Clinical Trials Flashcards

1
Q

drug discovery

A
  • disease characterization
  • target selection and ID of drug hits
  • lead optimization
  • pharm profiling
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2
Q

pre-clinical development

A
  • in vitro and in vivo animal models
  • pharmacokinetics and toxicology
  • formulation and synthesis scale up
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3
Q

clinical development

A
  • drug tested in human volunteers and patients
  • safety and efficacy
  • pharmacokinetics and toxicology
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4
Q

compound centered approach

A

-compound with interesting activity- screen for interesting bio effects and possibly chemicaly modify

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5
Q

target centered approach

A

identify protein target with known disease asociation/activity
-screen chemical libraries for drugs that interact with the target and modify activity or design your own

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6
Q

how to modify chemicals to optimize them for drugs

A
  • incr potency
  • incr selectivity
  • duration of action
  • chemical stability
  • more favorable drug characteristics
  • improved PK profile
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7
Q

NCE

A

new chemical entity

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8
Q

Imatinib drug: step 1

A
  • Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) disease characterization:
  • caused by translocation breakpoint
  • creation of a unique fusion gene (BCR-ABL)
  • BCR-ABL is a constitutively active oncogenic protein tyrosine kinase
  • sufficient to cause CML
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9
Q

Imatinib step 2

A
  • lead compound identification = chemically modifiable PKC inhibitor
  • addition of an amide group provided activity against tyrosine kinases
  • addition of methyl group caused loss of KC inhibition and enhanced inhibition of tyrosine kinases
  • addition of methylpiperazine oiety improved drug solubility and oral bioavailability == Imatinib and is now optimized
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10
Q

imatinib step 3

A
  • ID of 2nd and 3rd generation inhibitors
  • imatinib binds BCR-ABL in ATP binding site and prevents binding of ATP
  • some pts develop resistant mutants that no longer bind the drug
  • new inhibitors (2nd gen) Nilotinib and Dasatinib act in a similar fashion to Imatinib but are able to bind mutant forms of BCR-ABL
  • further screening identified additional drugs with alternative MOAs: ON012380 blocks substrate binding and GNF-2 acts to allosterically inihibit BCR-ABL
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11
Q

recombinant DNA techniques used to create drugs

A
  • growth factors (erythropoietin)
  • cytokines (IL-2, GM-CSF)
  • modified ligands and receptors (exenatide; anti-TNF drugs)
  • antisense RNA
  • anti-microRNAs
  • miRNA drugs
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12
Q

genetic expression signature screening

A
  • determine genetic expression signature for a specific disease state and then identify drugs capable of opposite genetic expression signature
  • ex. Topiramate (antiepileptic) used for inflammatory bowel disease
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13
Q

new drug leads are tested for efficacy in pre-clinical ____ and _____ models of disease

A

animal and cellular

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14
Q

safety pharmacology

A
  • evaluate drug using in vivo animal testing for the presence of any obvious acute systemic toxic effects
  • 2 different species and two different routs of administration
  • determine no-effect dose (max dose where toxic effects aren’t seen) and median lethal dose to help determine dosing in Phase I clinical trials
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15
Q

toxicology

A
  • genotoxicity (Arnes test)
  • carcinogenicity (especially if drug is likely to be taken chronically)
  • reproductive and development toxicity
  • anti-target testing: establish that the drug doesn’t interact with target proteins known to be frequently involved in Drug Adverse Effects
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16
Q

hERG K+ channel

A
  • its inhibition is causes long QT syndrome
  • involved in regulating heart beat
  • often involved in adverse drug effects
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17
Q

5HT2B

A

-inhibition of 5HT2B receptor causes valvular heart disease

18
Q

pharmacokinetic testing

A

fully characterize pharmacokinetic parameters: ADME

19
Q

drug interactino studies

A
  • determine metabolism by CYP450 family members
  • identify any possible inhibitors of CYP450
  • determine specificity for Drug Transporter proteins
20
Q

chemical and pharmaceutical development

A
  • determine chemical stability
  • develop scale up to large scale synthesis
  • develop formulations suitable for clinical studies
21
Q

Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER)

A
  • division of the FDA
  • ensures all prescription and OTC drugs are safe and effective
  • review all applications for new and generic drugs
  • monitors the compliance of pharmaceutical manufacturers with current good manufacturing practice
22
Q

What parts of drug approval does FDA monitor

A
  • investigational new drug application before trials (IRB here too)
  • new drug application before goes to market
23
Q

investigational new drug application

A
  • vehicle for providing evidence to the FDA that a new drug is a viable candidate for further development and appropriate for initial limited use in humans (reasonably safe)
  • exemption allows drugs to cross state lines
  • includes animal pharm and toxicology data, manufacturing info, and clinical protocols and investigator info
24
Q

you need a new IND for an already approved drug when…

A
  • new indication
  • change in route of administration
  • change in approved pt population
25
Q

emergency use IND

A

-allows authorization of an experimental drug in an emergency situation for use in a single pt that has a serious or immediately life threatening condition where no other therapy is available and there isn’t time for IRB approval

26
Q

treatment IND

A

-allows promising experimental drugs that haven’t yet been approved to be used in pts with serious or immediately life-threatening conditions where no other therapy is available and death is likely

27
Q

IRB ensurance of equitable selection of subjects by…

A
  • ensuring that no undue pressure to participate is applied
  • avoid disproportional share of burden on any single group
  • ensure that burdens and benefits from research are fairly distributed
28
Q

confounder

A

something not directly related to the endpoint but that can influence the outcome

29
Q

crossover study

A
  • alternating period of administration of placebo and test drug
  • typically used for short term outcomes in chronic diseases
  • reduces problems with confounders, as each pt serves as their own control
  • statistically efficient and requires fewer participants
30
Q

phase I clinical studies

A
  • 20-100 ppl- usually healthy volunteers that sometimes are in an inpatient setting to allow close monitoring of any serious rxns
  • open label trial with escalating dose (1/10 projected dose)
  • determines safety and tolerability
  • determine drug absorption, half life, and metabolism
31
Q

phase II studies

A
  • 100-200 pts with target condition
  • single or double blinded and is evaluated against placebo or standard of care
  • can be parallel or crossover
  • determine drug efficacy and continued safety monitoring
  • can have definitive end pt (goal of therapy) or surrogate end pt (assoc. with disease)
  • determine optimal dose (dose response), investigate PK difs in dif ethnic groups, and effects of renal and hepatic impairment on dosing regimen
32
Q

must talk with FDA to go forward into Phase _ trials

A

III

33
Q

phase III studies

A
  • 500-6,000 participants with the target condition who represent range of disease manifestations and of the target population (ethnicity, gender, etc)
  • double-blinded randomized controlled trial
  • establish efficacy and safety of drug
  • either definitive or surrogate endpt
34
Q

New drug application

A
  • reviewed by internal FDA review and external advisory committee (experts)
  • priority review ~6 mo if meets unmet need/significant improvent
  • standard review - 12+months, similar drugs on the market
35
Q

drug packaging label

A
  • approved indications, dosage, adverse reactions, contraindications, and special warnings and precautions
  • pharma can’t market drug for an unapproved indication but Dr can
36
Q

phase IV studies

A
  • post-marketing surveillance
  • monitors safety of drug under actual conditions of use in large pt populations
  • relies on Drs to report adverse effects
  • large sample sized allows for ID of rare adverse effects— may only become apparent with chronic dosing
37
Q

drug recall

A
  • temporary removal of drug from the market
  • manufacturing site doesn’t pass a FDA GMP inspection
  • Class I: reasonable probability that use of a drug will cause serious adverse health consequences
  • Class II- use of drug will cause temp adverse health consequences
  • Class III- use of drug is unlikely to cause adverse health consequences
38
Q

how long do drug patents last?

A

-20 years from time of filing so basically 10-12 yrs after testing/development

39
Q

abbreviated new drug application

A

-after patent has expired, any company can submit an abbreviated new drug application to allow marketing a generic version that is bioequivalent

40
Q

drug repurposing

A
  • ID of new indications for old approved drugs based upon screening or knowledge of drug action/side effects
  • no need for lengthy preclinical studies
  • just need to show efficacy