CM exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the seven attributes of a symptom?

A

location (where is it? where does it radiate?), quality (what is it like?), quantity or severity (how bad is it? 1-10), timing (when did this start, how long does it last, how often does it come?), setting in which it occurs, remitting or exacerbating factors (is there anything that makes it better or worse?), associated manifestations (anything that accompanies it?)

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2
Q

common or concerning symptoms?

A

headache, change in vision, double vision, hearing loss, earache, tinnitus, vertigo, epistaxis, sore throat, swollen glands, trauma

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3
Q

where must a patient go if they fall from a height equal to their height or higher?

A

a level 1 trauma center due to hidden injuries

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4
Q

what are some things to assess with head trauma?

A

is the patient awake/oriented? how did they get hurt? time of injury? loss of consciousness immediately post-injury? subsequent levels of alertness? amnesia (retrograde, anterograde)?, headache (mild, moderate, severe), double or blurred vision? bleeding from ears, nose, mouth, eyes?

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5
Q

concussion

A

a disturbance in brain function caused by a direct or indirect force to the head; do not have to be knocked out to have a concussion

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6
Q

what clues you into a possible concussion?

A

headache, physical unsteadiness, impaired brain function, confusion (person, place, time; inadequate answers are suspicious), abnormal behavior

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7
Q

what is the sports concussion tool used in iowa?

A

sport concussion assessment tool-2

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8
Q

how do you disqualify an athlete based on a concussion?

A

the screen after a head injury does not match the baseline following injury

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9
Q

when can a high school athlete return to sports?

A

they may not go back the same day as the injury; may only return after medical practice; RTP (return to practice)

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10
Q

classic migraine

A

70% unilateral; pulsating or throbbing; hours to days; females have it more often; nausea/vomiting are common; caused by missing meals, menses, BCP, stress, certain foods

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11
Q

cluster

A

rare, but has classical characteristics; occurs in adulthood, unilateral, 1/2-2 hours, intense burning, searing, knife-like, several nights for several days and then gone, males are more likely to get them, increased tearing/nasal discharge that is almost always unilateral

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12
Q

tension

A

occurs in adulthood, unilateral or bilateral (if unilateral, do not automatically think classic migraine), hours to days, anytime it can start, band-like and constricting, no prodrome (a “tip off” to the patient they will get one), stress, anger, and teeth grinding can cause them

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13
Q

medication rebound

A

diffuse, hours at a time, hours or days of last dose, dull or throbbing pain, daily analgesics are a clue, abrupt analgesic stops will cause them

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14
Q

hyperparathyroidism

A

“speed up”; the following symptoms do not begin at the same time; nervousness, weight loss, excessive sweating, heat intolerance, warm/smooth/moist skin, Grave’s disease, tachycardia

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15
Q

hypothyroidism

A

“slow down”; fatigue, lethargy, modest weight gain, dry coarse skin, cold intolerance, swelling of face, hands, and legs, bradycardia, impaired memory

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16
Q

what do you exam on the head?

A

symmetry, presence of hair, scalp (lesions, bugs, bumps, lumps, cysts), face (CN VII), palpation, bony irregularities, oral mucosa (number of teeth, look at tongue), facial sensation, carotid and temporal arteries

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17
Q

what do you check on the TMJ?

A

alignment and palpate for clicking or crepitus

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18
Q

what do you inspect on the neck?

A

the general appearance in bright and tangential light, symmetry, lesions, masses, tracheal position, jugular venous distention, range of motion (assess strength), auscultation carotids and thyroid, palpation, nuchal rigidity (stiffness to the neck; check infants and children where this is classic in meningitis), cervical spinous processes, paravertebral musculature, cricoid and thyroid cartilage, position of trachea, thyroid, carotids, lymphatics

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19
Q

what do you always check from birth to 24 months?

A

head circumference!

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20
Q

why do you transilluminate the skull?

A

to look for excess fluid accumulation

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21
Q

how do the heads of an adult and an infant compare?

A

head at birth is 1/4 of body length (adult is 1/8) and the head at birth is 1/3 of the weight (adult is 1/10)

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22
Q

why do infants need to be placed backwards in carseat for first 2 years of life?

A

because the head is heavy and fairly unstable - not held up by much! in the event of a motor vehicle accident, the head will go into the seat which is safer than forwards

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23
Q

sutures

A

separate the bones; membranous tissues

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24
Q

fontanelles

A

areas where sutures intersect

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25
Q

when does the anterior fontanelle close?

A

18 months (9-24); measures 4-6 cm at birth

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26
Q

when does the posterior fontanelle close?

A

2 months

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27
Q

why would a fontanelle bulge?

A

as a result of increased intercranial pressure

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28
Q

why would a patient present with a sunken fontanelle?

A

dehydration

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29
Q

microencephaly

A

the head is small due to the brain not growing

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30
Q

hydrocephalus

A

increased intracranial pressure from deficient CSF circulation (or excess production) that causes the calvaria to become enlarged before the sutures are closed

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31
Q

why would you have overlapping of sutures?

A

due to molding, or the movement of bones at sutures that occurs during vaginal delivery

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32
Q

caput succedaneum

A

swelling of scalp during delivery; transluminates; usually occurs over the occipitoparietal area

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33
Q

cephalohematoma

A

collection of blood underneath the periosteum of the skull; does not cross over suture lines, does not transilluminate

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34
Q

what do the heads of C/S infants look like?

A

more rounded

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35
Q

plagiocephaly

A

occurs when an infant lies on one side constantly; due to subsequent flattening, mishapen head; self resolves with age

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36
Q

cranioynostosis

A

premature closure of sutures that can lead to assymetry; brachycephaly is known as premature closer of coronal cells

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37
Q

bracycephaly

A

premature closure of coronal suture; typically need a procedure to fix this

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38
Q

lymph nodes (infants)

A

“shotty”: small, movable, round lymph nodes; not worrisome, not tender, not warm

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39
Q

how do you palpate the neck of an infant?

A

use 1-2 fingers; the neck is short and thin

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40
Q

congenital muscular torticollis

A

injury and possible bleed into the SCM at birth that shortens the muscle at birth; treatment is stretching exercises; patient presents with misshapen head, normal fontanelles, flat head on posterior right occipitoparietal area with neck rotated left, sidebent right

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41
Q

what questions should you ask about the ear?

A

how is your hearing? do you have difficulties understanding people when they talk? what happens in a noisy environment? earache? vertigo? medications (some can mess with hearing over time), resent URI? discharge? tinnitus

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42
Q

tinnitus

A

ringing in ears

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43
Q

rhinorrhea

A

runny nose/ discharge

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44
Q

why should you be concerned about unilateral congestion in children?

A

could have stuck something up their nose

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45
Q

epistaxis

A

nosebleed; could be caused by trauma, anticoagulants, NSAIDS

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46
Q

what do you check for on the external ear?

A

deformities, lesions, placement on head, characteristics

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47
Q

what do you palpate for pain before inserting otoscope?

A

the pinna and tragus; this helps differentiate between otitis externa and otitis media; if either pinna or tragus hurt, could be otitis externa

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48
Q

how do you adjust the ear for an adult while doing an otoscope exam?

A

pull the pinna lateral, superior, and posterior

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49
Q

how do you adjust the ear for a child while doing an otoscope exam?

A

pull pinna lateral, inferior, and posterior

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50
Q

what finger is held out during an otoscope exam?

A

5th digit

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51
Q

what hand do you use to do otoscope exam?

A

if on the patients left side, use your left hand; if on the patient’s right side, use you right hand

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52
Q

erythema

A

redness and inflammation of mucous membrane

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53
Q

cerumen

A

ear wax

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54
Q

why do you use an insufflation bulb?

A

to test for mobility of TM when air is put into the ear; if there is fluid behind the ear or an infection, the TM will be stuck

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55
Q

what is the biggest mistake with a otoscope?

A

holding it with your entire fist around it; you should hold it with the first couple fingers and thumb so that your 4th and 5th digits can act as shock absorbers

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56
Q

what do you look for externally on the nose

A

deformities, lesions; check nares for symmetry

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57
Q

true or false: both nares are the same side

A

false; it is common for one nare to be larger than the other; this is important for when placing a NG tube on the side that will be most comfortable

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58
Q

what do you check for on the inside of the nose?

A

polyps, evidence of recent epitaxis, debris, color, and consistency of discharge

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59
Q

how do you check for nasal patency?

A

occlude one nare and have the patient breathe in; if they can’t breathe out of one nostril, they may have a deviated septum

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60
Q

how do you check CN I?

A

have them smell with each nostril; this is done when athletes hit their heads really hard

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61
Q

how does weight loss related to smell?

A

when you lose smell, you can lose taste as well. a patient can lose weight as a result of losing taste.

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62
Q

how do you test the sinuses?

A

palpation (may feel warm), percussion (for tenderness, not sound; do not do it if the patient says they have pain), transillumination (inspecting for fluid under the flashlight; if fluid present you wont see light)

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63
Q

true or false: hitting the septum will cause epitaxis?

A

true

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64
Q

polyps

A

fleshy swellings; can occur in the nose

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65
Q

whisper test

A

stand behind and to the side 1-2 ft away from patient, have the patient put their finger in the ear not being tested and move it around, exhale fully and whisper 3 letters or numbers, ask the patient to repeat what they heard; do for both ears

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66
Q

weber test

A

assesses hearing and helps differentiate between neurosensory and conductive hearing loss; vibrate the tuning fork and place in the middle of the patient’s vertex; ask them where they hear the sound (one side, both sides, not at all?)

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67
Q

what frequency tuning fork do you use for the weber test?

A

512 Hz

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68
Q

if you hear the tuning fork during a weber test on the side of hearing loss, what kind of hearing loss do you have?

A

conductive because you received input of vibrations via fork

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69
Q

rinne test

A

helps determine whether each ear detects sounds better through air or bone; use vibrating fork and place on mastoid process, asking the patient to tell them you when they can no longer hear the ringing; next move the tuning fork to 2.5 cm away from patient’s ear and ask the patient when they stop hearing the ringing

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70
Q

what is a normal test result for rinne test?

A

normally you hear sounds through the air longer; should be a 2:1 ratio; if the hearing is prolonged, you could have neurological issues

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71
Q

conductive hearing loss

A

external or middle ear disorder caused by foreign body in the ear, otitis media, perforated eardrum, or otosclerosis; sound lateralizes to impaired ear (weber test); bone conduction longer than or equal to air conduction

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72
Q

sensorineural loss

A

inner ear disorder involving the cochlear nerve; caused by loud noise exposure, inner ear infections, trauma, acoustic neuroma, aging, familial disorders; sound lateralizes to good ear (weber test); air conduction longer than bone conduction

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73
Q

where are the ears positioned on an infant?

A

upper portion of auricle joins the scalp at or above the level of line drawn from the inner and outer canthus of the eye

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74
Q

true or false: there is a relationship between ear tags and the renal system

A

true

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75
Q

why is it difficult to see the TM in the first few days of life?

A

presence of vernix caseosa

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76
Q

where should the child sit during a toddler exam>

A

on the parent’s lap, facing you; to look at the ears, have parent turn head of child to one side and hug with one arm around the arms and one on the forehead

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77
Q

pneumatic otoscopy

A

uses insufflator bulb; puffs burst of air into TM to check for movement; if there is no movement, there is fluid behind the ear drum. if there is no fluid (no movement) then you can rule out otitis media

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78
Q

how do newborns breathe?

A

obligate nose breathers; this makes nasal congestion or obstruction a problem

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79
Q

what indicates allergies in infants?

A

crease on the nose as a result of wiping the nose upwards

80
Q

allergic shiners

A

darkness under eyes caused by venous pooling as a result from chronic congestion

81
Q

when does the maxillary sinus develop?

A

1 year

82
Q

when does the ethmoid and sphenoid sinus develop?

A

6 years

83
Q

when does the frontal sinus develop?

A

10 years

84
Q

when does sinus development cease?

A

21 years

85
Q

can you always see cleft palate on the infant’s lip?

A

no; you need to look at the palate as well as the lip

86
Q

antenatal teeth

A

teeth formed before birth; often taken out because they are usually loose

87
Q

Epstein’s pearls

A

pin head sized white or yellow rounded elevations that are located along the midline of the hard palate near its posterior border or gums caused by retained secretions and disappear within a few weeks or months

88
Q

how do you do a mouth exam on an infant?

A

have one parent hug the body with one arm and holding the child’s arms underneath; one arm on the forehead; place tongue depressor along the side of the buccal mucosa and slide inside the molars; use gag reflex when necessary and use crying as your friend

89
Q

when does peak growth of tonsils occur?

A

2-6 years of age

90
Q

how are tonsils rated?

A

1+= barely visible, 2+=visible, 3+= moving in towards the uvula, nearly touching, 4+= “kissing tonsils” that are touching and causing obstruction, 0= not present

91
Q

when does tooth grow occur?

A

6-7 months with upper and lower central incisors

92
Q

what is the rate at which teeth show up after the first teeth appear?

A

4 teeth every four months

93
Q

when is tooth growth completed?

A

2-3 years

94
Q

when does a child start shedding primary teeth?

A

5 years

95
Q

when do secondary teeth usually begin?

A

6-7 year

96
Q

halitosis

A

bad breath

97
Q

what can cause bad breath in children?

A

nasal foreign bodies; common in children 9 months to 5 years; present with chronic, unliateral rhinitis or congestion, and halitosis

98
Q

pharyngitis

A

sore throat

99
Q

what causes a sore tongue

A

vitamin b12 deficiency

100
Q

what causes gums to bleed

A

gingivitis, infection

101
Q

what is the link between gingivitis and heart disease?

A

theorized that cardiovascular disease may begin in the gums and migrate down

102
Q

what causes hoarseness?

A

sore throat, virus, laryngeal disease (cancer)

103
Q

what can temperature intolerance be a clue of?

A

thyroidism

104
Q

what are common HPI and PROS of the mouth in adults?

A

sore throat, sore tongue, bleeding of gums, hoarseness, swollen glands, temperature intolerance, sweating, skin changes, tobacco use

105
Q

what is the first sign of a patient vomiting?

A

mouth flooded by saliva

106
Q

where is stenson’s duct located?

A

upper mouth off the 2nd molar in the cheek

107
Q

how are the teeth numbered?

A

start in the upper right, go around, come down to the bottom and go back around

108
Q

leukoplakia

A

white patches found in the mouth, often on the tongue; thought to be caused by tobacco use

109
Q

erythroplakia

A

red irritation

110
Q

wharton’s duct

A

on the floor of the mouth, under the tongue

111
Q

what does an asymmetric protrusion of the tongue suggest/

A

damage to CN XII; deviation is to the same side of the lesion

112
Q

uvula

A

raises as patient says “ahh” and shoudl raise to the midline; if it does not raise to the midline, deviation suggests lesion to CN X

113
Q

what should you have children do to look at their throats?

A

pant like a puppy

114
Q

what should you auscultate?

A

carotids and thyroid; only find 1 carotid at a time, especially in old people

115
Q

what should you palpate?

A

cricoid and thyroid cartilage, position of trachea, thyroid, carotids, lymphatics

116
Q

where does the thyroid move if the lung loses volume?

A

towards the affected lung

117
Q

where does the thyroid move if it is enlarged or during pleural effusion?

A

away from affected side

118
Q

where does the thyroid move in tension pneumothorax

A

away from affected side

119
Q

where does the thyroid move with a collapsed lung?

A

towards affected side

120
Q

what do nodules on thyroid suggest?

A

thyroiditis, malignant tumors, Hasimoto’s thyroiditis

121
Q

bruit

A

abnormal sound in artery due to disturbance of blood flow

122
Q

hyperthyroidism

A

speeding up; faster pulse, diaphoretic

123
Q

hypothyroidism

A

slowing down; skin is thicker, drier, coarser

124
Q

what are some common problems with eyes/

A

focusing problems, cataracts, diabetes, macular degeneration, glaucoma

125
Q

how do you assess focus issues with eyes?

A

snellen chart (alphabet) and Rosenbaum (for near vision)

126
Q

what is the leading cause of blindness if not corrected?

A

cataracts

127
Q

what is the leading cause of blindness <65 in the USA?

A

diabetes; observed as large proliferation of blood vessels that are fragile and can break

128
Q

what does macular degeneration cause?

A

loss of central vision; patient will look at you through the corner of their eye; detected with visual acuity and GRID tests

129
Q

glaucoma

A

elevated pressure that causes loss in vision; peripheral vision is lost first

130
Q

what causes transient loss of vision?

A

in young patient it can be due to migraine, in older patient it can be an emboli problem

131
Q

what symptom suggests retinal detachment

A

flashes of light

132
Q

why do you experience diplopia

A

can be a one eye optical problem or a 2 eye alignment problem

133
Q

exophthalmos

A

bulging eyes; most common causes is thyroid disease

134
Q

what action does the superior rectus do?

A

pulls eye superiorly

135
Q

what action does the lateral rectus do

A

pulls eye laterally

136
Q

what action does the medial rectus do

A

pulls eye medially

137
Q

what action does the inferior rectus do

A

pulls eye inferiorly

138
Q

what action does the inferior oblique do

A

pulls eye superiorly and laterally

139
Q

what action does the superior oblique do

A

pulls eye inferiorly and laterally

140
Q

what cranial nerves are involved in eye muscle innervation

A

all are CN III EXCEPT for superior oblique (CN IV) and lateral rectus (CN VI)

141
Q

where is the lacrimal gland located?

A

superior and laterally to the eye ball

142
Q

is it normal for the perioribital skin to show swelling, redness, lesions, ad rash?

A

depends on the patient; it is common for swelling to occur under the eye with aging

143
Q

what does thinning of the eyebrow from the middle to lateral aspect of eyebrow suggest

A

early thyroid problems

144
Q

what does a pale conjunctiva mean

A

early sign of anemia

145
Q

what do swelling and bumps on the conjunctiva indicated?

A

allergic reaction

146
Q

what does a red conjunctiva with green/yellow exudate indicate?

A

conjunctivitis (pink eye)

147
Q

conjunctiva

A

lines eye lid and surface of eye

148
Q

checking for foreign body

A

use wooden part of cotton-tipped applicator on the outer half of the upper lid at the crease; break suction by pulling on lashes

149
Q

how do you test for visual acuity?

A

using the snellen eye chart; in a well lit area, position the patient 20 feet from the chart; if they use glasses for other than reading, they should use them. cover one eye and read the smallest line possible; results recorded as a fraction (numerator is the distance from chart, denominator is the average distance eye can read the chart)

150
Q

how do you test near vision

A

use a hand held rosenbaum chart; helps identify need for reading glasses or bifocals; held 14 inches from patient’s face and one eye is tested at a time

151
Q

assessing visual fields by confrontation

A

tests for defect in any quadrant of the field of vision; stand 3 feet from the patient at eye level; using one eye at a time; physician brings fingers into the visual field halfway between you and the patient at a 45 degree angle of each quadrant; have the patient report how many fingers they see

152
Q

Assess extraocular muscles

A

stand 3 feet from patient and ask them to hold their head still and follow your fingers with their eyes only; draw a large “X” and then a “+”; ; look for nystagmus

153
Q

convergence test

A

bring finger towards the patient’s nose; patients eyes should converge down

154
Q

nystagmus

A

jerking or drifting of eyes

155
Q

accommodation testing or near reaction testing

A

checking to see if eyes will converge and pupils will constrict; when looking farther away, pupil should dilate, eyes will move up and out; when looking closer pupils should constrict, eyes will move down and in; stand in front of patient and to the side; hold a finger and ask them to look at your finger. then ask them to look at the wall behind you

156
Q

PERLA

A

pupils equal, reactive to light, accommodating

157
Q

pupillary responses

A

constriction is a response to light; this should happen when you shine a light directly into an eye as well as when you shine the light into the other eye (consensual response)

158
Q

swinging light test

A

tests impairment of optic nerves (looking to see how quickly the pupil reacts); shine light in one eye and rapidly swing light to the other eye; you should have slight dilation in the second eye while light is crossing the bridge of the nose, but it should still constrict equally to the first eye as the light enters the pupil; if it continues to dilate rather than constrict you have afferent defect

159
Q

Marcus Gunn pupil

A

when the pupil does not dilate when you do the swing test; can indicate tertiary syphillis

160
Q

lateral penlight test

A

helps estimate the depth of the anterior chamber of the eye; failure to do this test can cause a medical emergency; if patient has a shallow anterior chamber and you dilate it, it will increase the pressure in the eye and cause the patient to lose the eye; if they have normal depth, the light will pass through and hit the nose, if they have shallow depth the light will not go through and you will see a shadow on the nose

161
Q

corneal light reflex

A

testing for ocular alignment by reflecting light off patient’s pupils; shine light into patient’s eye and see where the reflection is; make sure light reflects in the same place on each eye; if it does not, this is a good indicator that there is a muscle imbalance or they have a misaligned eye

162
Q

esotropic

A

eye turned medially so reflected light is lateral to pupil

163
Q

exotropic

A

eye is turned laterally so the reflected light is medial to the pupil

164
Q

hypertropic

A

eye is turned superiorly so reflected light is below the pupil

165
Q

hypotropic

A

eye is turned inferiorly so the reflected light is above the pupil

166
Q

uncover testing

A

used to detect presence of phoria (eye moves because of disturbances in binocular vision); you observe the covered eye as it is uncovered; there should be no movement

167
Q

esophoria

A

eye starts lateral and moves medially

168
Q

exophoria

A

eye starts medially and moves laterally

169
Q

corneal sensitivity test

A

testing CN V; if in tact, CN V senses touch as it would a foreign body in the eye

170
Q

what does the retina tell us during ophtalmoscopic exam?

A

early signs of hypertension, papilledema (increased pressure in the brain), diabetes, macular degeneration

171
Q

what can you see better with green light?

A

drusen bodies, nerve fiber defects, and blood

172
Q

what can you see with GRID patter?

A

size of lesions

173
Q

what is the slit used to view?

A

the anterior chamber and corneal injuries

174
Q

what is blue used for

A

corneal abrasions

175
Q

myoptic

A

near sighted

176
Q

hyperoptic

A

far sighted

177
Q

strabismus

A

both eyes do not focus on the same object simultaneously, however either eye can focus independently

178
Q

amblyopia

A

lazy eye

179
Q

what do you check in a newborn (eyes)

A

differently sized eyes, epicanthal folds, distance between eyes, lids

180
Q

epicanthal folds

A

vertical fold of skin nasally that covers the lacrimal caruncle; can be a sign of down syndrome, normal variants occur in Asian infants

181
Q

red reflex

A

an orange to red light reflection from the fundus; should be equal in both eyes and fill the pupil completely; worrisome of the red reflex is asymmetric

182
Q

leukocoria

A

white reflex; caused by congenital cataract or retinoblastoma

183
Q

true or false: it is abnormal for a baby to open one eye at a time

A

false; this is normal

184
Q

when is visual fixation present

A

birth

185
Q

when is fixation well developed?

A

6-9 weeks

186
Q

when is visual following present?

A

3 months

187
Q

when is accommodation present? (pupils dilating and constricting based on distance)

A

4 months

188
Q

when is stereopsis present (depth perception)

A

4 months

189
Q

what should you test in 3-5 year olds?

A

red reflex, inspection, visual acuity, cover-uncover test

190
Q

what is the visual acuity of a newborn

A

20/400 - 20/800

191
Q

what is the visual acuity of a >= 3 year old

A

20/40 or better

192
Q

strabismus

A

misalignment of eyes; not necessarily referring to vision; can cause amblyopia

193
Q

pseudostrabismus

A

looks like something is abnormal - wide nasal bridge and epicanthal folds; light reflection is on the same place in same eyes; no actual strabismus

194
Q

what is the single most effective screening test for the presence of amblyopia?

A

determination of visual acuity via noninvasive screening

195
Q

what are the requirements for normal visual development/

A

clear retinal image, equal image clarity, and proper eye alignment