CM Module 1 Flashcards
(252 cards)
1
Q
Who was an early protester of the aviation industry and why?
A
The railroad industry accused the US Army of creating a monopoly to move US Mail, and Congress acted with the Air Mail Act of 1925 and later the Kelly Act to allow the US mail delivery to be contracted leading to commercial air mail services.
2
Q
What is an early first principle of the airport industry?
A
Aviation should pay for itself
3
Q
What were the origins of the first airline passenger terminals?
A
Fixed-based operators were establisehd in the 1920s and 1930s to accommodate long cross country flights where pilots would have to stop for fuel and rest up to 25 times flying across the country.
4
Q
Who were among the first US airlines?
A
PanAm, American, United, Delta, TWA, Northwester, Eastern, American Braniff
5
Q
What act of Congress was the cornerstone of the US’ first civil aviation regulation?
A
The Air Commerce Act of 1926 was passed at the insistence of aviation leaders of the time.
6
Q
Describe the lead up to the FAA and what was governed.
A
Commerce Dept established the Aeronautics Branch (AB) which was charged with fostering air commerce, issuing/enforcing air traffic rules, licensing pilots, certifying aircraft, establishing airways and maintaining nav aids. AB turned into the Civil Aeronautics Administration (CAA) which divided itself again with the Civil Aeronautics Board (CAB) CAA had oversight for ATC, pilot and aircraft certification, safety enforcement, and airway development; CAB had oversight over making safety rules, accident investigation, and economic regulation of the airlines
7
Q
What were the origins of AAAE?
A
10 directors meeting in 1928 at the National air races in LA - by 1954 the first accreditation standards were adopted.
8
Q
How did CAB with one of its charges to regulate airline economics lead to the 1970s deregulation of the airline industry and what were the ramifications?
A
Despite the supporters in the airlines themselves, unions, and safety advocates, the Airline Deregulation Act of 1978 was passed resulting in an open market of airline and cargo fares and airlines determining their own routes. This also resulted in the Hub and Spoke model, exemplified by FedEx, and was a nod to the FAA’s roots in the Dept of Commerce, who’s original charge was to foster air commerce.
9
Q
What was the scope of WPA’s work by the late 1930’s and an early airport industry principle shaped by FDR’s Works Progress Administration?
A
WPA established 852 airports by 1939, but only 50% was paid for by the USG, leading to the cost share concept.
10
Q
How did a WWII era appropriation lead to more airport development?
A
The Development for Landing Areas for National Defense (DLAND) appropriation allowed the Department of War, Dept of Commerce, and Dept of the Navy to buy land for airports (986 additional airports) of which 500 were later declared surplus and handed over to civil authorities on the conditions they were made public and without discrimination, and reserved for the USG in case of emergency.
11
Q
What post WWII act of Congress and subsequent program was established to continue airport development?
A
The Federal Aid to Airports Act (1946) created the Federal Aid to Airports Program (FAAP) that provided grants for mostly runway and taxiway development, however airports needed to be listed in the National Airport Plan (NAP) to be eligible for grant money.
12
Q
What was a foundational principle and condition of airport management regarding grant money that was derived from the FAAP?
A
In exchange for accepting federal grant money, airports promise to keep airports public without discrimination - known as Sponsor or Grant Assurances.
13
Q
How did a mid 50’s air accident lead to the creation of the FAA?
A
After a 1956 mid-air between a TWA and United flight over the Grand Canyon killing 128 people, Congress responded with increased funding for ATC controllers and the creation of the Federal Aviation Agency, which later changed to the Federal Aviation Administration and brought in under the DOT in 1966.
14
Q
How did a 1970s act of Congress lead to modern Part 139 Airport Certification?
A
In 1970, the Airport Airway and Development Act was paired with the Planning Grant Program to fund airport infrastructure projects and develop airport master plans/master systems respectively creating standards that are captured in Title 14 FAR, Part 139 Certification of Airports
15
Q
What 1970s/1980s congressional Acts led to today’s Airport Improvement Program (AIP) grants and what important airport development principle did it underscore?
A
In 1970, the Airport and Airway Revenue Act created the Airport and Airway Trust Fund collecting fees from different parts of aviation community to help research and develop infrastructure projects and modernize the ATC system. The 1982 Airport and Airway Improvement Act (AAIA) reorganized the National Airport Plan into the National Plan of Integrated Airport Systems (NPIAS). This re-enforced the idea that only those who use aviation should pay for it.
16
Q
What primary event led to the creation of the TSA?
A
The 9/11 attacks on the United States led to increased aviation security requirements and the creation of the Transportation Security Agency.
17
Q
What is the background and purpose of the NexGen Air Transport System?
A
Authorized by the Vision 100 - Century of Aviation Reauthorization Act, NexGen relies on emerging GPS technologies to make air travel safer, more secure, and more efficient.
18
Q
What are the four major categories of airport stakeholders and examples of each?
A
Government (FAA, TSA, CBP, ICE, FPS), Aeronautical (SASOs e.g. flight schools, repair shops, air charter), Non-aeronautical (vendors, contractors, tenants, rental car, parking, industrial parks), local community (passengers, air cargo shippers, surrounding developments, etc)
19
Q
What are some of the revenue sources that airlines generate for an airport?
A
concessions, commercial vehicle access fees, parking lot, rental car, landing fees, gate and ticket counter fees, administrative, hangar rental space.
20
Q
What is a FBO and what services can it provide?
A
A fixed based operator is a terminal for private and charter aircraft operations and can provide fueling, hangaring, tie down and parking, aircraft maintenance, and flight instruction.
21
Q
What is an important rule regarding fuel services?
A
Under sponsor assurances, a sponsor must allow tenants to operate their own fueling operation if they wish to.
22
Q
What is the difference between a SASO and a FBO?
A
Special Aviation Service Operators provide a single specialty service (e.g. MRO, repair station, charter operators, commercial hangar rental, aircraft sales, avionics repair, gliding, sky diving, firefighting, med transport, helicopter tours, etc) while a FBO provides a range of services.
23
Q
What is the nature of Fixed Fleet Operators?
A
They run charter operations or air taxis under Part 135 for non-scheduled commercial flight, packaging the rental of the entire aircraft, crew, and support services vs. selling an individual seat.
24
Q
How does an air management service work?
A
Charter companies manage the lease and maintenance of private aircraft for owners, usually taking about a 20% fee from the revenue generated.
25
How does fractional ownership work?
Operators sell fractions of the total number of hours an aircraft can fly each year (e.g. 25 hour blocks). This is considered a type of private operation and is governed by Part 91.
26
How do jet card programs work?
Providers sell blocks of retail flight time for a specific type or class of aircraft.
27
How does an on demand charter (ie broker work?)
Providers do not own aircraft but function a broker for aircraft owners on a per flight basis .
28
How do cargo feeders work?
Charters who carry passengers and cargo or just cargo, assist the major shipping operators such as FedEx, UPS, DHL
29
What is MRO and how is it governed?
Maintenance Repair Overhaul provides a gamut of mx services across a range of aircraft type, and is governed by FAR Part 145 Repair Station Operators and TSR Part 1554 Aircraft Repair Station Security.
30
What are the applicable regulations that govern flight training?
FAR Part 61 Certification: Pilots, Flight Instructors, Ground Instructors is less regimented, and is instructor centric, while FAR Part 141 Pilot Schools which covers classroom, flight schools and certification requirements.
31
________reduce FBO profitability but are allowed by the FAA.
Private fuel farms
32
What percentage of business to consumers e-parcel commerce are carried by air?
90%
33
What are the top three airline passenger markets worldwide?
China - 34%, Europe 26%, USA 22%
34
What is the ratio of active pilots to GA aircraft in the US?
About 1:3 (about 610,000 pilots to 213000 aircraft)
35
How does the NPIAS work?
The National Plan for Integrated Airport Systems is a five-year projection published every two years to identify airports with eligible development projects that are necessary to provide a safe, efficient, and integrated system of national airports. In 2019, NPIAS identified 3,328 airports eligible under the AIP grants.
36
What are some top level stats about number of airports in the US?
There are about 19,000 airports, of which about 5,000 are public and 14,000 are private. Of those public airports, about 60% are eligible for NPIAS. There are about 500 commercial service airports.
37
How can an airport be included in the NPIAS?
Can be public or private, but must be a commercial service airport with at least 2,500 enplanements / yr, or FAA designated GA reliever, receives air carrier transport where a FBO or freight forwarder is under contract to deliver US Mail, a public use airport where the Guard or Reserve operate aircraft at or adjacent to the airport. And the exception to the above criteria - may be included if an airport is part of the state's airport system or serving a community more than 30 minutes from the nearest NPIAS airport, or forecast to have 10 or more aircraft and a sponsor is willing to take on ownership of the airport.
38
How does the FAA measure airport activity?
Enplanements (pax boards an aircraft) Operations (takeoff, landing, or aircraft in the instrument pattern), Cargo tonnage (landed weight used for design planning).
39
What are the five types of airports in the US?
Private, commercial service, cargo service, general aviation, military
40
Which is the busiest airport in the US and world?
Atlanta-Hartsfield - 800,000 operations / yr and 45,000,000 emplaned / yr.
41
What are the categories of commercial service airports?
Primary - 10,000 or more enplanements / yr and non-primary - at least 2,500 enplanements / yr
42
What regulation governs commercial service airports?
FAA Part 139
43
What classifies large hubs and how do they figure into the overall enplanement stats?
Large hubs serve at least 1% of the overall enplanements. Put together, large hubs account for 70% of all enplanements in the US.
44
What classifies medium hubs, and how do they figure into overall enplanements?
They serve .25-1% of overall enplanements and account for 17% of all enplanements in the US.
45
What classifies small hubs, and how do they figure into overall enplanements?
They account for .05 - .25% of overall enplanements and 9% of all enplanements in the US.
46
What classifies non hub primary and do they figure into overall enplanements?
Non hub primary account for less than .05% of overall enplanements, but at least 10,000 enplanements per year, and together non hub primary airports account for 3% of all enplanements in the US.
47
What are the characteristics of a non primary hub?
A non primary hub is a commercial service airports and can be a GA reliever or GA airport with regularly scheduled flights and between 2,500 and 10,000 enplanements per year.
48
How would you describe a GA airport, how do they interact with NPIAS, and how important are they to the nation?
An airport with no scheduled commercial service or less than 2,500 passenger enplanements per year. GA airports may be listed as an NPIAS if they have a significant number of aircraft (at least 10) and they are least 20 miles away from the nearest NPIAS airport. GA airports which host on average 29 aircraft per airport, in total, host 36% of the nation's total number of aircraft.
49
What are some benefits of GA airports?
Emergency preparedness and response (firefighting, medevac, disaster relief) , access to remote communities, air cargo and air taxi services, commercial, industrial, and agricultural activities, low orbit space launch, special events, and special aeronautical activities, flight instruction, aircraft storage, aerospace engineering and research.
50
How does an airport gain FAA designation as a GA reliever airport?
It's a high capacity airport in a major metro area with 100 or more based aircraft or at least 25,000 itinerant operations per year.
51
What are the five categories of GA airports and their characteristics?
GA National - supports international flights with most sophisticated aircraft, business flights and fractional ownership is common
GA Regional - in/near metro areas with interstate flying, charter and jet operations,
GA Local - form the backbone of GA, mostly piston aircraft supports personal and business needs, flight training, usually within a state or immediate region
GA Basic - usually just one runway or helipad connecting the community to the national airport system.
GA unclassified - most have been in the NPIAS for years / decades but have seen a decline in use and have begun to be repurposed for other industries.
52
What is the difference between a joint use and shared use airport?
A joint use airport is owned by the DoD and portions of the airport and leased out to civilian entities, while shared use airports are at least partially owned by a civilian entity.
53
How are cargo service airports characterized?
In addition to other commercial services, cargo service airports handle aircraft dedicated to only cargo and received over 100 million lbs of landed weight per year.
54
How are flight operations governed world-wide and why is it important?
The Internationsl Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) helps ensure aviation operations are conducted in a consistent manner with a common vocabulary and principles among pilots, aviation systems, and airport operators.
55
Regarding flight regulations, what are the two main categories of operations and how do they differ?
Private and Commercial flight operations - they differ when a person or company starts charging for a flight.
56
What are the dual meanings of Part 91?
Part 91 is commonly associated with private flight operations, but governs both the general operating of flight rules in US airspace (whether private or commercial) AND used to describe private flight operations.
57
In commercial operations, what is the difference between a direct air carrier and an indirect air carrier?
A direct air carrier owns the aircraft it operates, while an indirect air carrier contracts for cargo or passenger service but does not own the aircraft.
58
What are the 4 main FAA Parts that govern commercial operations?
Title 14, CFR Part 119 - identifies the basic requirements for operators carrying passenger and/or cargo.
Title 14 CFR Part 121, Operating Requirements: Domestic, Flag, and Supplemental Operations for air carrier
certification for scheduled passenger flights
Title 14 CFR Part 135, Operating Requirements: Commuter and On Demand Operations and Rules Governing
Persons On Board Such Aircraft (i.e., air charter or air taxi)
Title 14 CFR Part 380, Public Charters (i.e., when an airline leases15 a plane to a resort company like Apple Vacations
to use the plane to fly its members to a destination).
59
What is a scheduled air operation?
A scheduled air carrier operation is conducted under 14 CFR Part 121 and provides a schedule containing the
departure location, departure time and arrival location of the flights offered
60
What is a significant FAR stipulation for operations conducted under Part 121?
That operations must be conducted to FAR Part 139 Certified Airports.
61
What are some exceptions of Part 121 operations that allow operations at other than Part 139 airports?
Emergencies, training, ops outside of the US or in Alaska, aircraft operating with between 9 and 31 seats,
62
What are some differences between Part 121 and Part 135 operations?
Part 135 ops are usually not regularly scheduled, pilots need 250 hours of total time and a commercial pilot certificate, while Part 121 pilots need 1,500 hours and an airline transport certificate.
63
What is a public charter and what Part is it governed by?
A one way or round trip flight conducted by one or more direct air carriers and sponsored by a charter operator.
64
What is the threshold between Part 91 and Part 125 operations?
If a private aircraft has more than 19 seats or is over 6,000 lbs cargo capacity, it must be operated under Part 125 rules.
65
What are some parameters associated with VFR?
Ceiling and vis is usually 1000 and 3, pilots can use "see and avoid" techniques, VFR stops at 18,0000 MSL, pilots don't necessarily need to be on a filed flight plan.
66
What are some parameters associated with IFR?
All operations 18,000' MSL and higher must be IFR and a flight plan must be filed,
67
What is the altitude delineation between victor routes and jet routes?
18,000' MSL and above are jet routes.
68
What is ATIS, how often is it updated, and by who?
The automated terminal information service is updated hourly by ATC.
69
What is the term for the specialized procedures pilots use to arrive and depart along with instrument approaches at airports?
Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS)
70
Why are DPs and STARS important?
Departure Procedures and Standard Terminal and Arrival Procedures standardize routes for pilots and controllers and are more efficient because pilots do not have to repeat back the instructions to controllers each time they are issued.
71
A visual runway approach can be made when?
When ATC authorizes it, ceiling is greater than 1000' and vis is at least 3 miles.
72
In feet, what does a standard 3 deg glideslope equate to and what is the obstacle clearance at the FAF and over the runway threshold?
1 foot descent for every 20 feet, 700 feet and FAF an 50 feet at the threshold
73
How does the FAA define a sponsor?
any public agency or private owner of a public-use airport as defined by the Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982.
74
Who are the strategic leaders of an airport?
The sponsors (appointed or elected officials)
75
Who are the tactical operatives at an airport?
Airport executives and their staff
76
What are some regulatory examples of Federal Airport Operating requirements?
Part 139 (certification of commercial service airports), Part 1542 (airport security), Part 77 (obstructions), and Part 150 (noise abatement), many airports operate under grant assurances, FAA Advisory Circulars, FAA Orders,
TSA Security Directives, environmental laws, eminent domain, avigation easements, industry best practices, and case law
surrounding issues such as noise abatement and airline use agreements
77
What is a challenging aspect or duality of airports with regard to their management and what is an "enterprise fund"?
Airports can be considered both a public utility and a business enterprise. An enterprise fund is a government branch that operates as a business.
78
How does the FAA guide airports to be as self-sustaining as possible?
FAA Airport District Offices (ADOs) and regional airports divisions provide guidance to airport sponsors to ensure their rate fees and scheduled conform to grants guidelines.
79
What is a critical component of an airport executives roles regarding the community?
To promote and communicate the importance of aviation and its benefits to the local community .
80
How does an airport as a stand alone enterprise differ from traditional municipal entities?
Airports can charge user fees for services rendered, make speculative investments, and form public-private partnerships.
81
What are the nine basic types of airport sponsor structures?
Municipality, Airport Authority, Port Authority ( board also oversees other agencies such as transportation services), State-owned, Federal, Joint City or Joint State, District or Commission, Private-owned - public use, Private-owned - private use (not eligible for NPIAS grants.
82
How did most airport sponsor structures develop and what are the most common types?
About two thirds of airports have their roots in the transfer of land from the federal level making municipalities the most common sponsor structure followed by authority and state.
83
What are two disadvantages of a municipal owned airport?
A municipality may consider the airport just another department and not provide enough resources or realize that an airport should operate as an enterprise fund and its proceeds should only be fed back into the airport. Also the airports needs may be in conflict with the municipality's needs e.g. the municipality may want to sell or zone land around an airport for a housing development which may solve a housing problem but create more encroachment issues for the airport.
84
What 3 questions can help determine the power and efficacy of an airport authority?
1) Who controls appointments to the airport authorities governing body? 2) Does the authority have total control over its budget, contracts, capital improvement projects, and personnel decisions? 3) Does the authority have eminent domain and the power to levy taxes?
85
For an airport authority what is the difference between an airport authority board and an airport commission?
They are essentially the same, however a an airport commission maintains its ties to the municipality.
86
What are three advantages of an airport or port authority?
1) They can bring focused leadership and specialized attention to a significant community asset. 2) they can provide insulation from political influences and political change 3) they can serve communities better by providing representation and/or equitable taxation not normally available through political boundaries.
87
What are the four primary reasons that municipalities create airport authorities?
1) airport market or service areas have outgrown their political boundaries 2) authority control allows members to concentrate on airport business matters 3) authorities can provide on-scene decisions and shorten the decision cycle - also helps to insulate from political influences 4) authorities can provide representation in multiple jurisdictions
88
What is a major implication of airport privatization with regard to airport sponsorship?
The private operator becomes the airport sponsor and becomes responsible for seeking airport grants and is directly responsible to the FAA for grants compliance.
89
How has Congress incentivized airport operators to consider privatization?
Congress approved the Airport Investment Partnership Program (AIPP) which relieves operators from having to repay federal grants, return federal lands, and having to use the proceeds for airport purposes.
90
What is Grant Assurance 25, Airport Revenue and how does it relate to AIPP?
Grant Assurance 25, Airport Revenue specifies that airport revenue can only be used for airport purposes. AAIP relieves airport operators from that requirement. The mere privatization of airport management functions does not automatically provide relief (i.e. must be part of AIPP).
91
Name several aspects of a day in the life of an airport executive.
Ensure an airport safety, security, efficiency, maintain facilities, ensure aircraft and passenger flow, prepare financial plans and budgets, enforce rules and regulations, oversee planning and construction projects, secure funding and revenue streams.
92
Regardless of its organization, what is the airport manager's primary duty?
To provide safe, secure, and efficient operation of the airport and its facilities.
93
What are the four primary areas of airport management?
1) Finance and Administration 2) Planning and Engineering 3) Operations, Security, and Maintenance 4) Marketing, Public Relations, and Air Service Development
94
What is Title 14, CFR Part 77?
Safe, Efficient Use and Preservation of the Navigable Airspace
95
What is Title 14, CFR Part 107?
Small Unmanned Aircraft Systems
96
What is Title 14, CFR Part 139?
Certification and Operations: Land Airports Service Certain Air Carriers
97
What is Title 14, CFR Part 150?
Airport Noise and Compatibility Planning
98
What is Title 14, CFR Part 151?
Federal Aid to Airports
99
What is Title 14, CFR Part 152?
Airport Aid Program
100
What is Title 14, CFR Part 156?
State Block Grant Program
101
What is Title 14, CFR Part 157?
Notice of Construction, Alteration, Activation and Deactivation of Airports
102
What is Title 14, CFR Part 158?
Passenger Facility Charges
103
What is Title 14, CFR Part 161?
Notice and Approval of Airport Noise and Access Restrictions
104
What is Title 14 CFR Part 169?
Expenditure of Federal Funds for Nonmilitary Airports or Air Navigation Facilities Thereon
105
What is Title 14 CFR Part 420?
License to Operate a Launch Site
106
What is Title 49 CFR Part 1500?
Applicability, Terms, and Abbreviations
107
What is Title 49 CFR Part 1503?
Organization, Functions, and Procedures
108
What is Title 49 CFR Part 1510?
Passenger Civil Aviation Security Service Fees
109
What is Title 49 CFR Part 1520?
Protection of Sensitive Security Information (replaced Title 14 Part 191)
110
What is Title 49 CFR Part 1540?
Civil Aviation Security: General Rules
111
What is Title 49 CFR Part 1542?
Airport Security (replaced Title 14 Part 107)
112
What is Title 49 CFR Part 1544?
Aircraft Operator Security: Air Carriers and Commercial Operators (replaced Title 14 Part 108)
113
What is Title 49 CFR Part 1546?
Foreign Air Carrier Security (replaced parts of Title 14 Part 129)
114
What is Title 49 CFR Part 1548?
Indirect Air Carrier Security (replaced Title 14 Part 109
115
What is Title 49 CFR Part 1550?
Aircraft Security Under General Operating and Flight Rules (replaced parts of Title 14 Part 91)
116
What is Title 49 CFR Part 1552?
Flight Schools
117
What is Title 49 CFR Part 1554?
Aircraft Repair Station Security
118
What is Title 49 CFR Part 1560?
Secure Flight Program
119
What is Title 49 CFR Part 1562?
Operations in the Washington, D.C. Metropolitan Area
120
What is Title 14 CFR Part 36?
Noise Standards: Aircraft Type and Airworthiness Certification
121
What is Title 14 CFR Part 61?
Certification: Pilots, Flight Instructors, and Ground Instructors
122
What is Title 14 CFR Part 71?
Designation of Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E Airspace Areas; Airways; Routes and Reporting Points
123
What is Title 14 CFR Part 73?
Special Use Airspace
124
What is Title 14 CFR Part 91?
Aircraft Operating Rules (also refers to aircraft operated as a private operation, i.e., not commercial/for hire
125
What is Title 14 CFR Part 93?
Special Air Traffic Rules and Airport Traffic Patterns
126
What is Title 14 CFR Part 97?
Standard Instrument Approach Procedures
127
What is Title 14 CFR Part 121?
Operating Requirements: Domestic, Flag, and Supplemental Air Carrier Operations
128
What is Title 14 CFR Part 125?
Certification and Operations: Airplanes Having a Seating Capacity of 20 or More Passengers ora Maximum Payload Capacity of 6,000 pounds or more
129
What is Title 14 CFR Part 129?
Operating Requirements: Foreign Air Carriers and Foreign Operators of U.S. Registered Aircraft Engaged in Common Carriage
130
What is Title 14 CFR Part 135?
Operating Requirements: Commuter and On Demand Operations
131
What is the process called for federal agencies to change rules and where and how are they published?
Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (NPRM) and the Federal Register is used for agencies to publish draft rules, provide 30-60 days of public comment and then publish as enforceable rules.
132
What are two overarching roles of the FAA from an airport executive's perspective?
Gift giver in the form of AIP grants and permission giver to to monitor and enforce airport and industry federal regulations
133
What were some characteristics of early ATC in the 1930s?
Controllers were run by the airlines. Without direct radio contact, they would telephone dispatchers, airway radio operators, and airport controllers, and track aircraft positions on maps and blackboards using "shrimp boats".
134
What is a major tool of the federal government to change FAA policy?
The FAA is not a permanently funded agency so program additions and subtractions are part of the reauthorization process.
135
What are the nine FAA regions and what is the more local FAA office called?
New England, Eastern, Southern, Great Lakes, Central, Southwest, Northwest, Western-Pacific, and Alaskan Regions. Typically the FAA
has local airports district offices in each state.
136
What are the FAA's six major roles?
* Regulating civil aviation to promote safety.
* Encouraging and developing civil aeronautics, including new aviation technology.
* Developing and operating a system of air traffic control and navigation for both civil and military aircraft.
* Researching and developing the National Airspace System and civil aeronautics.
* Developing and carrying out programs to control aircraft noise and other environmental effects of civil aviation.
* Regulating U.S. commercial space transportation
137
What are the FAA's five lines of business as they relate to airports?
1) Office of Airports (ARP) - most common to work with for airport executives
2) Air Traffic Organization (ATO)
3) Aviation Safety (AVS)
4) Office of Security & Hazardous Materials Safety (ASH)
6) Office of Commercial Space Transportation (AST).
138
What is the regional office of the FAA that enforces regulations on aircraft and airmen
certification and licensing?
Flight Standards District Office
139
What are several functions of the ARP?
The FAA Office of Airports awards billions of dollars each year in AIP grants,
approves Passenger Facility Charge (PFC) applications, works with the airport operators on national airport planning and
environmental and social requirements (DBE programs), responsible
for compliance with grant assurances, airport privatization, and the establishment of policies related to airport rates and
charges.
140
What are several function of the ADO?
The ADO oversees airport compliance with Part 139
and grant assurances, airport safety and certification, land transfers, engineering issues, pavement maintenance, capital
improvement projects, environmental issues, noise abatement, master planning, runway safety, and guidance issues
141
What is ICAO broadly and what is its purpose and mission?
International Civil Agency Organization is a specialized agency of the UN with the purpose to secure international cooperation and the highest possible degree of
uniformity in regulations and standards, procedures, and organization regarding civil aviation matters. Its mission includes; developing standards related to airport, airway and air navigation facility development, and promoting
flight safety during international air navigation
142
How are ICAO's standards or rules organized?
SARPs- Standards and Recommended Practices, set into 18 Annexes
143
How can an ICAO member do something non-standard from the international norm?
When impractical or a country just wants to/needs to deviate, they use the "filing of differences" protocol
144
What are the principle documents that affect airport operators?
FAA Sponsor Assurances, FAA
Advisory Circulars, FAA Orders, Airport Cooperative Research Program (ACRP) Reports, FAA Certification Alerts (known
as Cert Alerts, which update elements of Part 139), FAA Policy Guidance Letters (PGLs, used to update AIP policies), TSA
Security Directives, and TSA Information Circulars
145
What are the characteristics of an Advisory Circular?
ACs provide guidance and intent of FAR, informational, non-binding except when incorporated with a reference to a regulation.
146
What does the AC/150 series address?
airports and areas related to airport operations, planning, and management
147
What are FAA Certification Alerts (CertAlert) used for?
Give the FAA Safety and Operations Division a quick way to get critical guidance out on Part 139 compliance.
148
What is the importance of FAA Orders?
guidance and instruction on compliance, airport safety, operations, and other issues - they are the "rules" for airport management.
149
What is the function of FAA Order 5190.6B Airports Compliance Handbook?
It addresses grant assurances; minimum standards; exclusive rights; grant agreements; revenue-producing property; self-servicing and self-fueling; maintenance and operations;
approach protections and obstructions; airport closures, fees and charges; leasing, use agreements
150
What are examples of other documents that regulate or suggest best practices for airports?
- Transportation Research Board’s Airport Cooperative Research Program (ACRP) initiates research projects that provide best practices airport management, planning and operational issues.
- National Safe Skies Alliance Program for Applied Research in Airport Security (PARAS) researches best practices for security
- Radio Technical Commission for Aeronautics (RTCA) provide the regulatory requirements for airport security-related systems such as access controls perimeter intrusion, biometrics, and the identity management system.
151
What was the term for the agreement that historically preceded the AIP Grant obligations?
An AP-4 Agreement was used after 1946 when the government set the terms of transfer for operations and maintenance of airports.
152
How long does an airport's obligations last for a project after receiving grant money.
Up to 20 years depending on the useful life of the facilities or equipment.
153
Grant assurances balance what three competing but equally important interests?
They allow the airport executive to manage local affairs better.
* They meet the FAA requirement to ensure that federal funds are used effectively to meet the need for public air
transportation.
* They meet the federal government’s goal to promote social objectives, such as disadvantaged businesses and the
rights of those with disabilities.
154
Broadly, what are grant assurances?
Grant assurances are essentially a contract between an airport sponsor and the FAA. Funds are given to the airport on the condition the airport will be kept open, properly managed, and maintained.
155
What does the airport compliance manual provide guidance to FAA and airport operators for?
complaint resolution; rights
and powers of the airport; good title to the airport property; airport operations; exclusive rights; unjust discrimination;
minimum standards; aeronautical lease agreements; airport noise and access restrictions; airport financial responsibilities
and financial reports; revenue diversion; self-sustainability; rates and charges; land use and airspace protection; and
property reversions.
156
What are two ways to determine if an airport is federally obligated?
1) referencing FAA Order 5190.2R, List of Public Airports Affected by Agreements with the Federal Government.
2) reference the Airport Master Record (i.e., FAA 5010 Form), which indicates whether the airport is obligated.
157
What is the Airport Non Compliance List?
The ANL is a list of airports with egregious grant assurance violations who are no longer eligible for federal grants.
158
What are the categories of grant assurance duration and how long do they last?
- Grant agreements for development other than land purchase. Pavement and other facilities built to FAA
standards are designed to last at least 20 years
- Grant agreements for land purchase. AIP grant agreements for land purchase do not expire since the useful life
of land does not end or depreciate
- Surplus property deeds and non-surplus land conveyance documents. Documents conveying federal land and
property interests for airport use generally have no expiration date, and obligations continue indefinitely until the
sponsor is formally released from the FAA’s obligation
159
What are the categories of grant assurance duration and how long do they last?
- Grant agreements for development other than land purchase. Pavement and other facilities built to FAA
standards are designed to last at least 20 years
- Grant agreements for land purchase. AIP grant agreements for land purchase do not expire since the useful life
of land does not end or depreciate
- Surplus property deeds and non-surplus land conveyance documents. Documents conveying federal land and
property interests for airport use generally have no expiration date, and obligations continue indefinitely until the
sponsor is formally released from the FAA’s obligation
160
Boiled down, what are the main components of a grant assurance document?
*Maintain the airport in good and serviceable condition.
* Use specific lands approved by the FAA for non-aeronautical use to generate revenue to support the airport’s
aviation needs.
* Operate the airport in the public interest.
* Ensure there is no grant of an exclusive right for any aeronautical purpose or use.
161
What is the difference between CFR Part 13 and CFR Part 16?
CFR Part 13, Investigation and Enforcement complaints are considered informal, FAA is not obligated to hold itself to a deadline in its response.
14 CFR Part 16 Rules of Practice for Federally-Assisted Airport Enforcement Proceedings is a formal complaint, more serious of the two with deadlines and stringent requirements for the airport, the complainant, and the FAA. The FAA will respond within 6 months with its initial response.
Part 13 complaints may be filed at the ADO level, while Part 16 complaints must be filed directly with the Office of the FAA’s Chief Counsel in Washington, D.C.
162
What are approx 12 core management competencies of any business enterprise?
human resources, employee management,
organizational management, motivation and leadership quantitative analysis, commerce, business law, economics, investment management, budget
and accounting, marketing, and strategic planning.
163
What are approx 12 competencies of public administration?
management of public service organizations, leadership, professional ethics; policymaking, public finance, purchasing and procurement processes, communications, urban planning and land use; the social impact of the public process; politics; emerging disciplines such as environmental law, public
artwork, and the impact and use of GIS; and planning for emergencies and disasters.
164
What is Grant Assurance 4?
The airport must hold good title and be able to prove that all of the parcels on the airport layout plan (Exhibit A) have a clear title or a way to get there.
165
What is Grant Assurance 5?
Preserving Rights and Powers dictates that an airport cannot deprive the airport sponsor of its rights and powers to direct and control airport development and comply with the grant assurances. This prohibits an airport from selling, leasing, encumbering, or otherwise transferring or disposing of any part of its title or
other interests in the property shown on Exhibit “A,” without the prior written approval of the FAA.
166
How does the FAA influence land use and land use of the surrounding area of an airport?
Through grant assurances.
167
What is Grant Assurance 29?
Airport Layout Plan requires the airport sponsor to delineate the airport’s
boundaries, including all facilities, and to identify future development plans on its ALP. An ALP signed by the FAA is required for AIP grant eligibility.
168
What is Grant Assurance 21?
Compatible Land Use, which requires the airport to make a reasonable attempt
to restrict the use of adjacent land or land in the immediate vicinity to activities and purposes compatible with airport operations. (ie Residential development, schools, churches, hospitals, other public health facilities, and concert halls next to an airport are generally considered incompatible land use.)
169
What is Grant Assurance 20?
Hazard Removal and Mitigation, which requires the airport to take necessary actions to protect the airspace around the airport, including visual and instrument approach paths
170
What is Grant Assurance 19?
Operation and Maintenance, Addresses the day to day operations of an airport.
171
What is Grant Assurance 22?
Economic non-discrimination - airport must be available for public use on reasonable terms and without unjust discrimination to all types, kinds, and classes of Aeronautical activities, including commercial Aeronautical activities offering services at the airport
172
What is Grant Assurance 23?
Exclusive Rights - restricts the airport executive from granting any tenant the exclusive right to conduct
a particular commercial aeronautical service unless it would be unreasonably costly, burdensome, or impractical for more
than one FBO to provide such services, and if allowing more than one FBO to provide such services would require the
reduction of space leased to an existing tenant. Both conditions must be met
173
What are six areas of rules and regulations typically covered IAW Grant Assurance 19?
Security, Conduct of Individuals at airport, conduct of vendors and tenants, schedule of fees, rates, and charges, vehicle movement in the air operations areas and aircraft movement area, aircraft operations
174
What is Advisory Circular 150/5190-1?
Minimum Standards for Commercial Aeronautical Activities on Public Airports.
175
According to FAA Order 5190.6B Airport Compliance Manual (FAA, 2009, p 10-2), what are the benefits of minimum standards (MS)?
* To promote safety in all airport activities and maintain a high quality of service for airport users.
* To protect airport users from unlicensed and unauthorized products and services.
* To enhance the availability of adequate services for all airport users.
* To provide a clear and objective distinction between service providers that will provide a satisfactory level of service
and those that will not.
176
What are two sides of the same coin regarding Grant Assurance 23 (from the airport and tenant perspective)
From the airport - the fact that only one enterprise takes advantage of the opportunity does not constitute the grant of an exclusive right. From the tenant - the airport cannot adopt MS that are unreasonable and manipulated to protect an existing tenant’s interest.
177
What is Grant Assurance 39?
Competitive Access, requires large and medium hub airport operators to report to the Secretary of Transportation any denial of a request by an air carrier to access the airport
178
What is the FAA's position on hangar use and what are some examples of non-compliance?
Hangars should be used to store an aircraft — i.e., an approved aeronautical use.
Non approved uses include:
- Using a hangar as a residence.
* Using it for general storage of non-aeronautical items (boats, file boxes containing items that are not related to
aeronautical use).
* Any activity that impedes the movement of aircraft.
* Storage of inventory or items unrelated to an aeronautical use.
* Using it as a base of operations for a no-aeronautical business.
179
What are some examples of repairs pilots may perform on their aircraft IAW Part 43 Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, Rebuilding, and Alteration?
Preventive maintenance items can include:
* Tire repair, adding oil or air to landing gear shock struts.
* Replacing defective safety wiring or cotter keys.
* Simple fabric patches.
* Replenishing hydraulic fluid.
* Replacing safety belts and cleaning spark plugs
180
Why does the FAA discourage through the fence (TTF) agreements?
safety, security, and
economic equity concerns
181
What are the two types of airport revenue and an underlying principle of airport revenue?
Aeronautical and non-aeronautical / non-operating. Airport revenue must be used for airport related expenses.
182
What FAA line of business oversees airport fiscal practices relevant to federally mandated obligations that are conditions for receiving federal funds, what are its divisions?
Office of Airport Compliance and Management Analysis (ACO) and two divisions of ACO are:
Financial Management Analysis and Airport Compliance Program.
183
What are the five major functional areas of airport accounting?
Accounts Payable
Accounts Receivable
Payroll
General Ledger
Grant Accounting
184
How is 'break even' defined regarding an airport budget?
Break-even is defined as the annual cost for providing, operating, maintaining and administering an airport facility.
185
What are the two types of budgets?
Operating budgets: are impacted by short term factors focusing on revenues and expenses that result from the day-to-day operations and usually cover one fiscal year
Capital budgets: plan for the
acquisition of assets that have a useful life of more than one fiscal year, frequently prepared for a time frame as long as 5-10 fiscal years.
186
What are the four critical tasks for an airport executive for an operating budget?
* Plan for the operational needs of the organization.
* Obtain resources for the airport operating environment.
* Distribute those resources throughout the organization.
* Track the resource expenditures to ensure they are used effectively and efficiently.
187
What does the FAA require from airport sponsors regarding a capital improvement plan?
The FAA requires airport sponsors to submit a five-year capital improvement plan (and update it annually)
188
What are three expenses included in capital expense budgeting?
- Debt service on financed assets.
- Depreciation/amortization on assets funded with airport reserves (e.g., renewal and replacement funds).
- A coverage requirement on any revenue bond.
189
What is incremental budgeting and its pros and cons?
takes the previous year or
period’s actual numbers (or an annualization of year-to-date results) and adjusts those figures by a predetermined percentage: Pros - simple and most common budget, Cons - Possible to overspend and be wasteful or underspend in areas that need more money
190
What is zero based budgeting (ZBB) and its pros and cons?
Assumes a budget has no historical information - everything has to be freshly justified each year; pros- reduces waste and optimizes resources; cons - impractical to fully implement
191
What is management based objectives (MBO) budgeting are its pros and cons?
MBO takes a results oriented approach and using backwards planning to build the budget based on what is needed to achieve the desired results; pros- better connects management and employees for what is actually needed, cons- puts a strain on employees to meet an objective in a constrained time frame
192
What is activity based budgeting (ABB) and its pros and cons?
focuses on the activities of the airport rather than the functions; pros- its concentration on overhead costs is valuable for an airport where the overhead costs are a big part of its budget, cons - requires a lot of time and expense to implement and only works when paired with activity based costing (ABC).
193
What are the three basic financial statements that airports provide each year?
- Statement of Net Position/Assets (balance sheet).
- Statement of Revenues, Expenses and Changes in Net Position/Assets (income statement).
- Statement of Cash Flows.
194
What is Grant assurance 26?
Reports and Inspections, which implements the financial reporting provisions of the 1994 Authorization Act.
195
What forms must Commercial service airports
enplaning 2,500 passengers or more per year file annually?
Form 5100-126 Financial Governmental
Payment Report and Form 5100-127, Operating and Financial Summary within 120 days after the end of their fiscal year.
196
How often does an airport have to file a passenger facility charge (PFC) and AIP report to the FAA?
quarterly
197
On what conditions can an airport executive charge a two part landing fee? (ie per operation and by weight?)
(1) the two-part fee reasonably allocates costs to users on a rational and economically justified basis
(2) the total revenues from the two-part
landing fee do not exceed the allowable costs of the airfield.
198
What are three common aeronautical revenue sources?
landing fees, fuel flowage fee, ground and property leases
199
What are some examples of standard non-aeronautical revenue sources?
terminal rentals and concessions, rental car fees, vehicle parking, in-flight catering, advertising space, information technology services (e.g., internet service), and privilege or royalty revenue.
200
What are several sources of non-operating revenue sources (ie grants)
AIP grants (money is provided through the Aviation Trust Fund).
* TSA grants.
* PFC revenues.
* Airport equity (i.e., retained airport net revenues).
* State grants and other local funds.
* Tenant or other third-party funding.
* Customer Facility Charges (CFC).73
* Airport revenue bonds and other debt instruments.
201
What is the unallowable use of airport revenues for non-airport purposes?
revenue diversion
202
What is Grant assurance 25?
Airport Revenue, requires the use of airport revenue generated by the airport and local taxes on aviation fuel to be expended for the capital or operating costs of the airport, the local airport system, or other facilities
owned or operated by the airport sponsor that directly and substantially relate to the actual air transportation of passengers or the property or noise mitigation efforts
203
What are several examples of revenue diversion?
- Direct or indirect payments that exceed the fair and reasonable value of services received
- Payments to compensate sponsoring governmental bodies for lost tax revenues exceeding stated tax rates
- Loans to, or investment of, airport funds in a state or local agency at less than the prevailing interest rate.
- Leasing property or allowing the use of property for non-aeronautical purposes at less than fair market value rent.
204
What does the Single Audit Act of 1984 call for?
Under the Single Audit Act of 1984, the airport must conduct an annual audit and assure the government that airport funds
have been distributed appropriately
205
What is Grant assurance 24? (also captured in the 1982 Airport and Airway Improvement Act)
Fee and Rental Structure, requires the airport sponsor to set fees and lease rates and other charges directed at making the airport as self-sustaining as possible
206
Regarding an airport rate base, what is a residual agreement and who assumes the risk?
the air carrier pays the difference (and assumes the risk) if the airport cannot meet its cash flow requirements for the year.
207
Regarding an airport rate base, what is a compensatory agreement and who assumes the risk?
the airport operator establishes “cost centers,” and charges the user for the use of
those services. (airport operator assumes the risk because it needs to forecast the applicable costs)
208
An airport can set its rate according to a compensatory or residual or hybrid methodology as long as the rate are applied consistently for what kind of aeronautical users?
similarly situated aeronautical users
209
To be transparent to aeronautical users regarding airport fees, what four categories of information should be provided?
* Historical financial information for the two fiscal years before the current year.
* Economic, legal or financial justification for changes in the rates and charges at the airport.
* Traffic information for the preceding two years.
* Planning and forecast information to the extent applicable to current or proposed fees.
210
What are 5 valuable aspects of an airport business plan?
* Articulates the mission, vision and goals for the airport (maintains focus and provides a decision-making
framework).
* Sets forth the objectives for achieving goals (benchmarking).
* Identifies the action plans for accomplishing objectives (actionable plans).
* Establishes the parameters for checking progress (assessing success).
* Provides the basis for making adjustments — as needed — to achieve the goals and realize the mission and vision
for the airport.
211
What are three categories of procurement actions?
1. Construction Development.
2. Equipment Acquisitions.
3. Professional Services (A/E) Contracting
212
What are the 5 typical procurement steps?
1. Solicitation, Request for Bids or Request for Proposals. This is also called the Advertisement or Notice to
Bidders.
2. Bidding or Accepting Proposals
3. Bid/Proposal Evaluation. .
4. Award. This is the point when the sponsor formally awards the contract to the successful bidder.
5. Execution of Contract. This is the point at which the sponsor formally enters into a legally binding agreement to
perform services or provide goods.
213
What type of contract is typically required by the FAA?
fixed-fee, unless the FAA makes an exception to allow for a time and materials contract, sometimes referred to as a cost-plus fixed fee.
214
What are two significant factors about construction projects valued at over $100,000?
1) They must be publicly advertised with basic info on nature of the project, how to bid on the work, when bids are due, and the date, time and place of the bid opening.
2) federal regulations require the airport to obtain a bid guarantee equal to at
least 5 percent of the bid price and performance and payment bonds equaling 100 percent of the contract
215
What is significant about federally funded construction projects valued at over $2,000?
The airport must comply with the Davis-Bacon Act, providing a weekly reporting of wages paid (i.e., the minimum wage requirement).
216
What FAA publication has information on various required programs associated with construction/equipment/land contracts? e.g. DBE, Civil Rights Title VI Assurances, Clean Air/Water Pollution Control, Copeland Anti-Kickback Act, Distracted Driving, Energy
Conservation, Equal Employment Opportunity, Fair Labor Standards Act, Occupational Safety and Health Act, and
Contract Provision Guidelines for Obligated Sponsors and Airport Improvement Program Projects.
217
What are Value Engineering provisions?
VE promotes the substitution of materials and methods with less expensive alternatives that do not compromise functionality.
218
How does a contract under the sealed bid method work?
contracts for construction and equipment must go to the lowest responsive and responsible bidder.
219
What process is used for a competitive proposal?
Request For Proposal
220
What are 5 alternate delivery methods for construction projects?
- Construction Manager at Risk (CMAR) similar to a general contractor that is retained to provide advice to the airport operator during the design phase, take bids for construction from multiple prime trade contractors, and manage the prime trade
contractors
- Design Build, one entity — the design-build team — works under a single contract with the project owner to provide design and construction services
- Task Order Contracts, Task-order contracts are used by buyers that cannot
predetermine the precise quantities of supplies or services they will require during the contract period
- Professional Services Contracts, used for program management, construction management, planning studies,
feasibility studies, architectural services, preliminary engineering, design, engineering, surveying, mapping, and
related services.
- Single Source/Non-competitive contracts, require prior approval from the ADO and typically are approved only
when the item or service is available from a single source (i.e., unique patent rights, secret processes, or control of certain materials) or when competition is deemed inadequate, or during an emergency
221
What is significant about contracts exceeding $250,000?
The Office of Civil Rights requires airports that receive FAA AIP grants, and that will award prime contracts with a cumulative total value exceeding $250,000 in FAA funds in a federal fiscal year, to have a DBE program.
222
Annually, about how much money is awarded to DBEs and how is a firm certified as a DBE?
In a typical year, airports award over $200 million in contracts to DBEs, and airport concession DBEs earn over $1 billion
in revenues. To participate, firms must be certified by a state Unified Certification Program (UCP, or Certifiers) agency
223
What percentage of DOT funds must be expended using DBE firms and how do airports manage DBE participation?
Since 1983, there has been a statutory provision requiring DOT to ensure that at least 10 percent of the funds authorized
for the highway and transit financial assistance programs be expended with DBEs. Airports must established a 3 year goal and percentage for selecting DBE firms.
224
What is significant about primary/commercial service airports that receive AIP funding and that have concession revenues of $200,000 or more from either car rental or non-car rental concessions?
ACDBE Regulation Title 49 CFR Part 26 requires that these airports have a ACDBE program.
225
Regarding IT planning, implementation, upgrading or maintenance, what four areas should an airport executive consider?
- Compatibility and integration. Whether the changes, acquisitions or implementations integrate with the entire IT system’s technological requirements.
* Security and safety. Plans must be in place to ensure that changes, acquisitions or implementations can be made
such that the airport can maintain security and safety concerns during the affected period and for any unexpected
delays associated with these processes
* Scalability - plans are in place for managing the effects that result from future expansions or modifications to part or all of the IT infrastructure.
- Usability. Ask: “Can stakeholders easily use or be effectively and efficiently trained to use the IT system?”
226
What are integral parts of the business continuity plan and information technology disaster recovery plan?
Data backup and recovery
227
What are several examples of airside IT systems?
resource management systems, noise monitoring, airfield lighting, Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS), automated weather observation systems (AWOS), surface movement radar, and fuel monitoring systems
228
What are 7 categories of landside IT systems?
- Passenger processing systems - often involve common-use systems for processing and guiding passengers, can include common-use passenger processing systems, local departure control systems for passenger check-in, boarding pass printing, and baggage handling, multi-user flight information display systems (MUFIDS), and baggage sort/RFID
Business and financial management systems
tailored to fit the airport, such as email, word processing and file storage used for financial management, human resources, property management, asset management, website maintenance, email and telephony
Asset or property management systems that records ownership and usage and monitors and maintains items of value, tangible assets such as buildings and equipment and intangible concepts such as
intellectual property, assist users with property and parcel management, lease and concession management, invoicing and billing, maintenance, and work order tracking.
The Physical Access Control System (PACS)is used to restrict or track the movement of individuals who have been issued
airport credentials throughout the airport’s security areas, Access control systems can include:
* Proximity cards.
* Magnetic stripes or barcodes.
* Keypads.
* Biometrics.
* Smart cards with integrated biometrics.
* A combination of these technologies.
Airport badging/credentialing systems help automate and manage the process required to obtain a security identification
display badge. Fingerprint records from the Criminal History Record Check, the Security Threat Assessment results
Facility and maintenance systems ensure that mechanical systems work properly so that building environments are
pleasant and functional, these include
building management systems that control lighting, electrical power, heating, ventilation and air conditioning, and at some
airports, passenger movement systems (i.e., trains).
The Airport Operational Database (AODB) is a centralized data storage location whose resources (i.e., data) are shared by
other systems such as the flight information display system (FIDS), building management systems, gate management and baggage handling systems, repository for all operative systems. The AODB supplies information to airport personnel in the various departments; to airlines, passengers (flight and baggage information), visitors (gate arrivals and departure information); and to authorities operating at the airport (gatemanagement), Customs and Border
Protection and police. It provides all flight-related data accurately and efficiently in a
real-time environment.
229
Who are the 3 critical stakeholders in updating IT systems?
the chief executive officer (CEO, often the airport executive), the chief information officer (CIO), and the stakeholder executive
230
What is the goal of Airports Surveying-GIS Program (AGIS)?
AGIS program’s goal is the centralized
storage and access of GIS data for most U.S. Part 139 and NPIAS airports
231
What has allowed Airport Layout Plans (ALPs) to transition from paper to electronic format?
Geographic Information Systems (GIS)
232
In 2020 what percentage of airports failed to pass basic cyber security protocols?
97%
233
What is the umbrella term used to describe the crime of breaking into an individual’s computer to access personal or sensitive information and can be White-Hat, Grey-Hat or Black-Hat?
hacking/hackers
234
What is a hidden collective of internet sites only accessible by a specialized web browser, known as a TOR browser. It is used for keeping internet activity anonymous and private for both legal and illegal applications
Darkweb
235
What can come in the form of emails, messages, phone calls or websites and is designed to steal information such as credit card numbers or personally identifiable information such as a Social Security number or a driver’s license number and has a specialized form?
Phishing/spear phishing
236
What is designed to gain access to or cause damage to a computer and can be activated when a recipient of a message, email or link clicks on the link or downloads attached
software, and includes ransomware, spyware, scareware, adware, Trojans, viruses and worms
Malware (malicious software)
237
What captures and holds computer files hostage, or encrypts them, until a ransom is paid?
ransomware
238
What collects data about the computer user’s use, such as websites, or keystrokes, so passwords and personal identifiable information can be stolen
spyware
239
What creates a fake warning message suggesting a computer has been infected with a virus, while suggesting you buy a particular malware removal product to solve the problem?
scareware
240
Wat sends specific advertisements to users depending on their web-browsing history in the form of pop-ups, and can replace your preferred browser and homepage?
adware
241
What are a delivery method for malware, disguised as a legitimate file and will run in the background so the user doesn’t know they have been infected?
trojans
242
What are a piece of code that self-replicates and spreads to another computer. They have a specific purpose such as deleting files or creating errors in software.
viruses
243
What can self-replicate and are designed to do harm. However, rather than infecting files that require human activity to pass them on, they can spread through networks without assistance?
worms
244
What are intended to disable a machine or system, making it unavailable to users by overloading systems with too much information?
denial of service attack
245
What is also a legitimate form of collecting and examining large databases in order to generate new information, but when combined with ill-intent, an individual’s
social media profiles and other data, can be collected and used to determine locations, purchase histories, and sensitive personally identifiable information (i.e., credit card numbers).
identity theft/data mining
246
What is known as the art of human manipulation, is when an attacker pretends
to be someone or something known or trusted to the victim, and then uses leverage to gain information the attacker desires.
social engineering
247
What is an example of a system where it is essential to protect from data penetrations, malware, and other cyberattacks and should be separated to the extent possible from other airport systems.
specific systems such as physical access control system (PACS)
248
What are examples of insurance "riders" that an airport executive might work with an insurance company about?
coverage for public events, construction
projects, and the use of airport facilities for filming, advertising, or entertainment productions
249
What is the most basic policy that most commercial aeronautical service providers should hold?
Commercial General
Liability (CGL) policy.
250
What 3 specific coverage areas does a CGL policy typically provide?
1) Hangar Keepers Liability provides coverage for damage to or destruction of the aircraft of others while in the insured’s custody for storage, repair or safekeeping and while in or on the scheduled premises
2) Premises Liability provides coverage for injury to persons or property.
3) Product Liability provides coverage on products such as fuel and oil that tenants may sell.
251
What does 'self insurance' entail for an airport?
Self-insurance requires the ability to budget and invest large amounts of liquid capital that the airport can use to pay future judgments against the airport
252
Airport leasing should begin with the .... which often stems from the....Long-term planning is essential in effective commercial development and ensures the.... of the property.
Airport Master Plan...Airport Business Plan or Land Use Plan...highest and best use
