CMT EATS REVISION Flashcards

(129 cards)

1
Q

What does TRaPS stand for?

A

Tactical Rapid and Primary Survey

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2
Q

Which descriptor is used for all medical documentation once completed?

A

Official - Medical

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3
Q

After Celox™ has been inserted into a wound Correctly, what should you do now?

A

Secure Celox with an Emergency Bandage.

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4
Q

Which of the following is the first principle of Care under Fire?

A

Win the Fire Fight

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5
Q

‘Medical Units Require General ___________ to perform their humanitarian duties.’

A

Protection

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6
Q

Approximately, how long will it take for a casualty to bleed to death who has suffered a major haemorrhage?

A

1 Minute

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7
Q

Using the mneumonic CABC what does the first ‘C’ stand for?

A

Catastrophic Haemorrhage

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8
Q

You have a casualty with an Emergency Bandage in Place which is soaked in blood, approximately how much blood would have been lost from the circulatory system?

A

250ml

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9
Q

“Communication is the transfer of messages from one person to another”

Which of the following can hinder communication?

  • Time of Day
  • Quiet Environment
  • Stress
  • Tiredness
A

Stress

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10
Q

How long should direct pressure be placed on a wound after Celox Rapid™ has been inserted?

A

1 Minute

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11
Q

Role 4 is normally provided out of the

__________ by the NHS and sevice facilities.

A

Operational Theatre

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12
Q

Name one piece of Personal Protection Equipment (PPE) you should wear to protect against bodily fluids.

A

Apron

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13
Q

In what recepticle would a contaminated sharp be placed?

A

Sharps Bin

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14
Q

English Common Law identifies three components of valid consent, one of these is “Voluntaries”.

A

Competency

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15
Q

Name 1 item you can use to treat a Catastrophic Bleed?

A

Tourniquet

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16
Q

What is the name of this {IMAGE OF RED DIAMOND}

A

Red Crystal

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17
Q

According to the Geneva Convention the wounded and sick must be cared for in the same way as friendly troops.

One of these rules is “Women treated no less favouribly than men”

Name One other rule.

A

Protect and respect

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18
Q

Role 2 provides a greater Medical capability than Role 1 and provides the Link Between?

A

1&3

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19
Q

What is the name of the Haemostatic agent used for Catastrophic Haemorrhage?

A

Celox

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20
Q

Which of the following are two of the four pillars of Clinical Governance?

A

Clinical Effectiveness & Risk Management

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21
Q

There are two types of consent one of these is Explicit.

What is the name of the other?

A

Implied

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22
Q

Medical Terminology

What does the prefix “Hypo” mean?

A

Low

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23
Q

Medical Personnel when captured do not become Prisoner of War (POW) but instead are classed as?

A

Retained Personel

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24
Q

One basic observation for a traumatic casualty is the SpO2, what does this measure?

A

Oxygen Saturation

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25
Which of the following may obstruct a Casualties airway?
Maxillofacial Injuries
26
Which role does the following statement describe? | "Provides care under direction of a Doctor such as Regiment Aid Post"
Role 1
27
Which of the following is a possible complication of ET intubation?
Hypoxia
28
Which of the following can be used to clear an airway blockage?
Backslaps
29
Which of the following is a potential complication of a | Cricothyroidotomy ?
Asphyxia
30
Casualties who will not tolerate an OPA may require the insertion of a _______?
NPA
31
Neurogenic shock is described as: "Inneffective ________of the blood vessels"
Nervous Control
32
Which of the following sign/symptom would indicate a Tension Pneumothorax?
Tracheal deviation (Late Sign)
33
What condition is the following statement describing? 'Reccurring sudden attack of difficulty breathing, characterised by wheezing and difficult expiration'
Asthma
34
'Insertion of a wide bore cannula through the 2nd intercostal space, mid-clavicular line on the affected side to alleviate a life threatening tension pneumothorax'
Needle Thoracocoentesis
35
'Toxic Shock is the body's reaction to a______
Toxin
36
An open injury that may allow air to pass freely between the tissues
Open/Sucking Pneumothorax
37
A small penetrating injury that often seals itself
Simple Pneumothorax
38
An injury that does not allow the air to leave the pleural cavity, causing a build up of pressure in the chest cavity.
Tension Pneumothorax
39
Angina Pectoris is pain, in the chest, caused by: "A temporary _________ in myocardial tissue and the accummilation of CO2 and lactic acid during a period of increased O2 demand".
Lack of Oxygen
40
Hypovolaemic shock translates to?
Too little fluid circulating in the system
41
Hypovolaemia translates to?
Low volume of blood
42
What does the following definition describe? "Death or damage to an area of heart muscle, usually following blockage or narrowing of a coronary artery"
Acute Myocardial Infarction
43
There are two classifications of a Haemothorax, one of these is a simple Haemothorax.
Massive
44
When managing a casualty in a Semi-Permisive or Permisive environment, who has a suspected pneumothorax, what mnemonic would be used to assess the breathing?
RISENFALL
45
The presence of air in the pleural cavity
Pneumothorax
46
The presence of blood in the chest cavity
Haemothorax
47
The breaking of two or more ribs in two or more adjacent places
Flail Segment
48
'Flap' Valve of tissue prevents air from leaving chest cavity
Tension Pneumothorax
49
Which of the following would you NOT do for the management of shock?
Ignore Them
50
Cardiogenic shock is described as?
Inadequately Functioning Heart
51
The following definiation decribes what? "Cessasion of all effective cardiac output"
Cardiac Arrest
52
02 Cylinder CD
460L
53
02 Cylinder HX
2300L
54
02 Cylinder ZX
3040L
55
The brain stem is made up of three parts.
Medulla Oblongata Pons Varolii Mid Brain
56
Which of the following is part of the Upper Airway?
Epiglottis
57
Severe Heat Illness occurs when the 'CORE' temperature rises above?
41°C
58
The onset of Hypothermia will occur when the 'CORE' temperature falls below what temperature?
35°C
59
An Airway problem may be Immediate,Insidious or _______
Delayed
60
There are three main types of traumatic chest injuries, two of which are Pneumothorax and Haemothorax. What is the third type of chest injury?
Flail Segment
61
________ is a disorder in which there is inadequate insulin for carbohydrate metabolism absorbed from gastro-intestinal tract that can not be metabolised or stored, which results in increased levels of glucose in blood stream"
Diabetes
62
What does PEARL stand for?
Pupils are equal and react to light
63
Systemic circulation is the passage of blood from the heart around the body and back to the heart. Is this statement TRUE/FALSE?
TRUE
64
A CMT 1 on the scene of a Mass Casualty Incident can order the 'T4' Expectant triage catagory to be used. Is this statement TRUE/FALSE.
FALSE
65
Advanced Airway: "Tracheal Intubation requires the passing of a cuffed ET tube through the ________ _________ and into the ________
Vocal Chords and into the Trachea
66
The Meninges have a number of functions name one?
Protection
67
Name one type valve/seal used for open chest injury?
Chest Seal
68
Name ONE contra - indication for the use of Entonox.
Chest Injury
69
What colour triage tag would be used on a 'Immediate' casualty?
Red
70
Which of the Blood cells helps with clotting after wounding?
Red
71
``` Semiconscious Exhaustion Cyanosis Silent Chest RR>40min Hypotensive The above Signs and Symptoms indicates _____ Asthma. ```
Life Threatening
72
< 750ml of Blood Loss
Class 1
73
750-1500ml of Blood Loss
Class 2
74
1500-2000ml of Blood Loss
Class 3
75
>2000ml of Blood Loss
Class 4
76
Which of the blood cells carries oxygen?
Red
77
A casualty has sustained head trauma (No external wound isolated), on examination his left pupil is slugish to reaction and dilated. This will indicate a brain injury on the right side. Is this statement TRUE/FALSE.
FALSE
78
Outer layer of the brain
Dura Mater
79
Middle layer of the brain
Arachnoid Mater
80
Inner layer of the brain
Pia Mater
81
Name one indication of a partially Obstructed airway.
Facial Trauma
82
The placement of small cuffed tracheostomy tube, usually a size 6 into the ________ via an incision in the cricothyroid membrane.
Trachea
83
When should a Shallow trench latrine no longer be used and filled in?
3/4 Full
84
Entonox is composed of 50% oxygen and 50% _______
Nitrous Oxide
85
A _______ can be defined as: "a living organism which causes damage or illness to humans or their possessions or otherwise interferes with their interests"
Pest
86
Which of the following is a reason for rodent control? - Annoyance - Keep numbers down - Fear - Reduce waste
Reduce Waste
87
FMed 826
Field Medical Card
88
FMed 827
Field Medical Continuation Card
89
FMed 825
Plastic Wallet
90
When using the mneumonic USSR for waste groups what does it stand for?
U-Urine S-Soil S-Sullage R-Refuse
91
How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?
31
92
What are the 2 types of lifecycle for an insect?
Complete and Incomplete
93
How long does a Refuse/Ash pit last for?
24hrs
94
Short halt camp duration
Upto 24hrs
95
Temporary camp duration
24hrs-7 Days
96
Semi-Permanent
7 Days-6 Months
97
Permanent
6 Months+
98
What species of rodent weighs approx 20g
House mouse
99
What species of rodent has spindle shaped droppings laid in groups
Brown Rat
100
What species of rodent has ears that are large, hairless and almost transparent
Black Rat
101
How long would a shallow trench urinal las for 250 men approximately?
24hrs
102
There are two main manual procedures that can be used to open and maintain the airway. One of these is the head tilt chin lift. Name the other
Jaw Thrust
103
When siting a camp what two things are you looking for in regards to a water supply?
Quality and Quantity
104
Heat exhaustion occurs between?
39 and 41°C
105
During complete metamorphosis the arthropod goes through four stages. What is the 3rd stage called?
Pupa
106
What does DNBI stand for?
Disease non battle injury
107
Disease is spread in 2 ways, what are they called?
Mechanical and Biological
108
Insecticides have two durations of use, one of these is knockdown. What is the other?
Residual
109
What type of diabetes mellitus is insulin defendant?
Type 1
110
What type of defibrillator is the Laerdal FR3
Automated External
111
What are bones in the lower arm?
Ulna & Radius
112
Definition of Anaphylaxis is: | "Anaphylaxis is best described as a __________ allergic reaction (hypersensitivity), often affecting the whole body
Life threatening
113
What is the name of the link between the brain and spinal cord?
Brain stem
114
There are two types of nervous system, Sympathetic is one, name the other?
Parasympathetic
115
Pons means "Bridge". So the Pons Varolii links (bridges) various parts of the brain to one another. It joins the cerebrum through the _______ to the medulla and cerebellum
Mid Brain
116
Adding ibuprofen when available can reduce the need for morphine and improve the quality of analgesia by what percentage?
20-30%
117
________ is an under used form of pain relief, the fact that a trained medic is on scene will make most casualties feel better
Reassurance
118
Pain Management | Physical pain relief can come in the form of ________ and splintage
Immobilisation
119
Outer layer of the heart
Epicardium
120
Middle layer of the heart
Myocardium
121
Inner layer of the heart
Endocardium
122
Definition of a pressure point: | These are sites where an _______ can be compressed against a firm underlying surface
Artery
123
What % of 02 will be delivered at the mask when using the BVM with 02 attached but no reservoir bag
21%
124
Name one cause of Pneumothorax
Trauma
125
The Nervous System. The cerebrum has two large hemispheres, whithin these hemispheres there are large nerves which converge in the medulla oblongata. This convergance allows the Right side of the brain to control the _____ side of the body and vice versa.
Left
126
When sizing an OPA the measurment is taken from the ______ of the ______ to the angle of the _____
Bottom of the ear to the angle of the jaw
127
A injury that has broken a bone at the site of impact, with no wound is known as a _____ fracture.
Closed
128
What is average blood volume for a 70Kg Adult?
5-5.5L
129
How may pairs of Cranial Nerves are there?
12