ClinMed_test3 Flashcards

(127 cards)

1
Q

Define Medical emergency

A

An injury or illness that is acute and poses an immediate risk to a person’s life or long term health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name the ABCDEFGHI in medical emergency

A
Airway
Breathing
Circulation
Disability
Exposure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What to do in a case of Airway

A

Make sure they have patent airway.

Not busting out the epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the leading cause of morbidity and mortality in the US

A

Acute myocardial infarction (Heart attack)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Heart attack In men vs heart in chicks

A

Men-Levine Sign

Females - heartburn, SOB, back pain, vomiting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name the two types of acute stroke

A

Ischemic - most common(perform carotid bruit-looking for plaques). There is blockage
Hemorrhagic(Bleeding in the brain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What should u check if pt reports had a severe stroke?

A

Check VF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the FAST protocol consist of

A

Face - smile
Arms - raise them
Speech - say a sentence
Time- call 911

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define Orthostatic Hypotension

A

A sudden drop in BP when you change position. This can happen if you stand up too fast, get dehydrated, or take certain medicines, such as ones for high BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T/F

Fever will always be present before a seizure

A

False

It can present itself afterwards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the trt of choice for anaphylaxis?

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the goal for ppl suffering from seizures

A

Prevent secondary injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the cause of seizure

A
Spontaneous epilepsy, drugs, metabolic disorders (hypoglycemia), 
rapidly increasing fever, 
brain tumor 
aneurysm
med withdrawal, stroke
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how often do u need to inject epinephrine in a pt suffering from anaphylaxis

A

`5 to 15 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are some signs seen with anaphylaxis

A

Angioedema
Urticaria
hypotension
Bronchospasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name possible trt for anaphylaxis

A

Steroids
Antihistamines
Beta-adrenergics (epinephrine, albuterol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the best place to insert epipen

A

Rectus femoris site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the entity for cluster headaches?

A

Horner’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where is the pain on Horner’s syndrome

A

Facial pain radiating to the ipsilateral eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name the worst HA of your life

A

Can be subarachnoid bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Retrobulbar

A

Pain on eye mvts

No retinopathy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name the evidence for a person with end organ damage

A

Chest pain
Severe HA
Nausea, vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define Hypertensive emergency

A

Severe HTN + End Organ Damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How do you prepare for emergencies?

A

Staff training
Community resources
Office equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the leading cause of death in the US
CVD-cardiovascular disease There are diff types of the disease. CAD-coron art disease!!!!!
26
Name the top two Cardiovascular disease leading to death
Coronary heart disease akak coronary artery disease-coronary arteries is blocked. Stroke
27
Name some uncontrollable factors for Cardiovascular disease (CVD)
Sex Race Age Hereditary
28
Name some controllable factors for Cardiovascular disease (CVD)
``` Physical activity Obesity Smoking Stress and anger Diabetes High blood pressure(biggest risk) high blood cholesterol ```
29
Brittle diabetic
Their A1C is hard to control due to other factors like metabolic syndrome
30
T/F | Risk of cardiovascular disease double for every increase of 20 points over 115
True
31
name the most common type of heart disease?
Coronary heart disease aka Coronary artery disease
32
Define acute coronary syndrome
Umbrella term used to cover any grp of clinical symptoms compatible with acute myocardial ischemia
33
T/F | Woman are 5X more likely to die from cardiovascular disease than from breast cancer
True
34
Define angina pectoris
Uncomfy pressure, fullness, squeezing or pain in the center of the chest.
35
List the pts most likely to present w/o chest pain
``` Elderly Diabetes Neuropathy Stroke Female Non-white CHF ```
36
What is the most common time of day for MI | Common day of week?
6am to 12pm | Monday
37
Name the drug used as preventative care for CAD
Aspirin. It thins the blood. Side effects: Subconj Heme
38
List the medical management of CAD
``` Aspirin-antiplatelet Anticoagulants Beta blockers Thrombolytics Nitrates Morphine ACEI's ```
39
INR values
Less than 2 = too thin 2-3 = normal More than 3 = too thick
40
What is the most common immediate cause of death in a myocardial infarction?
Arrhythmia
41
What should u suspect if u witness a roth spot heme?
Suspect endocarditis Diabetes HTN Vascular
42
What is the white spot found in the center of the roth spot heme
CWS Lymphoma Septic Emboli
43
What are the top two things leading to bacterial endocarditis
Tooth extraction | Brushing teeth
44
Osler nodes
Small painful ischemia on the palm of the hand or feet
45
What do osler nodes indicate
Thrombocytopenia | Inflammatory disease
46
Diff b/w osler nodes and Janeway lesions
Janeway are Painless | Osler are painful
47
What kind of hypersensitivity rxn is Janeway lesion
Type III | Need to r/o Syphillis
48
Where do splinter hemes appear | What condition
Petech heme on inf plap conj or conj | Bacterial endocarditis
49
Name the most common arrhythmia that requires trt
Atrial Fibrillation
50
TQ: signs and symptoms of CHF
``` Periph Edema Pulmonary Edema SOB Dyspnea or exterion/exercise intolerance Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea Orthopnea ```
51
Medical management for CHF
``` Diuretics ACEI's or ARBS Beta Blockers Aldosterone receptor antagonists Digoxin ```
52
Look up Marfan Disease
Okee
53
Signs of Margan disease
``` Reduced upper to lower body seg Arm span exceeding ht Arachnodacyl of fingers and toes with pos thumb and wrist signs Scoliosis Dilation of the Aorta Aortic dissection Ectopia lentis Dural ectasia ```
54
Function of the normal kidney
Major waste management plant of the body 1. Filters and excretes metabolic waste products 2. Excretion of nitrogenous wastes 3. Detoxifies and eliminates toxins 4. Regulates red blood cell production 5. BP regulation 6. Keep the acid/base concentration of your blood constant 7. Regulates fluid and electrolyte balance
55
Name the two parts to a nephron
Glomerulus | Tubules
56
What does Blood Urea Nitrogen(BUN) represent
Reflects excretory capacity of kidney. | It is the final breakdown product of protein
57
What is the normal value of BUN
10-20 mg/dl
58
What is creatinine
Product of skeletal muscle metabolism. | Freely filted by glomerulus, not reabsorbed; minimally secreted by tubules.
59
Name the 2things that effect Creatinine
Age | Muscle mass
60
T/F | Creatinine clearance gives an accurate estimation of GFR
False | Overestimation
61
what is the normal GFR for men and woment
Males: 130 ml/min Women: 120 mL/min
62
define Prerenal ARF
Reduced renal perfusion due to volume depletion and/or decreased perfusion. Biggest cause is dehydration
63
What is the biggest cause of Pre-renal ARF | TQ
``` Dehydration Others: volume loss(bleedg) heart failure shock liver disease ```
64
What is post-renal ARF
Any obstruction to urinary outflow from renal calyces and pelvis to urethral meatu. OBSTRUCTION-THIS IS PAINFUL THIS IS AN EMERGENCY
65
How many pts die from ARF
50%
66
What are the ocular findings in ARF
``` Uveitis Ocular Muscle paralysis Hollenhorst crystals Roth spots in endocarditis Lupus retinopathy ```
67
Lupus retinopathy and kidney?
U will see acute lupus nephritis. | Biggest cause of death in pts.
68
Name the two conditions that cause CKD
Diabetes | HTN
69
Define Chronic Kidney disease
Presence of markers of kidney damage for three months.
70
Name some ocular disorders in CKD
Band K Calcium deposits in conj, hyperemia HTN retinopathy Cranial nerve involvement: nystagmus, miosis, pupillary, EOM palsy
71
Name the three trt options for renal disease
1. Hemodialysis 2. Periotneal Dialysis 3. Kidney transplantation
72
Name the indications for dialysis
``` A E I O U A; intractable metabolic acidosis E: electolyte imbalance, esp hyperkalemia I: intoxications O: overhydration U: uremia ```
73
What is the most common renal tumor in childhood?
Wilms tumor | 95% before age 10
74
What is | WAGR
Wilms Tumor Aniridia GU anomalies Mental retardation
75
Name the 7 types of primary lesions
``` Macule Papule Plaque Hives Nodule Vesicle Bulla ```
76
Name the 9 secondary lesion
``` Crust Scale Erosion Ulcer Fissure Atrophy Scar Lichenification Excoriation ```
77
What is another name for actinic keratosis
Pre-cancer to squamous cell carcinoma
78
Where is actinic keratosis usually found
On skin exposed areas
79
Is actinic keratosis progressive
Not really. | It is slowly growing, can take yrs to develop unless immunocompromised.
80
Which skin condition may develop a horn like texture
Actinic keratosis
81
How to trt actinic keratosis
1. Burning 2. Curettage and electrodesiccation 3. Excision 4. Cryotherapy 5. 5-FU and Imiquimod: creams
82
What happens to the skin during therapy for actinic keratosis with 5-FU
As abnormal cells are eradicated, skin becomes redder, crusts and peels.
83
Name the three types of skin cancers
Basal Cell Carcinoma Squamous Cell Carcinoma Malignant Melanoma
84
T/F Basal cell carcinoma spreads throughout the body
False
85
Are basal cell carincoma curable
Yes; high cure rate. | But, there is a 20-40% chance of developing another case.
86
Name the skin cancer that accounts for 80% of new skin cancer cases
BCC
87
Can squamous cell carincoma spread?
claro que si
88
How to treat BCC and SCC
Surgical excision Mohs sx 5 FU, Imiquimod cream Radiation therapy
89
What is the worst skin cancer
Malignant Melanoma | 80% of skin cancer deaths
90
Is malignant melanoma curable?
Si
91
What are the ABCDE of Melanoma
``` Asymmetry Border Color Diameter >6mm Elevation ```
92
What is superficial spreading melanoma
It grows as small plaque for 6 to 24 months and then develops nodule. It is highly invasive.
93
What are some lab studies to include when diagnosing a possible skin cancer
``` Liver function test Dermoscopy Wood's lamp CBC w/ diff Pet Scan ```
94
Prognosis of melanoma sizes
Less than 1mm have good prognosis | Lesion that are greater than 3mm have guarded prognosis
95
Managment of melanoma
Excision Lymph node dissection Examination and lab screening for metastasis Trt for metastatic dz usually unsatisfactory
96
What is allergic contact dermatitis
A delayed hypersensitivity rxn caused by contact with an allergen
97
Management of eczematous dematitis in all stages
``` Topical steroids Immunomodulators IM seroids Antihistmaines Antibiotics Lubrication ```
98
What is eczema herpeticum
Disseminated HSV Painful, umbilicated pustular vesicals Fever, malaise, lymphadenopathy Significant morbidity and mortality
99
What is molluscom contagiosum caused by
Pox virus. | Dome shaped papules with central plug and umbilication
100
What kinds of pts does molluscum occur in
Children Young adults Immunocompromised pts
101
Which pathogen causes impetigo
Staph aureus
102
Describe impetigo
Pustular vesicles with straw colored discharge
103
Trt of impetigo
Self limiting Systemic antibiotic Topical Bactroban ung - TID for ten days
104
What is Dermatomyositis
Acquired, idiopathic connective tissue disease. | Charact by proximal muscle weakness, rash on eyelids, scalp.
105
Pathognomonic features of dermatomyositis
Heliotrope rash | Gottron's papules
106
What is the name of the sign that is on the tip of the nose in Zoster
Hutchingson's sign. | Means there are ocular complications
107
Management of zoster
Antiviral agents: valtrex, famvir, acyclovir Prednisone Anti staphy Abs Oc lubs
108
Can nevus of ota cause glaucoma
Si | Up to 10%
109
What is syringoma
Benign adnexal neopaslm | Formed by well diff ductal elements
110
What is a Hidrocystoma
Cystic lesion of either the apocrine or eccrine sweat glands
111
What is xanthoma
Lipid deposit in the skin and tendons
112
Xanthelasma -
yellowish plaques on the eyelids. | 50% have normal cholesterol but higher LDLs
113
Rosacea-Derm findings
``` Facial erythema Telangiectasia Red papules Pustules Sebaceous gland hypertrophy Rhinophyma ```
114
Trt of Rosacea
``` Oral tetracyline, doxycycline Oral erythromycin Topical metronidazole Isotretinoin Lid hygient Ats Topical steroids ```
115
Rosacea - Complications
Corneal scarring COrneal perforation Bleph COnjunctivitis
116
What is seborrehic dermatitis
Common, chronic, inflammatory dermatitis Associated with overgrowth of yeast Pityosporum ovale Face, scalp, presternal, upper back.
117
Trt of seborrheic dermatitis
``` Sodium sulfacetamide Metronidazole Ketoconazole shampoo Tar shampoo Topical steroids Immunomodulators (elidel and protopic) ```
118
Psoriasis
Lifelong and characterized by chornic, recurrent exacerbations and remissions that can be emotionally and physically debilitating `
119
Pesudoxanthoma elasticum in the eye?
Angioid straks
120
Define metabolic syndrome
Group of risk factors that occur together and increase the risk for coronary artery disease and stroke
121
Name some risks for AMD
``` Age Genetics Gender Smoking Sunlight exposure High levels of LDL and low levels of HDL High BMI ```
122
What percentage of AMD cases are linked to Dry AMD
90% | 10% = Wet AMD
123
T/F | BMI of 30 or higher was associated with a twofold higher risk of AMD
True
124
T/F | Obese men were 2x more likely to have dry AMD
true
125
T/F | Genetics plus higher BMI increased risk of AMD almost sixfold
True
126
What was the Diabetes Prevention Program
Modest wt loss through dietary changes and increased physical activity could prevent or delay the onset of type II diabetes in study participants by 58%.
127
What did the ARIC and cardiovascular health study find?
Obese persons were found to have a nearly four-fold increased risk of retinal vein occlusion