reduces the frequency of .........
1. bind to type 1 receptors
2. produced by fibroblasts
3. reduces the frequency of exacerbations in patients with relapsing-remitting MS
28
Interferon-gamma
1. binds to type ..... receptors.
2. Produced by ......
3. may be useful in ..........
1. binds only to type 2 receptors.
2. Produced by natural killer cells and T helper cells
3. may be useful in chronic granulomatous disease and osteopetrosis
29
Achondroplasia is an autosomal ........... disorder associated with short stature. It is caused by a mutation in .........
Achondroplasia is an autosomal dominant disorder associated with short stature. It is caused by a mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR-3) gene.
30
There are two main causes of ATN
1. ischaemia
- shock
- sepsis
2. nephrotoxins
- aminoglycosides
- myoglobin secondary to rhabdomyolysis
- radiocontrast agents
- lead
31
tubular epithelium necrosis: loss of nuclei and detachment of tubular cells from the basement membrane
dilatation of the tubules may occur
necrotic cells obstruct the tubule lumen
Histopathological Features of....
ATN
32
Phases of ATN
oliguric phase
polyuric phase
recovery phase
33
pigmented sclera
urine turns black if left exposed to the air
intervertebral disc calcification may result in back pain
renal stones
Features of......?
Alkaptonuria
34
Treatment of Alkaptonuria
high-dose vitamin C
dietary restriction of phenylalanine and tyrosine
35
Alkaptonuria (ochronosis) is a rare autosomal ...... disorder of ........... metabolism caused by a lack of the enzyme ........... which results in a build-up of toxic homogentisic acid.
Alkaptonuria (ochronosis) is a rare autosomal recessive disorder of phenylalanine and tyrosine metabolism caused by a lack of the enzyme homogentisic dioxygenase (HGD) which results in a build-up of toxic homogentisic acid.
36
ADH promotes water reabsorption in ............. of the kidneys by the insertion of ..........
promotes water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys by the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.
37
drugs should be avoided during breastfeeding
antibiotics: ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides
aspirin
amiodarone
benzodiazepines , lithium
carbimazole
cytotoxic drugs
clozapine
methotrexate
sulfonylureas
38
Actions of parathyroid hormone
*increases plasma calcium, decreases plasma phosphate*
1. increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
2. increases osteoclastic activity*
3. increases renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
4. decreases renal phosphate reabsorption
39
Actions of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
* increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate*
1. increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium
2. increases osteoclastic activity
3. increases renal phosphate reabsorption
40
osteoclasts don't have ...... receptors
PTH receptors
41
Calcitonin
1. Secreted by .......
2. Inhibits ..........
3. Inhibits...........
1. Secreted by C cells of thyroid
2. Inhibits osteoclast activity
3. Inhibits renal tubular absorption of calcium
42
Factors which increase pulse pressure
less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
increased stroke volume
43
The cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) =
CPP= MAP - ICP
44
Non-modifiable Risk factors for developing diabetic nephropathy
1. Male sex
2. Duration of diabetes
3. Genetic predisposition (e.g. ACE gene polymorphisms
45
Regulation of growth hormone
Increases secretion by ......
sleep (particularly delta sleep)
exercise
Fasting
*SEF
46
Regulation of growth hormone
Decreases secretion by ......
glucose
somatostatin
47
American College of Rheumatology guidelines recommend a temporal artery biopsy if:
1. Age of onset older than 50 years
2. New-onset headache or localized head pain
3. Temporal artery tenderness to palpation or reduced pulsation
4. ESR > 50 mm/h
48
Contraindication of temporal artery biopsy
Glucocorticoid therapy > 30 days
49
Vitamin K acts as a cofactor in the carboxylation of clotting factors ......
II, VII, IX, X
* 1972
50
failure to thrive
normal serum calcium, low phosphate, elevated alkaline phosphotase
x-ray changes: cupped metaphyses with widening of the epiphyses
Features of....
Vitamin D-resistant rickets
51
Vitamin D-resistant rickets, Diagnosis is made by
increased urinary phosphate
52
Management of Vitamin D-resistant rickets
high-dose vitamin D supplements
oral phosphate supplements
53
Vitamin D-resistant rickets is inherited in
X-linked dominant
54
Features vitamin C deficiency
gingivitis, loose teeth
poor wound healing
bleeding from gums, haematuria, epistaxis
general malaise
55
Consequences of vitamin B6 deficiency
peripheral neuropathy
sideroblastic anemia
56
Consequences of niacin deficiency:
pellagra: dermatitis, diarrhoea, dementia
57
Consequences of ( B2) riboflavin deficiency:
angular cheilitis
58
Conditions associated with thiamine deficiency
1. Wernicke's encephalopathy: nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia and ataxia
2. Korsakoff's syndrome: amnesia, confabulation
3. dry beriberi: peripheral neuropathy
4. wet beriberi: dilated cardiomyopathy
59
What is a measure of the spread of scores away from the mean.
Variance
60
Variance = ......?
Variance = square of standard deviation
61
3 Indications for surgery in secondary (renal) hyperparathyroidism:
Soft tissue calcifications
Bone pain
Persistent pruritus
*SPP = 2ry hyperparathyroidism
2ry : Soft tissue calcifications
Hy(p)er(p)arathyroidism P2: pain & pruritus
62
8 Primary hyperparathyroidism
Indications for surgery
1. Creatinine clearance < 30% compared with normal
2. Hypercalciuria > 400mg/day
3. Elevated serum Calcium > 1mg/dL above normal
4. Episode of life threatening hypercalcaemia
5. Neuromuscular symptoms
6. Age < 50 years
7. Osteoporosis
8. Nephrolithiasis
63
Homocystinuria is a rare autosomal ............. disease caused by a deficiency of .....................
Homocystinuria is a rare autosomal recessive disease caused by a deficiency of cystathionine beta synthase.
64
Investigations of Homocystinuria
increased homocysteine levels in serum and urine
cyanide-nitroprusside test: also positive in cystinuria
65
Treatment of Homocystinuria
Treatment is vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) supplements.
66
ocular features of Homocystinuria
downwards (inferonasal) dislocation of lens
severe myopia
67
learning difficulties
large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate
macroorchidism
hypotonia
autism is more common
mitral valve prolapse
Features of.......
Fragile X syndrome, Features in males
68
Diagnosis of Fragile X syndrome
can be made antenatally by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis
analysis of the number of CGG repeats using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis
69
Drugs which interfere with folate metabolism
trimethoprim
methotrexate
pyrimethamine
70
Drugs which can reduce folate absorption
phenytoin
71
Fabry disease is inherited in.......1....
& deficiency of ......2......
1.X-linked recessive
2. alpha-galactosidase A
72
burning pain/paraesthesia in childhood
angiokeratomas
lens opacities
proteinuria
early cardiovascular disease
Features of.....?
Fabry disease
73
the kidney receives up to ...?......% of resting cardiac output
up to 25% of resting cardiac output
74
The thin ascending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to .....
water
75
Phases of Cardiac action potential
0 : Rapid Na influx
1: K efflux
2: slow Ca influx
3: K efflux
4: Resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ ATPase
76
DiGeorge syndrome is a primary immunodeficiency disorder caused by ......
deletion of a section of chromosome ........
T-cell deficiency and dysfunction
chromosome 22
77
Features of DiGeorge syndrome
mnemonic CATCH22:
C - Cardiac abnormalities
A - Abnormal facies
T - Thymic aplasia
C - Cleft palate
H - Hypocalcaemia/ hypoparathyroidism
22 - Caused by chromosome 22 deletion
78
What is the commonest cause of Down's syndrome
Nondisjunction. 94% of cases
79
Cardiac complications of Down's syndrome
1. VSD
2. Secundum ASD
3. tetralogy of Fallot
4. isolated PDA
80
8 Later complications of Down's syndrome
1. subfertility
2. learning difficulties
3. short stature
4. repeated respiratory infections (+hearing impairment from glue ear)
5. acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
6.hypothyroidism
7. Alzheimer's disease
8. atlantoaxial instability
81
Hirschprung's disease is associated with
Down syndrome
82
Effects of nitric oxide
acts on guanylate cyclase leading to raised intracellular cGMP levels and therefore decreasing Ca2+ levels
vasodilation, mainly venodilation
inhibits platelet aggregation
83
What is the most common renal abnormality in Turner's syndrome
horseshoe kidney
84
In Turner's syndrome, There is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease especially ...........
autoimmune thyroiditis and Crohn's disease
85
Turner's syndrome is denoted as .......
45,XO or 45,X.
86
Microtubules are found in all cells except ......
red blood cells.
87
Microtubules help guide movement during
intracellular transport and also help bind internal organelles
88
dynein moves in
retrograde fashion, down the microtubule towards the centre of the cell (+ve → -ve)
89
kinesin moves in
anterograde fashion, up the microtubule away from the centre, towards the periphery (-ve → +ve)
90
The haploid human genome has a total of .....1..... DNA base pairs
Making up to .....2...... protein coding genes
1. 3 billion DNA base pairs
2. 25,000 protein coding genes
91
p53 is a ................ gene located on chromosome .........., It is the most commonly mutated gene in ................. cancer
p53 is a tumour suppressor gene located on chromosome 17p. It is the most commonly mutated gene in breast, colon and lung cancer
92
p53 preventing entry into ....
the S phase until DNA has been checked and repaired
93
Li-Fraumeni syndrome is a rare autosomal ....... disorder characterised by the early onset of a variety of cancers such as ................
It is caused by mutation in the ........
autosomal dominant disorder characterised by the early onset of a variety of cancers such as sarcoma, breast cancer and leukaemias.
It is caused by mutation in the p53 gene.
94
Main functions of Nucleus
DNA maintenance
RNA transcription
RNA splicing
95
Main function of Nucleolus
Ribosome production
96
Main function of Peroxisome
Catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids
Results in the formation of hydrogen peroxide
97
Main function of Proteasome
Along with the lysosome pathway involved in degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin
98
Main function of Ribosome
Translation of RNA into proteins
99
CD...., Receptor for Epstein-Barr virus
CD 21
100
CD.....,
Found on cytotoxic T cells.
Co-receptor for MHC class I
Found on a subset of myeloid dendritic cells
CD8
101
CD....., Expressed on Reed-Sternberg cells (along with CD30)
CD15
102
CD...., Found on helper T cells.
Co-receptor for MHC class II
Used by HIV to enter T cells
CD4
103
CD..., Cell surface marker for macrophages
CD14
104
C1 inhibitor (C1-INH) protein deficiency
- Can Cause
- probable mechanism is
- hereditary angioedema
- mechanism is uncontrolled release of bradykinin resulting in oedema of tissues
105
C3 deficiency causes
recurrent bacterial infections
106
C5-9 deficiency predisposes to .............. infections
Neisseria meningitidis infections
107
C5 deficiency predisposes to .....
Leiner disease
108
Defect in type I collagen associated with
Osteogenesis imperfecta
109
Defect in type III collagen associated with
Vascular variant of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
110
Defect in type IV collagen associated with
Alport syndrome,
Goodpasture's syndrome
111
Defect in type V collagen associated with
Classical variant of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
112
Raised levels of Endothelin in
primary pulmonary hypertension
MI
HF
AKI
asthma
113
Promotes release of Endothelin
angiotensin II
ADH
hypoxia
mechanical shearing forces
114
Inhibits release of Endothelin
nitric oxide
prostacyclin
115
APC is a tumour suppressor gene commonly associated with
colorectal carcinomas
116
BRCA1 & BRCA2 associated with
Breast Cancer ( in male & female )
ovarian cancer
prostate cancer
117
NF1 associated with
Neurofibromatosis
118
Rb is associated with
Retinoblastoma
119
WT1 associated with
Wilm's tumour
120
Multiple tumor suppressor 1 (MTS-1, p16) associated with
Melanoma
121
Which oncovirus can cause
Burkitt's lymphoma
Hodgkin's lymphoma
Post transplant lymphoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Epstein-Barr virus
122
Which oncovirus can cause
Cervical cancer
Anal cancer
Penile cancer
Vulval cancer
Oropharyngeal cancer
Human papillomavirus 16/18
123
Which oncovirus can cause
Tropical spastic paraparesis
Adult T cell leukaemia
Human T-lymphotropic virus
124
Which oncovirus can cause Kaposi's sarcoma
Human herpes virus 8
125
Type ....... pneumocytes secrete surfactant
Type 2
126
the total number of cases per population at a particular point in time
prevalence
127
the number of new cases per population in a given time period.
incidence
128
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an autosomal ......... condition caused by a disorder of ............ metabolism.
due to defect in ..........., an enzyme which converts ....... to ......
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an autosomal recessive condition caused by a disorder of phenylalanine metabolism.
due to defect in phenylalanine hydroxylase, an enzyme which converts phenylalanine to tyrosine.
129
usually presents by 6 months e.g. with developmental delay
child classically has fair hair and blue eyes
learning difficulties
seizures, typically infantile spasms
eczema
'musty' odour to urine and sweat*
Features of...?
Phenylketonuria
130
precocious puberty
cafe-au-lait spots
polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
short stature
Features of....?
McCune-Albright syndrome
131
Microcephalic, small eyes
Cleft lip/palate
Polydactyly
Scalp lesions
Features of.....?
Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)
132
Micrognathia
Low-set ears
Rocker bottom feet
Overlapping of fingers
Features of...?
Edward's syndrome (trisomy 18)
133
Micrognathia
Posterior displacement of the tongue (may result in upper airway obstruction)
Cleft palate
Features of ...?
Pierre-Robin syndrome
134
The majority of tumours are supratentorial in .....1...., where as the majority of tumours are infratentorial in ......2....
1. Adult
2. Childhood
135
Tumours that most commonly spread to the brain
lung (most common)
breast
bowel
skin (namely melanoma)
kidney
136
What is the most common primary brain tumour in adults and is associated with a poor prognosis
Glioblastoma
137
What is The second most common primary brain tumour in adults
Meningioma
138
Meningiomas arise from .......
arise from the arachnoid cap cells of the meninges and are typically located next to the dura
139
Neurofibromatosis type 2 is associated with....
Which brain tumor ?
bilateral vestibular schwannomas.
140
Haemangioblastoma Associated with
von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
141
What is the most common congenital infection in the UK?
Cytomegalovirus
142
Cerebral calcification
Chorioretinitis
Hydrocephalus
Anaemia
Hepatosplenomegaly
Cerebral palsy
Which congenial infection?
Toxoplasmosis
143
Low birth weight
Purpuric skin lesions
Sensorineural deafness
Microcephaly
Visual impairment
Learning disability
Encephalitis/seizures
Pneumonitis
Hepatosplenomegaly
Anaemia
Jaundice
Cerebral palsy
Which congenial infection?
CMV
144
Sensorineural deafness
Congenital cataracts
Congenital heart disease (e.g. PDA)
Glaucoma
Growth retardation
Hepatosplenomegaly
Purpuric skin lesions
'Salt and pepper' chorioretinitis
Microphthalmia
Cerebral palsy
Which congenial infection?
Rubella
145
Examples of Type I - Anaphylactic
& mechanism
- Anaphylaxis
- Atopy (e.g. asthma, eczema and hayfever)
Mechanism: Antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells
146
quality improvement process that seeks to improve patient care and outcomes through systematic review of care against explicit criteria and the implementation of change'.
Clinical audit
147
ABL associated with
CML
148
c-MYC associated with
Burkitt's lymphoma
149
n-MYC associated with
Neuroblastoma
150
BCL-2 associated with
Follicular lymphoma
151
RET associated with
Multiple endocrine neoplasia (types II and III)
152
RAS associated with
Many cancers especially pancreatic
153
erb-B2 (HER2/neu) associated with
Breast and ovarian cancer
154
Tumor suppressor genes - .......... of function results in an increased risk of cancer
loss
155
Oncogenes - .......... of function results in an increased risk of cancer
Gain
156
the extent to which a genotype shows its phenotypic expression in an individual. (( severity))
Expressivity
157
......describes 'how likely' it is that a condition will develop
Penetrance
158
IgA is the predominant immunoglobulin found in
1. breast milk
2. secretions of digestive, respiratory and urogenital tracts and systems
159
Enhance phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses
• Fixes complement and passes to the fetal circulation
• Most abundant isotype in blood serum
Which immunoglobulin?
IgG
160
What is the First immunoglobulins to be secreted in response to an infection?
IgM
161
Which immunoglobulin is Involved in activation of B cells?
IgD
162
Which immunoglobulin is Least abundant isotype in blood serum?
IgE
163
IgE Synthesised by .....
plasma cells
164
IgE Provides immunity to
parasites such as helminths
165
Primary phagocytic cell in acute inflammation
Granules contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme
Neutrophil
166
Involved in the cell-mediated immune response
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class I molecules
Cytotoxic T cells
167
Involved in the cell-mediated immune response
Recognises antigens presented by MHC class II molecules
Helper T cells
168
Which cell Mediates hyperacute organ rejection
B cells
169
Examples of Type II - hypersensitivity
1. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
2. Acute hemolytic reaction
3. Pernicious anemia
4. ITP
5. Goodpasture's syndrome
6. Rheumatic fever
7. Pemphigus vulgaris / bullous pemphigoid
170
Examples of Type III - Immune complex
1. Serum sickness
2. SLE
3. Post streptococcal GN
4. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (especially acute phase)
171
Examples of Type IV - Delayed hypersensitivity
Tuberculosis / tuberculin skin reaction
• Graft versus host disease
• Allergic contact dermatitis
• Scabies
• Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (especially chronic phase)
• Multiple sclerosis
• Guillain-Barre syndrome
172
Examples of Type V hypersensitivity
Graves' disease
Myasthenia gravis
173
Interleukin 1 (IL-1) is secreted mainly by ........ and acts as a costimulator of ..........
secreted mainly by macrophages and monocytes and
acts as a costimulator of T cell and B cell proliferation.
174
anakinra is
IL-1 receptor antagonist
175
Main function of IL1
Acute inflammation
Induces fever
176
Main function of IL 2
Stimulates growth and differentiation of T cell response
177
Main function of IL 3
Stimulates differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells
178
Main function of IL 4
Stimulates proliferation and differentiation of B cells
179
Main function of IL 5
Stimulate production of eosinophils
180
Main function of IL 6
Stimulates differentiation of B cells
Induces fever
And acute phase proteins
181
Main function of IL 8
Neutrophil chemotaxis
182
Main function of IL 10
Inhibits Th1 cytokine production
Also known as human cytokine synthesis inhibitory factor and is an 'anti-inflammatory' cytokine
183
Main function of IL 12
Activates NK cells and stimulates differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells
184
Main function of Interferon-γ
Activates macrophages
185
Main function of Tumour necrosis factor-α
Induces fever
Neutrophil chemotaxis
186
Cribriform plate is pathway of which cranial nerves
I (Olfactory)
187
Optic canal is pathway of which cranial nerves
II optic
188
Superior orbital fissure (SOF ) is pathway of which cranial nerves
III, IV , V, VI
189
Internal auditory meats is pathway of which cranial nerves
VII, VIII
190
Jugular foramen is pathway of which cranial nerves
IX
X
XI
191
Hypoglossal canal is pathway of which cranial nerves
XII
192
1. Southern blotting Detects ........
2. Northern blotting Detects ..........
3. Western blotting Detects ..........
1. DNA
2. RNA
3. Proteins
SNOW (South - NOrth - West)
DROP (DNA - RNA - Protein)
193
types of skeletal muscle fibres
By Contraction time
Type 1 : slow
Type 2: fast
194
types of skeletal muscle fibres
By colour
Type 1: Red (due to presence of myoglobin)
Tpye 2: White (due to absence of myoglobin)
195
types of skeletal muscle fibres
By main use
Type 1: sustained force
Tpye 2: sudden movement
196
types of skeletal muscle fibres
By major fuel
Type 1: triglycerides
Tpye 2: ATP
197
types of skeletal muscle fibres
By mitochondrial density
Type 1: high
Tpye 2: low
198
In Case-control study, The usual outcome measure is .....
the odds ratio
199
Cohort study, The usual outcome measure is .....
the relative risk
200
The average of a series of observed values
Mean
201
The middle value if series of observed values are placed in order
Median
202
The value that occurs most frequently within a dataset
Mode
203
The difference between the largest and smallest observed value
Range
204
Normal (Gaussian) distributions:
mean = median = mode
205
Positively skewed distribution
mean > median > mode
206
Negatively skewed distribution
mean < median < mode
207
used in statistics to imply consistency of a measure
Reliability
208
determined by whether a test accurately measures what it is supposed to measure.
Validity
209
Regression is not used unless two variables have firstly been shown to ....
correlate
210
predict how much one variable changes when a second variable is changed.
linear regression
211
variable which correlates with other variables within a study leading to spurious results.
confounding
212
similar to relative risk but is used when risk is not constant to time.
It is typically used when analysing survival over time.
hazard ratio (HR)
213
used to demonstrate the existence of publication bias in meta-analyses.
funnel plot
214
What is the most reliable and widely used screening tool for hereditary angioedema ?
Which complements will be low between the attacks ?
1. Serum C4 is used screening tool
2. Low C2 & C4 levels are seen between attacks
215
FSH level > …… IU/L are generally considered post menopausal
> 30
216
What is the first artery to vasoconstrict in the presence of hypoxia
Pulmonary arteries
217
Cushing reflexe
Bradycardia & HTN & wide pulse pressure
218
What is the common cardiac defect seen with Down syndrome?
Endocardial cushion defects ( atrioventricular septal canal defect )
219
What is the main constituent of pulmonary surfactant?
DPPC
220
X- linked recessive inheritance only male are affected but there is an exception…?
Turner’s syndrome due to have only X chromosome
221
Where is the majority of iron found in the body ?
Hb
222
Leptin is produced mainly by the …..
Thalamus
223
Vincristine acts during which stage of the cell cycle
Metaphase
