CMD ALL Flashcards by Ryan Beale

What are the 4 types of explosive effects?

Blast
Fragmentation
Earth shock
Incendiary

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Explain how an ISFE is attached to safety fuse?

Crimped twice, 90 degrees apart from the flat edge

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Explain how a detonator is attached to safety fuse?

Crimped 5-10mm from the open end.

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What are the 4 hazards associated with homing guidance?

RF emissions
High voltages
High pressure coolants
Toxins & carcinogens

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What are the 3 identifying features of a Time Combustion Fuze (PTTF)?

Multi part body
Vent holes
Graduated Time scales

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What are the 3 main purposes of driving band?

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What do the following NATO colour codes indicate;
White –
Dark violet –
Black –
Grey –
Light green – Smoke
Silver –

White – Illuminating
Dark violet – Incapacitating
Black – Armour defeating
Grey – Riot control/toxic chemical
Light green – Smoke
Silver – Countermeasures

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What are the two methods of firing naval mines?

Contact & Influence

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A depth charge most common firing method is?

Hydrostatic pressure

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What are the four sections of Torpedo?

Guidance
Warhead
Energy
Propulsion

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What is the maximum time setting for fuzes known to function on short delay?

35 seconds

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Name two ways of all ways acting fuzes?

Multi way & Universal

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When should a detonator not be removed from a fuze pocket of a HE bomb?

After 14 days

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What are the expected combinations of functioning actions likely to be present in a modular/smart fuze?

Anti-disturbance
Long delay
Influence
Impact (short delay)

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Assuming a Crackbarrel LOT has been successful what result would you expect?

Fuze removed leaving the body of the munition with the main fill exposed.

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What is the rearward safety distance of the De-Armer?

50m

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In what position in store would an indirect action Fuze be fitted?

Tail

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What 3 attachments can be added to ADW to reduce penetration/skipping?

Kopfring, anti-skipping plate, stabo

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What is the purpose of retarded tail?

Slown down ADW inflight to orientate towards target allow and allow for separation from A/C.

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Define the term ID?

Positive identification of an item EO.

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Define the term diagnosis?

Determining the arming state of an item of EO.

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When is a munition deemed as buried?

When it is 2.5x of its length deep.

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When conducting s sub-munition search, what are the 6 key points of information that should be briefed to the team prior?

Threat
Hazards
Actions of find
Spacings
Baseline command
Area of search

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What is the expected failure rate of submunitions?

10%, 30% operational

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What standoff is required when using the De-armer in disruptor mode?

150mm

After how many firings are a Rocket Wrenches venturi’s replaced?

150

List five materials that a mine body can be constructed off?

Metal Plastic Wood Explosive Concrete

Who is responsible for the disposal of OME found on RAF property?

RAF

Who is responsible for the disposal of OME below the high water mark?

Royal Navy

Who is responsible for the disposal of German DW found on civilian property in the UK?

British Army

What is the explosive effect of an underwater ground/bottom line?

Bubble pulse

What are the four forms of detonation?

High order Low order Sympathetic Burn to detonation

What are the four main characteristics of an explosion?

Heat Light Sound Pressure

When disposing of rocket, generically where are the donor charges placed?

Warhead Motor / Propellent Venturi

When prodding what angle should be prodder be used at?

30 degrees

What are the three situations (uses) a booby trap could be used for?

Anti-personnel Anti-vehicle Runway cratering Area denial

What are the two-key identifying feature of an anti-vehicle submunition?

Multi part construction Requires stand off

When using D2, what is the minimum burn time of safety fuze that can be used?

4 minutes

What length of safety fuse is to be tested in accordance with JSP 364 and what time tolerance is applied?

300mm, 35-43 seconds

42. What is the minimum contact required when connecting det cord with tape?

100mm

From which organisation is UK EOD policy and Doctrine derived from?

NATO

What are the two main hazards associated with armour penetrating shot projectiles?

DU, tracer pockets

46. At what distance do you start 1 in 3s procedures when dealing with influence fuzes/munitions?

10m

What key information should the operator aim to identify during a long range recce?

Safe access route Potential hazards Secondary hazards Confirm the target Is there multiple targets Possible reasons for failure

List the options for dealing with access denial devices?

High order Deflagration Disruption Remote Weight dropper Semi remote Manual

What can be fitted to increase the accuracy of a GP bomb?

GPS, INS, Laser homing

State the difference between an inline booster and a wrap around booster for a guided weapon?

After burn out inline boosters remain on the weapon After burn out wrap around boosters are discarded from the weapon

Explain the three stages or process for shielding a wire or plug?

3 layers of tape, 1 layer of aluminium foil and 1 layer of tape

What are the three types of additional booster that are associated with guided weapon?

Inline booster Strap on booster Wrap around booster

What are the four roles and categories of guided weapons?

AAM – short range, long range ASM – tactical, strategic SAM – Handheld, short range, long range SSM – anti armour, tactical, strategic

What type of fuze is expected as either primary or secondary means of initiation for all guided weapons?

Contact

Explain the difference between a fuze and a pistol?

Pistols contain no explosives, fuzes contain explosives

What are the six W’s?

What where when Why who whether

Generically what are the different types of protection/mitigation that can be used to reduce potential damage from OME?

Walls Surrounds Mounds Trenches Vents Abutments

Given an item weighing up to 2.5kg how many sandbags will give reasonable protection against splinters only?

32 sandbags

What are the four categories of RSPs?

Component isolation/removal Power interruption/removal Mechanical incapacitation Explosive neutralization

What two options are available when considering access to a deep buried bomb?

Open cast & shafting

When initiating by combination, what is the minimum length of safety fuse allowed?

150mm

What stand off is required when using Baldrick?

200mm

What is the waiting period after an Electrical misfire?

10 mins

What is the waiting period after a combination (initiation) misfire?

30 mins

What is the waiting period after a non-electrical misfire?

30 mins

6 Once fuze removal has been successful, what is the preferred method of initiation used to destroy the body of the munition?

D4 stores own

How long must the spare ends fo detonating cord be;

a. Without a sleeve – 300mm b. With sealing sleeve – 100mm

What is the VoD range of Primary high exlosives?

3500-5500 m/s

What are the three groups that projectiles are divided into?

HE Carrier Shot

What does the symbol CCC represent on a munition?

The colour Effect

What do the following NATO colour codes represent?

Silver – countermeasure Violet – incapacitating White – Illuminating

What are the influence firing systems of naval weapons?

Magnetic Acoustic Seismic Pressure

At what distance should an EOD operator start magnetic influence precautions?

25m

What are three effects of a booby trap?

Lower morale Raise a sense of uncertainty Frustrate & delay military activity

What are the three classifications of a booby trap?

Anti-personnel AV Delayed action

Name four of the in-service explosives?

PE8 SX4 FLCC Det Cord

When configuring the mini DRFD what is the recommended distance between the transmitter and the receiver?

During peacetime numerous items of LSA have been recovered from an area, which has had no previous military occupiers; who is responsible for ensuring the area is cleared?

British army – RLC

What are the three methods of fuze immunisation?

Methods A, C, J

What type of fuze is method A used against?

ECR – electro capacitor resistance

State the makeup of method C?

1400170g salt HTH/HTB 0.5 litres luke warm water House hold bleach Red dye Super tropical bleach

What are the three temperature gradients used during a chemical task?

Inverse Neutral Lapse

What chemical agents will turn three colour detector paper?

Red – H Amber/Yellow – G Green – V

In quantities less than 12kg what 3 agents are best suited to control venting by agent code?

AC CK CG

What are the ideal weather conditions when dealing with a chemical munition?

75 degree Fahrenheit Strong lapse (-3) 5-25kph wind 1000-1600hrs

What chemical agents can cam detect?

G – Nerve agents H – Blister agents

What is the maximum net quantity of propellant a DEOD Op can burn?

100kg

What are the ten phases of an EOD task?

Tasking Arrival Location Access Recce Identification/diagnosis Damage limitation RSP Site remediation Recovery/reporting

Which protective works are the most appropriate to protect underground services outside the crater distance?

Trenching

Earth shock is dependant on what three factors?

Size of the munition Depth of the munition NEQ of the munition

What is an EOD operators responsibility during a tasking?

Execution of a safe and timely RSP Safety of the team Command of the team Explosive safety Restore situation to normal

To what depth will vallon detect LMC and HMC items?

LMC – 150mm HMC – 300mm

List agencies that are available upon request to provide information during an EOD task?

DSTL, EODTIC, DEODTIS

Which NATO EOD form is used to task an EOD/EOR?

EOD 200

What are the four components of EOD/S policy?

Freedom of action Preservation of life and assets Restoration of life and assets Restoration of normality Gathering information

What are the four EOD tasking categories and associated threat?

A – Grave and immediate threat to life B – Indirect threat to life C – Little threat D – No threat at present

What are the four different types of command guidance?

Wire Radio Beam rider Electro optical

What are the four different types of guidance section?

Homing Command Pre-set

Name three identifying feature of a mechanical time fuze?

Multi part body Graduated time scale No blow out holes

What are the four main parts of a booby trap?

Firing mechanism Explosive charge Means of connecting mechanism to the charge Means of concealment and operating the trap

What are the five main methods of operation for M+BT?

Pull Pressure Tension release Pressure release Delay

CMD ALL Flashcards

(99 cards)