COA Flashcards -
1
Q
How are systemic medications administered?
A
Orally, injection (subcutaneously or intramuscularly) or intravenously
2
Q
How should drops be properly instilled into a patient’s eye?
A
Into the lower cul de sac (lower fornix)
3
Q
What does the term idiosyncrasy refer to with ophthalmic drugs?
A
A bizarre, peculiar reaction to a drug that is not commonly seen, such as; tremors, excitability or even collapse
4
Q
What is the name of the instrument used to neutralize lenses?
A
Lensometer (Lensmeter)
5
Q
When recording a prism in a spectacle prescription, what does the abbreviation BI stand for?
A
Base In
6
Q
What is determined by focusing the thin lines in a manual lensometer?
A
The sphere of the spectacle prescription
7
Q
What is the first step in performing lensometry?
A
Focus the eyepiece
8
Q
When PRK is bring performed, time remaining in the procedure should be announced in increments of ______.
A
10 Seconds
9
Q
Name the organism that is most destructive to the eye
A
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
10
Q
What procedure using an Argon Laser is thought to destroy areas of ischemic retina?
A
Panretinal photocoagulation or panretinal laser
11
Q
What type of intraocular injection is made at the Pars Plana site with a needle and syringe of medication?
A
Intravitreal Injection
12
Q
What are the parallel movements of the eyes from one gaze position to another
A
Versions
13
Q
What is the movement of one eye called?
A
Duction
14
Q
Versions and ductions are tested by using ______ to test the six pairs of ______ muscles.
A
Six Cardinal positions, yoke
15
Q
The movement of the eye outward toward the temple is called ______
A
Abduction
16
Q
What is the technique used to measure the radius of curvature of the anterior corneal surface?
A
A-scan Keratometry Length Measurements
17
Q
Keratometry is performed with a device called a ______
A
Keratometer or ophthalmometer
18
Q
Give three examples in which a Keratometry measurement would be useful
A
Contact lens fitting, refractive surgery, intraocular lens calculations, keratoconus
19
Q
Keratometry is measured in ______
A
Diopters
20
Q
Measuring intraocular pressure is also called
A
Tonometry
21
Q
The higher the intraocular pressure of the eye, the ______ the eye
A
Harder
22
Q
Applanation tonometry displaces less than ______ of aqueous.
A
0.5 microliters
23
Q
When recording intraocular pressure, the reading of the Goldmann applanation tonometer scale should be multiplied by ______.
A
10
24
Q
Because there are no rods or cones in the optic nerve head a ______ blind spot is created in the normal visual field.
A
Physiologic
25
A defect in the patient's superior temporal retina, will affect the patient's ______ field of vision
Inferior nasal
26
The two basic methods employed to map the field of vision are ______ and ______ perimetry
Kinetic, static
27
A localized area of reduced sensitivity in a visual field that is surrounded by an area of greater sensitivity is termed a ______.
Scotoma
28
An unfocused eyepiece can lead to an error of ______
1 diopter in the K reading
29
How many meridians are measured in keratometry?
2 meridians (usually 90 degrees apart)
30
The average K reading is ______
43-44 diopters
31
Keratometry measures the ______ of the anterior curvature of the cornea
Central 3.3 mm
32
The diffusion of oxygen through a contact lens material is referred to as ______.
DK value
33
True or False: The application and evaluation of a diagnostic lens on the eye is the best way to fit a contact lens
True
34
Name the instrument used to determine the posterior surface radius of curvature of a rigid contact lens
Radiuscope and/or Contacto Guage
35
Increased thirst, excessive urine production, increased hunger and weight loss are characteristics of which endocrine disease?
Diabetes Insipidus
36
What finding can occur 6 to 8 hours after a metallic foreign body enters the cornea?
Rust ring
37
Why are alkali burns more serious than acid burns on the cornea?
Alkali burns penetrate deeper
38
Variability in the functions of levator and extraocular muscles is characteristic of which systemic disease?
Myasthenia gravis
39
What is the name of the muscle membrane covering the interior sclera?
(Bulbar) Conjunctiva
40
What type of glaucoma constitutes an ocular emergency?
Acute angle-closure glaucoma
41
Protocols for pressure patching or shields require that adhesive tape must be applied from the ______ to the ______.
Bridge of the nose, ear lobe
42
What is the minimum thickness of safety lenses?
3.0 mm
43
What is the name of the important screening process used in emergencies to determine the patient's ocular needs?
Triage
44
What is a hemorrhage confined to the anterior chamber termed?
Hyphema
45
______ drugs induce contractions of the iris sphincter
Miotic
46
Name the three types of ophthalmic preparations placed directly in the eye
Solutions, suspensions and ointments
47
What is the main disadvantage of using an ophthalmic solution?
The duration of contact with the eye is short, therefore it requires frequent installation
48
What is the disadvantage of using an ophthalmic ointment?
The ointment reduces vision by creating a greasy film over the surface of the cornea, and it is best used at bedtime.
49
Gross evaluation of the patient's peripheral vision can be accomplished with ______ visual field testing.
Confrontation
50
The ______ visual field test compares the boundaries of the patient's visual field with that of the examiner.
Confrontation
51
The amsler grid test determines the presence and location of defects in the ______ portion of the visual field.
central
52
During amsler grid testing the patient should be instructed to view the grid through his or her ______ correction.
near
53
Checking the calibration of the Goldmann applanation tonometer is performed with a ______.
Balance or calibration rod
54
The Goldmann applanation tonometer prism is best cleaned between patients with ______.
Hydrogen peroxide soaks or 1:10 bleach solution
55
Which dye solution is used when performing Goldmann applanation?
Fluorescein dye
56
What is the diameter of the corneal area properly applanated by a Goldmann tonometer?
3.06 mm
57
______ photography documents the posterior segment of the eye.
Fundus
58
______ devices create three dimensional digital images of the optic nerve and retina
Tomography
59
Three of the most common tomographic image devices are ______, ______ and _______.
Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT), Heidelberg Retinal Tomography (HRT) and GDx scanner laser polorimeter
60
The data provided by tomographic devices are useful in evaluating progressive ______ and _______ damage.
Optic nerve and retinal nerve fiber layer
61
Ophthalmic photography serves to ______ and _______ ophthalmic conditions.
document and diagnose
62
Which area of the cornea is the thickest?
The stroma
63
What type of patches should not be used on a patient with a lacerated globe?
a pressure patch
64
When long waiting times occur in the office what is the ophthalmic medical assistant's responsibility?
To communicate with patients and keep them informed in a sensitive manner
65
What can be used to immobilize an infant for an ophthalmic examination?
A papoose board
66
______ is any irritation or inflammation of the conjunctiva
Conjunctivitis
67
In fundus photography, when the camera is too far from the eye, a ______ ______ will form around the image.
Blue-Grey Halo
68
"Diagnostic" or "standardized" ______ are performed for quantitative evaluation of a tissue's structure, reflectivity and sound absorption
A-scans
69
______ photography is used to photograph the anterior segment of the eye.
Slit-lamp
70
Specular photomicrography is a method of evaluating the ______ surface of the cornea
endothelial
71
The visual acuity notation 20/200 indicates the patient could see the 200 optotype at ______ feet
20
72
If the patient perceives light and can indicate the source direction, the vision is recorded as ______
Light perception with projection (LPw/P)
73
The distance of 20 feet is used in visual acuity assessment because it approximates ______
Optical infinity
74
The visual acuity value of 20/40 is expressed as the metric equivalent ______
6/12
75
The pinhole acuity test is used to confirm whether ______ _______ is the cause of a decrease in visual acuity.
Refractive error
76
What is the normal range of ocular pressure?
13-20 mm Hg
77
Which method of tonometry is described as the measurement of the amount of pressure needed to flatten the cornea by a standard amount?
Applanation tonometry
78
What measurement error is produced when the fluorescein rings are too narrow during applanation tonometry?
Falsely low reading
79
What measurement error is introduced when the patient holding his or hear breath and/or wearing a collar that is buttoned too tightly, is applanated?
Falsely high reading
80
Measuring intraocular pressure is also called ______
Tonometry
81
______ ______ is a red dye useful in evaluating the integrity of the corneal epithelium.
Rose bengal
82
The ______ ______ test uses rainbow colored cups that must be arranged in order of similar hues
Farnsworth-Munsell 100-hue
83
The ______ _______ ______ color vision test consists of a series of plates with gray background and colored circles, crosses and triangles.
Hardy-Rand-Ritter
84
Name the tear deficiency test which uses strips of filter paper inserted into the lower fornix
Schirmer's test
85
While assessing visual acuity, the assistant notes the patient consistently misses the optotypes on the temporal side of the chart, indicating a possible ______
Visual field defect
86
In visual acuity assessment, the brightness acuity tester (BAT) is used to evaluate _______ when there are opacities in the ocular media.
Glare
87
In patients with nystagmus, visual acuity often improves dramatically when the vision is assessed ______
Binocularly
88
At what distance are adult near visual acuity charts designed to be read?
14-16 inches from the eye
89
Normal visual acuity in a two month old infant may be estimated by______
fixation (follow at 3 months)
90
What is the name of the instrument used to measure extension of the anterior surface of the cornea beyond the lateral orbital rim?
Exophthalmeter
91
Name at least one example of a glare testing device
RVA, BAT (brightness acuity test) or Eye Con
92
Name the two measurements required to determine the dioptic power of the intraocular lens
A-scan (axial length of the eye) and Keratometry (corneal curvature)
93
When performing A-scan biometry, a 1mm error in axial length may result in a ______ diopters calculated IOL power error
Three
94
What is the term for the amount of time it takes for dry spots to form on the cornea when the eye is in a staring position
BUT (break-up time)
95
How is anterior chamber angle depth estimated using a slit lamp?
A thin light beam is placed at the limbus at an angle of approximately 60 degrees and the distance between the posterior limit of the corneal beam and the anterior limit of the iris beam is compared with the thickness of the optical section of the cornea
96
Which two ocular structures can touch if the anterior chamber is flat?
iris and cornea
97
When determining anterior chamber depth using a flashlight test, a shadow on the nasal iris indicates ______.
Abnormally shallow anterior chamber (narrow angles)
98
Ophthalmologists often estimate anterior chamber depth by measuring the angle between the ______ and ______
Anterior surface of the iris, posterior surface of the cornea
99
Which color vision test consists of pseudo isochromatic plates that determine red-green color anomalies and deficiencies?
Ishihara
100
Which color defects may ne distinguished by the Ishihara test?
red and green
101
How long are the Schirmer strips left in place during a tear test?
5 minutes
102
A-scan biometry measures the distance between ______
Internal ocular surfaces
103
The chief use of A-scan biometric is to measure the ______ ______ of the eye
Axial length
104
Jaeger notation, the point system, and the Snellen M Unit are units of measure used in recording ______ visual acuity
Near
105
In the visual assessment the acronym PAM represents the principal testing device known as the _______
potential acuity meter
106
The ability of human vision to discern shapes by their relative lightness and darkness is termed ______
contrast sensitivity
107
During visual acuity assessment the patient is able to clearly read the 20/20 line but misses one letter, the acuity is recorded as _______
20/20-1
108
Why is it important to observe the patient during visual acuity testing?
To ensure proper occlusion
109
What drug classification is contraindicated in patient's with obstructive pulmonary disease or cardiovascular disease?
beta blockers
110
What symptoms are involved with an allergic reaction to a topically administered drug?
Edema of lids, redness, scaliness, vesicle formation, and oozing can occur with a reaction to an ophthalmic preparation
111
What are some of the side effects of long-term steroid drop use?
Rise in intraocular pressure, cataracts, decreased wound healing, and decreased resistance to infection
112
The absence of a lens in an eye is called ______
aphakia
113
The presence of an intraocular lens (IOL) is called ______
pseudophakia
114
______ is a chronic inflammation of the eyelid margins
Blepharitis
115
Name the retinal receptors that function best in dim lighting, number about 125 million, and are found in the periphery of the retina
Rods
116
Name the retinal receptors that are responsible for color vision, number about 6 million, and are found in the macula
Cones
117
What is the term used when there is a difference in pupil size?
Anisocoria
118
What is pupillometry?
The measurement of pupillary diameters
119
What is the name for the reflexive reaction that occurs when light is directed into one pupil and the pupil of the opposite eye simultaneously reacts?
Consensual pupillary reaction
120
What is the term for the range of procedures used in medical environments to prevent the spread of infectious microbes?
Aseptic technique
121
Surgical instruments most resistant to corrosion are made of ______ _______
stainless steel
122
When creating a sterile field, the drapes are usually _______ to moisture to prevent contamination
Impermeable
123
What is the most popular injected anesthetic for minor procedures?
Lidocaine
124
When performing cover-uncover test, the eye under the cover moves when uncovered, it is a _______, which is a _______ deviation.
Phoria, latent
125
Drainage of topical drops from the eye and their systemic absorption can be prevented by _______ ______.
punctal occlusion
126
What medications are used as topical anesthestics?
proparacaine and tetracaine
127
What is the color of bottle caps of prostaglandins?
teal
128
What are the classifications of the three large groups of anti-infective agents?
Antibiotics, antivirals, and antifungals
129
True allergic reaction can involve what symptoms?
itching, rash, difficulty breathing and weak or rapid pulse
130
In terms of lens thickness, the greater the refractive index, the ______ the lens
thinner
131
The distance from the center of the pupil of one eye to the center of the pupil of the other eye is termed _______
interpupillary distance
132
What is measured to obtain a monocular measurement of the IPD (interpupillary distance)
the distance from the bridge of the nose to the center of the pupil
133
Explain how to transpose a spherocylinder lens from plus to minus cylinder form, or from minus to plus cylinder
Algebraically add the sphere and cylinder powers, retain the cylinder power but change the cylinder sign, and change the cylinder axis by 90 degrees.
Transpose: +2.00 -2.50 x90
-0.50 +2.50 x 180
134
Which instrument measures the radius of curvature, or base curve, of a spectacle lens surface in diopters?
Geneva lens clock or measure
135
What is the spherical equivalent of -2.00 +3.00 x 90
-0.50 sphere
136
The trifocal portion of a +2.00 reading add will be ______
+1.00
137
What is the name of the test to determine the correct myopic correction using red/green filter on the projector?
Duochrome test
138
What is another reference or starting point for refracting a patient who has a poor retinoscopy reflex?
keratometry
139
What normally determines the strength of an add power for near correction?
the age of the patient
140
What type of refractometry is indicated for children with accommodative esotropia or patients who have latent hyperopia?
Cycloplegic refractometry
141
What is the distance from the back surface of a lens to the front surface of the eye called?
vertex distance
142
Define refractometry
the measurement of the refractive error of an eye
143
What is the name of the instrument that houses various lenses to determine the refractive error of an eye?
phoropter
144
What is an important factor when preparing a patient for refraction?
the refractionist must explain to the patient to choose the lens that provides the clearest vision
145
What is a common mistake made by a refractionist?
moving or flipping the lenses too quickly for the patient
146
What are three appropriate starting points for refracting a patient?
retinoscopy, autorefractometry, or patient's current spectacle prescription
147
In what order should refinement of a refraction be performed?
sphere, axis, then power of cylinder
148
What accessory phoropter lens is utilized to refine cylinder axis and power?
Jackson cross cylinder
149
Name the 2 methods of refractometry
objective and subjective
150
In refractometry, the ______ method requires the patient to give answers to the examiner
subjective
151
When is the spherical equivalent best used in a spectacle prescription?
If a patient is an adult who has never worn glasses and requires a large astigmatic correction
152
Computer assisted corneal topography is instrumental in early diagnosis of _______
keratoconus
153
Corneal topography uses ______ colors to denote steeper areas of the cornea and ______ colors to denote the flatter areas of the cornea.
Warm (red, orange)
Cool (blue)
154
Today's computer assisted corneal topography systems are based on data obtained from a reflected ______ ______ image.
Placido disc
155
______ does not appear on magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
bone
156
Conjunctivitis may be ______, ______ or ______.
allergic, viral or bacterial
157
Sudden painless vision loss, which may continue to deteriorate over a few days, and may not recover is known as ______ ______ _______.
Ischemic optic neuropathy
158
Forward displacement of the eye in its bony socket causing the eye to bulge forward is termed _____
proptosis/exophthalmus
159
The cornea provides approximately ______ of the refractive power of the eye.
2/3
160
If dust accumulates on the mirror of the slit lamp, the technician may clean it by using what cleaning methods?
a lint-free cloth, a lens brush, or a blast of air
161
Who should repair and maintain equipment such as a laser?
a qualified service technician
162
A pupil diameter of less than ______ can produce a contraction of the visual field
2-2.5 mm
163
Normal peripheral limits of the visual field are ______ degrees nasally, ______ degrees superiorly, ______ degrees inferiorly, and ______ degrees temporally.
60, 60, 70, 90
164
In the grayscale printout of an automated perimeter the lighter area corresponds to ______ levels of illumination being seen by the patient.
Dim
165
When performing a proper site identification, what two things must be identified?
Correct patient
Correct site
166
The YAG laser is a ______ type of laser and uses quick pulses of energy.
cold
167
What is the method of choice in sterilizing intraocular implants?
ethylene oxide
168
Name the two main classified sections of most ophthalmic surgical procedures
Intraocular
Extraocular
169
The most common method of sterilizing instruments is ______
steam sterilization/autoclave
170
Name the two types of anatomical scrubs
Time
counted
171
A safety precaution when lasers are being used is wearing appropriate ______ ______.
eye protection
172
Name the four shapes of needle points
Taper point
Cutting
Reverse cutting
Spatula
173
Blockage of the central retinal artery by an embolus, which stops blood flow and causes acute loss of vision and a cherry red spot in the retina, is called ______
Central Retinal Artery Occlusion (CRAO)
174
What is the visual symptom, and it's cause, often experienced by diabetic patient's during episodes of increased blood sugar?
Blurred vision caused by temporary myopia or hyperopia due changes in the refractive index (R.I.) of the crystalline lens
Myopic shift = when the RI increases
Hyperopic shift = when the RI decreases
175
What instructions would be given over the phone to a patient who had splashed a chemical into the eyes?
Immediately flush the eyes with water for 15-20 minutes and then report to the ER or ophthalmologists office
176
The most common type of glaucoma is ______
Primary Open Angle Glaucoma (POAG)
177
Aqueous drains out of the eye through this net-like structure
Trabecular meshwork
178
Calibration of the applanation tonometer should be checked approximately every ______ months
2
or sooner with regular use
179
When cleaning a goniolens, what is used to rinse off the methycellulose?
Warm running water
180
When replacing a light bulb ______ can diminish its effectiveness and life
Oil from fingers
181
Diagnostic lenses that contact the eye can be sterilized using ______
Ethylene oxide gas
182
How should the removable glass slides inside the American Optical acuity projector be cleaned?
Wipe with clean, soft lint-free towel or photographic lens paper
183
What does HIPAA protect?
the dissemination of specific patient information
184
What is coding?
the application of numerical designations for medical diagnosis, procedures and services
185
What is the assessment of the use of services by a practice institution, clinic or individual physician?
Utilization review
186
Complete the statement: "if it isn't documented, ______"
It didn't happen
187
Name three reasons to dispense a therapeutic bandage contact lens
To protect cornea from eyelids and eyelashes
to promote corneal healing
to provide comfort
to stop wound leaks
to improve vision
for drug delivery
188
Name two measurements required to fit a contact lens
refraction
k-reading (keratometry)
189
Over wear of contact lenses may result in insufficient oxygen to the cornea called ______
Hypoxia ophthalmia
190
What are ethics?
moral principles and values that govern individual behavior
191
What must ophthalmic medical assistants abide by?
The laws of the state in which their employer practices and under the services of a licensed ophthalmologist.
192
Attempting to work independently of an ophthalmologist is considered ______
Practicing medicine without a license
193
What should an ophthalmic practice have in place to meet legal compliance?
A compliance officer, policies and procedures
194
What is HIPAA?
Health Insurance portability and accountability act
195
Which ocular condition is commonly associated with Sjogren's syndrome?
Dry eyes (Dry mouth is another finding)
196
Which systemic disease can cause temporary fluctuations in refractive errors?
Diabetes mellitus
197
Name the virus that causes dendritic pattern of keratosis
Herpes simplex
198
What is the ideal position for a patient who feels faint
Head lower than heart
199
Where do you check for life on an adult CPR patient?
neck (carotid pulse)
200
Which accessories are used to check the calibration of an ophthalmometer/keratometer?
Three test balls made of steel, also called "Lensco Meter"
201
Name the nine components of the ophthalmic history
Chief complaint
present illness
past ocular history
ocular medications
general medical and surgical history
systemic medications
allergies
social history
family history
202
Why is it important to specifically ask a patient about the medications they are taking?
because certain medications may affect the eyes
203
What is the proper response to a patient's request for the ophthalmic technician for medical advice or a diagnosis?
Refer the patient to the ophthalmologist
204
What is the term used for the reason of the patient's visit?
Chief complaint
205
What elements are important in social history taking?
Smoking
alcohol
drug use
206
Prior use of topical pharmaceutical agencies is part of a patient's ______
past ocular history
207
Pertinent family history of a patient should include which relatives?
parents
grandparents
genetic siblings
208
A patient describing an experience of getting hives after taking sulfa drugs is providing information about ______
An allergic reaction
209
What is the term for the spasmodic, rhythmic dilating and contracting pupillary movements during pupil function testing?
Hippus
210
What is the name of the test used for detecting a relative afferent pupillary defect?
Swinging flashlight test
211
Which muscle of the iris constricts in bright light?
Sphincter
212
What is pupil dilation termed?
Mydriasis
213
If you cannot center the thick and thin lines in the lesometer, the lens has ______
ground-in prism
214
Each blank ring seen in the lensometer eyepiece reticle measures how much prism?
1 diopter for each ring
215
When performing lensometry, what is indicated if both thin and wide lines are in focus at the same time?
the lens is spherical
216
What is ICD-9-CM?
International classification of diseases, ninth revision, clinical modification
217
What important process is documented when the physician or physician's delegate educates the patient on the risks, benefits and alternatives of surgical procedure and asks for the patient's understanding and participation in the decision making process?
informed consent
218
As an ophthalmic assistant, you will record your findings in what legal document?
The patient's medical record
219
How should an ophthalmic assistant treat all patients?
with dignity and respect
220
The common cause of eye infections are ______, _______ and _______.
bacterial
viral
fungal
221
______ are used to determine sensitivity of organisms to certain drugs so that effective therapy can be carried out.
cultures
222
______ ______ ______ is a major contributing factor in contracting the parasitic organism Acanthamoeba
contact lens wear
223
Universal precautions are mandated by OSHA but were developed by the ______.
US centers for Disease Control
224
Washing hands between patients is one example of ______ ______.
universal precautions
225
Name the procedure that uses the following instruments:
probes, syringe, lacrimal needle (cannula) and punctum dilator
lacrimal probing and irrigation (P&I)
226
Name the 2 common facial nerve blocks
Van Lint and O'Brien technique
227
What intraocular injection infiltrates the soft tissue of the globe, rather than the muscle cone itself?
Peribulbar anesthesia
228
The most important step in successful LASIK is care and preparation of the ______.
microkeratome
229
In ophthalmic imaging, the term, "diffuse" means ______.
a softer lighting that evenly illuminates the entire subject without highlighting any particular part
230
In ophthalmic imaging, the term, "direct" means ______.
the illumination source shined directly on the area of interest
231
In ophthalmic imaging, the term, "indirect" means ______.
illumination source is shined on another structure than the one of interest
232
In ophthalmic imaging, the term, "retroillumination" means ______.
highlighting an area of interest by illuminating the structure behind it
233
In ophthalmic imaging, the term, "tangential" means ______.
illumination source is shined at an oblique angle across the surface of a structure
234
The following would be well documented using slit-lamp photography except:
a - pterygium
b - hyperopia
c - corneal scar
d - iris lesion
b - hyperopia
235
When performing slit-lamp photography, a photograph of the eye using low magnification and diffuse lighting is recommended to:
a - judge the patient's tolerance to the flash
b - judge the corneal reflection
c - provide identification
d - provide orientation
d - provide orientation
236
By convention as well as for ease of use, the illuminate in slit lamp photography is usually placed:
a - nasally
b - temporally
c - temporally for OD and nasally for OS
d - nasally for OD and temporally for OS
b - temporally
237
You are taking a slit lamp photo of an iris lesion that may be melanoma. The illumination technique of choice is:
a - diffuse
b - direct
c - indirect
d - retroillumination
b - direct
238
You are taking a slit-lamp photo of a cortical cataract. The illumination of choice is:
a - diffuse
b - direct
c - indirect
d - retroillumination
d - retroillumination
239
The method used to take photographs of the endothelial layer of the cornea is:
a - specular photomicroscopy
b - fluorescein angiohraphy
c - corneal topohraphy
d - retroluninar reflectography
a - specular photomicroscopy
240
The technique of taking photographs of the angle structures of the anterior eye is:
a - goniography
b - trabeculography
c - iridography
d - pupillography
a - goniography
241
The most important thing to do before using any fundus camera each day should be:
a - confirm the diopter compensator is at the "+" setting
b - ensure all patients are dilated with homatropine
c - check to see that the eye piece is correctly set
d - clean the camera lens whether or not it is dirty
c - check the eyepiece
242
Setting the fundus camera eye piece should be done:
a - with one eye shut, in dim light or darkness
b - with both eyes open, in dim lighting or darkness
c - with both eyes in a normally lit room
d - with one eye shut in a normally lit room
b - with both eyes open, in dim light or darkness
243
When setting the ocular fundus camera system, one must:
a - remove one's own correction
b - turn the ocular to the maximum plus position, then rotate down
c - turn the ocular to the maximum plus position, then rotate up
d - turn the ocular to the maximum negative position, then rotate up
b - turn the ocular to the maximum plus position, then rotate down
244
If you continue to turn the fundus camera ocular past the first point of clarity:
a - the reticle will become sharper yet
b - you can compensate for the patient's refractive error
c - you may induce your own accommodation
d - the resulting photograph will be sharper
c - you may induce your own accommodation
245
Proper pupil dilation to facilitate fundus photography requires:
a - any dilation is acceptable
b - dilation is not necessary
c - a minimum pupil size of 4 to 5 mm
d - a minimum pupil size of 8 mm
c - a minimum pupil size of 4 to 5 mm
246
Inadequate dilation results in fundus photographs with:
a - half of the frame exposed
b - a general blur
c - gray, fuzzy quadrant
d - a grainy appearance
b - general blur
247
In fundus photography, high corneal astigmatism can be compensated for by:
a - the use of the correction device in the fundus camera
b - placing the dioptic correction dial on "+" for plus cylinder
c - placing the dioptic correction dial on "-" for minus cylinder
d - having the patient wear a toric contact lens during photography
a - the use of the correction device in the fundus camera
248
In order to image eyes with high refractive errors, it is best to:
a - place a contact lens in the patient's eye to compensate
b - reset the eye piece reticle to compensate
c - set the diopter compensation device built into the camera
d - remember that eyes with high refractive errors cannot be photographed
c - set the diopter compensation device built into the camera
249
To take a photo of the external eye with the fundus camera (e.g., to document cornea edema, that interferes with clear view of the fundus):
a - change the diopter setting to "-"
b - change the diopter setting to "+"
c - have the patient sit back from the camera
d - a slit-lamp camera must be used
b - change the diopter setting to "+"
250
Gross focusing with the fundus camera is generally accomplished by:
a - turning the eyepiece until the subject is clear
b - moving the joystick
c - having the patient move forward
d - changing the magnification setting
b - moving the joystick
251
Focusing the fundus camera can be simplified by:
a - starting with the camera all the way back, then moving it forward
b - starting with the camera all the way forward, then moving it back
c - focusing the doughnut on the patient's closed lid before composing the photograph
d - positioning the fixation light directly in front of the camera lens
c - focusing the doughnut on the patient's closed lid before composing the photograph
252
To allow scanning of the patient's retina without moving the base of the camera mount:
a - move the fixation light and ask the patient to follow it
b - use the joystick
c - adjust the chin cup
d - swing the camera on its pivot
d - swing the camera on its pivot
253
When correctly positioned, the orange-yellow background of the fundus should be:
a - an even color saturation across the viewing field
b - darker in the periphery of the viewing field
c - lighter in the periphery of the viewing field
d - unevenly saturated across the viewing field
a - an even color saturation across the viewing field
254
Once the fundal image is correctly positioned and focused:
a - fire the camera
b - ask the patient to blink, then fire the camera
c - have the patient sit back and rest a moment
d - take repeated photographs quickly, warning the patient not to blink
b - ask the patient to blink, then fire the camera
255
You are attempting to take fundus photographs and see a blue-gray halo around the subject. To correct this, you should:
a - move the camera closer
b - move the camera further back
c - reduce illumination
d - increase illumination
a - move the camera closer
256
You are attempting to take a fundus photograph and notice a whitish haze in the center of the subject. This may mean that:
a - the patient is highly myopic
b - the patient is highly hyperopic
c - the patient has his or her eyes closed
d - the camera has drifted to one side
d - the camera has drifted to one side
257
You are centering on the macula when a light yellow crescent appears in the upper left of the viewing field. This is caused by:
a - the illumination being set too high
b - the reflection off of a cataract
c - the pathology of the fundus
d - a reflection off the edge of the pupil
d - a reflection off the edge of the pupil
258
You are centering on the macula when a light yellow crescent appears in the upper left of the viewing field. You should:
a - reduce illumination
b - move the camera slightly down and to the right
c - move the camera slight up and to the left
d - use the dioptric compensation device
b - move the camera slightly down and to the right
259
Periodic photographs to monitor the progress of a disease might be needed in all of the following except:
a - hypertensive retinopathy
b - aphakia
c - diabetic retinopathy
d - glaucoma
b - aphakia
260
The primary area of interest in the fundus phot of a glaucoma patient is:
a - the optic disc
b - the macula
c - the retinal vessels
d - the choroid
a - the optic disc
261
Fundus photos of a patient with macular degeneration focus on the:
a - optic disc
b - retinal periphery
c - fovea
d - superior field
c - fovea
262
In a standard diabetic survey, a series of photos are taken that include:
a - five overlapping fields of view
b - four fields of view to document every quadrant
c - seven overlapping fields of view
d - two photos: one centered on the disc and one centered on the macula
c - seven overlapping fields of view
263
The technique that uses fundus photography to evaluate retinal blood flow is:
a - specular microscopy
b - cyanine green evaluation
c - fluorescein angiography
d - optical coherence tomography (OCT)
c - fluorescein angiography
264
In fundus photography, the red-free filter is used to evaluate:
a - nerve fibers
b - for intraocular copper
c - blood vessels
d - pseudo-membranes
c - blood vessels
265
If the patient is to have fundus photos of both eyes:
a - go from the right eye to the left eye without stopping to avoid patient fatigue
b - wait 30 minutes between photographing the right and left eyes
c - allow the patient to rest between eyes until the fixation light can be seen
d - use stronger dilation drops on the second eye
c - allow the patient to rest between eyes until the fixation light can be seen
266
Poor detail on a fundus photograph can be caused by all of the following except:
a - improper focusing
b - hazy media
c - retinal pathology
d - failing to set the eye piece acurately
c - retinal pathology
267
The camera most often used in external ophthalmic photography is a(n):
a - instant still camera
b - video camera
c - twin-lens reflex 35 mm camera
d - single-lens reflex 35 mm camera
d - single-lens reflex 35 mm camera
268
A key feature of a camera to be used in ophthalmology for external photography is that is can:
a - be focused about 4 inches from the subject
b - provide enough magnification to image a single eye
c - accept a micro lens
d - be coupled with a slit lamp
b - provide enough magnification to image a single eye
269
Regarding lighting for external ophthalmic photography:
a - a ring of light is preferred
b - professional portrait lighting is preferred
c - an adjustable "point source" flash is preferred
d - no special lighting is needed
c - an adjustable "point source" flash is preferred
270
All of the following are important when illuminating the subject for external photography except:
a - avoid shadows on the areas of interest
b - provide an even illumination across the areas of interest
c - direct the illumination from the nasal aspect
d - avoid large flash reflection from the cornea
c - direct the illumination from the nasal aspect
271
External photographs taken prior to strabismus surgery will include (at minimum):
a - upgaze, downgaze and primary positions
b - a head shot, primary position and angle of deviation
c - nine positions of gaze plus a head shot
d - right gaze, left gaze, primary position and a head shot
c - nine positions of gaze plus a head shot
272
The patient has given verbal agreement to be a model in "before and after" photographs of blepharoplasty. In order to legally display the full head shots, you will need:
a - standardized background
b - to just eliminate the patient's name from the display
c - enlargement of the photos
d - the patient's written consent
d - the patient's written consent
273
External photographs of a patient might be required for insurance purposes in which following types of ocular surgery?
a - emergency repair of a lid laceration
b - upper blepharoplasty
c - lacrimal intubation
d - cataract extraction
b - upper blepharoplasty
274
Ultrasound is a valuable diagnostic tool because it:
a - is safe because there is no radiation exposure
b - can be performed in the office
c - can be repeated frequently to follow the patient's condition
d - all of the above
d - all of the above
275
Ultrasound employs use of:
a - light rays
b - sound waves
c - laser rays
d - electromagnetic waves
b - sound waves
276
The term A-scan refers to:
a - one-dimensional amplitude scan
b - two-dimensional brightness scan
c - three-dimensional scan
d - none of the above
a - one-dimensional amplitude scan
277
The "A" is A-scan stands for:
a - axial
b - amplitude
c - andi-orbital
d - audio
a - axial
278
The term biometry could refer to measuring the:
a - axial length of the eye
b - thickness of an extraocular muscle
c - height of a tumor
d - all of the above
a - axial length of the eye
279
In standardized of diagnostic A-scan, the purpose of the scan is generally to:
a - calculate intraocular lens power
b - calculate anterior chamber depth
c - evaluate abnormalities
d - evaluate the aqueous
a - calculate intraocular lens power
280
Before taking the fundus photograph, it is important to do all of the following except:
a - check the patient's record to confirm the photo is required
b - enter patient information into a log manual or camera imprint system
c - study any previous fundus photos that the patient has had
d - make sure the patient had a visual field test
d - make sure the patient had a visual field test
281
In standardized/diagnostic A-scans, the probe tip is placed:
a - perpendicular to the visual axis
b - relative to the area of interest
c - so sound waves will fall on the macula
d - so sound waves will fall on the optic nerve
b - relative to the area of interest
282
Gain is:
a - whether or not an accurate reading has been obtained
b - the strength of the sound waves emitted by the probe
c - the false lengthening of an A-scan because of the tear film bridge
d - the sensitivity, or electronic amplification of the sound wave signal
d - the sensitivity, or electronic amplification of the sound wave signal
283
Extra echoes between the anterior and posterior lens spikes indicate:
a - poor A-scan that should be repeated
b - a malfunctioning probe
c - a dense cataract
d - none of the above
c - a dense cataract
284
Which biometric measurements may be performed with the standardized A-scan?
a - axial eye length
b -optic nerve thickness
c - tumor height
d - all of the above
d - all of the above
285
Unwanted echoes that do not represent ocular structures are known as:
a - pseudo-echoes
b - artifacts
c - reverberations
d - echoes of confusion
b - artifacts
286
All of the following are true regarding computerized corneal topography except:
a - it evaluates four points of the corneal apex
b - it measures the curvature of the anterior cornea
c - it displays the results with a color-coded "map"
d - it analyzes light reflected from the cornea
a - it evaluates four points of the corneal apex
287
Corneal topography is useful in each of the following except:
a - fitting rigid contact lenses
b - monitoring keratoconus
c - monitoring endothelial drop-out
d - preoperative refractive surgery evaluation
c - monitoring endothelial drop-out
288
"Cold" colors (blues and greens) on a corneal topography map indicate which of the following?
a - a flatter area
b - a steeper area
c - an area of irregularity
d - the apex of the cone
a - a flatter area
289
The common pattern of astigmatism on a corneal topography map is a:
a - ring
b - tear-drop shape
c - bow-tie shape
d - pie wedge shape
c - bow-tie shape
290
Potential candidates for refractive surgery who currently wear contact lenses:
a - may have to leave the lenses out and have repeat cornea topography
b - do not need to repeat topography if they are wearing soft lenses
c - should have corneal topography performed while wearing the contact lenses
d - should use rewetting drops frequently prior to topography
a - may have to leave the lenses out and have repeat cornea topography
291
The corneal topography map most commonly used is the:
a - Placido ring map
b - keratometry map
c - refractive map
d - axial map
d - axial map
292
Corneal topography is useful in each of the following except:
a - evaluation of corneal sensitivity
b - evaluation of corneal warpage
c - evaluation of high astigmatism
d - determination of the incision site for cataract
a - evaluation of corneal sensitivity
293
The extent of vision beyond the fixation point is known as the:
a - binocular field
b - visual field
c - neurological field
d - pathway of light
b - visual field
294
The peripheral vision of a normal person is:
95 degrees temporal, 75 degrees inferior, 60 degrees nasal and 60 degrees superior
295
The configuration of the normal visual field is delimited by:
a - the ear and nasal bridge
b - the brow and nose
c - the location of the fovea
d - the size of the optic nerve
b - the brow and nose
296
The key to performing any type of peripheral vision exam is to have the patient:
a - maintain fixation
b - look at the moving target
c - gaze into all 4 quadrants
d - use both eyes
a - maintain fixation
297
An object on the patient's right will be perceived by the patient's:
a - temporal retina OU
b - nasal retina OU
c - temporal retina OS and nasal retina OD
d - foveae OU
c - temporal retina OS and nasal retina OD
298
The anatomic pattern of the nerve fibers produces visual field defects:
a - that are total blind spots
b - that correspond to the location of the rods and cones
c - that correspond to the location of the nerve fibers
d - that respond well to treatment
c - that correspond to the location of the nerve fibers
299
The "blind-spot" as plotted on a visual field test corresponds to:
a - the macula
b - the fovea
c - the optic disc
d - the angle
c - the optic disc
300
On the visual field, the average blind spot is located:
a - 25 degrees temporal to fixation
b - 5 degrees nasal to fixation
c - 15 degrees nasal to fixation
d - 15 degrees temporal to fixation
d - 15 degrees temporal to fixation
301
Visual field nerve fibers terminate at the:
a - brain stem
b - occipital cortex
c - thalamus
d - putitiary
b - occipital cortex
302
Conversion of the visual field map into a three dimensional representation results in:
a - isopters
b - the island of vision profile
c - a comparative analysis
d - threshold gray-tone analysis
b - the island of vision profile
303
The peak of the Island of vision profile corresponds to the:
a - optic nerve
b - center of the crystalline lens
c - nerve fiber layer
d - fovea
d - fovea
304
The blind spot would be represented on the island of vision profile as:
a - a bottomless hole
b - a peak
c - a shallow dip
d - a deep pit
a - a bottomless hole
305
In the island of vision analogy, vision exists in:
a - a sea of blindness
b - a sea of vision
c - an expanse of vision
d - a time-space continuum
a - a sea of blindness
306
The validity of all visual field testing depends on:
a - the technical skill of the operator
b - the patient's ability to maintain fixation
c - the complexity of screening program
d - the illumination capabilities of the technique used
b - the patient's ability to maintain fixation
307
The amsler grid used to document visual field defects:
a - within the central 30 degrees
b - within the central 20 degrees
c - within the central 10 degrees
d - from 30 degrees outward
b - within the central 20 degrees
308
All of the following warrant an Amsler grid exam except:
a - the patient with macular degeneration
b - the patient complaining of a central blot in the vision
c - the patient complaining that letters are distorted when reading
d - the patient with a pituitary tumor
d - the patient with a pituitary tumor
309
When checking a patient with the Amsler grid, it is important to do all of the following except:
a - cover one eye at a time
b - use good reading light
c - have the patient use his or her reading glasses
d - hold the chart 1 meter away
d - hold the chart 1 meter away
310
When checking a patient with the Amsler grid, he or she is told to:
a - look at the upper left corner
b - look at the upper right corner
c - look at the center dot
d - look at the bottom center
c - look at the center dot
311
When checking a patient with the Amsler grid, it is helpful to tell the patient:
a - not to touch the grid because oils from skin will mar it
b - to outline any missing or distorted areas with a pencil
c - that the rest is not conclusive
d - that the test is not very accurate
b - to outline any missing or distorted areas with a pencil
312
Each of the following is an advantage of the Amsler grid check except:
a - it is useful for bedridden patient exams
b - most people easily understand it
c - it is handy for home use by the patient
d - it is useful in monitoring field loss in glaucoma
d - it is useful in monitoring field loss in glaucoma
313
Each of the following is a standard question to ask when performing an Amsler grid check except:
a - "Are you aware of the page beyond the grid?"
b - "Are all the lines straight and square?"
c - "Are you aware of all four corners of the grid?"
d - "Is any part of the grid missing?"
a - "Are you aware of the page beyond the grid?"
314
You are assisting the physician during screen eye exams at a nursing home with minimal equipment. To check a patient's peripheral vision, you will most likely perform a(n):
a - tangent screen
b - confrontation field test
c - Goldmann visual field
d - Automated visual field
b - confrontation field test
315
What is the given assumption in confrontation field testing?
a - the patient has 20/20 vision
b - the fields are tested in the central area
c - the examiner's field is normal
d - the procedure is fully qualitative
c - the examiner's field is normal
316
The confrontation field:
a - requires the use of elaborate equipment
b - will not pick up gross visual field defects
c - can be performed on a patient in any position
d - cannot be performed on children
c - can be performed on a patient in any position
317
Which of the following is not true regarding the confrontation field test?
a - it is a subjective test
b - only the examiner's fingers should be used as a target
c - the eye not being tested is occluded
d - a defect can be either described in words or drawn out in the chart
b - only the examiner's fingers should be used as a target
318
In the visual standard version of confrontation field testing, one tests the patient's peripheral vision:
a - in the standard positions of gaze
b - in the center of fixation
c - in the four quadrants
d - superiorly and inferiorly
c - in the four quadrants
319
The central point at which the patient looks during visual field testing is called the:
fixation
320
In visual field testing, the diameter lines designated in degrees are called:
Meridians
321
In the visual field testing the point where a stimulus is seen 50% of the time is called the
threshold
322
In visual field testing, a stimulus that is to small or dim to be seen is called:
infrathreshold
323
In visual field testing, a stimulus that exceeds threshold and is seen more than 50% of the time is called
suprathreshold
324
In visual field testing, the internal area where threshold is not seen is called:
scotoma
325
In visual field testing, when the field is moving inward from expected normal, it is termed:
constricted
326
In visual field testing, constriction, sometimes very sharp, along the 180-degree meridian is termed:
step
327
When calculating intraocular lens (IOL) powers, one must enter:
a- visible corneal diameter
b - desired postoperative refraction
c - pupil size
d - current refractive error
b - desired postoperative refraction
328
You are inputting data for IOL calculations and notice that the K readings are 44.5/42.75. This type of reading:
a - should prompt you to repeat the measurement
b - alerts you that lenticular astigmatism may exist
c - alerts you that axillary astigmatism may exist
d - is acceptable
d - is acceptable
329
Almost all the formulas for calculating IOL power are based:
a - on achieving emmetropia after surgery
b - on measuring the aphakic eye
c - on the same general equation
d - on using an anterior chamber lens
c - on the same general equation
330
The manufacturer of a given IOL often supplies a specific number that must be entered in to the IOL calculations when the lens is used. This number is referred to as a(n):
a - A-constant
b - fudge factor
c - personal identification number
d - optical constant
a - A-constant
331
Which of the following poses problems in obtaining accurate measurement a for IOL calculations?
a - patients with aphakia
b - patients who have had corneal refractive
c - patients with posterior subcapsular cataracts
d - patients with dense brown cataracts
b - patients who have had corneal refractive
332
When calculating IOL power, all of the following are necessary except:
a - white-for-white corneal diameter
b - axial length
c - a calculation formula
d - K readings
a - white-for-white corneal diameter
333
The surgical procedure where skin or other tissue is transplanted from one part of the body to another is called a:
graft
334
The surgery to fix an in-turned eyelid is called:
entropion repair
335
The surgery to fix an out-turned eyelid is called:
ectropion repair
336
When repairing a lower lid laceration in the area of the punctum, tissue alignment is especially critical because:
a - the lacrimal drainage system is involved
b - the tear-producing ducts are involved
c - infection may set in
d - eyelash alignment may be affected
a - the lacrimal drainage system is involved
337
An infant with a blocked nasolacrimal duct might initially need which of the following procedures?
a - dacryosystorhinostomy
b - removal of the tear gland
c - punctal dilation
d - probe and irrigation
d - probe and irrigation
338
A patient with dry eyes might have which of the following procedures?
a - lacrimectomy
b - cyclocryo
c - punctal occlusion
d - probe and irrigation
c - punctal occlusion
339
The grafting of corneal tissue from one human eye to another is a(n):
a - enucleation
b - keratoplasty
c - dacryosystorhinostomy
d - corneal topography
b - keratoplasty
340
Each of the following might be associated with corneal transplant except:
a - follow-up radiation treatment
b - tissue rejection
c - irregular astigmatism
d - 12 month recovery time
a - follow-up radiation treatment
341
Which of the following might need to be surgically removed because it is growing across the cornea?
a - pingueculum
b - punctal plug
c - pterygium
d - xanthelasma
c - pterygium
342
Recurrent corneal erosion might be treated by:
a - corneal scraping
b - punctal occlusion
c - enucleation
d - corneal transplant
a - corneal scraping
343
Surgery that is performed in order to correct hyperopia, myopia and/or astigmatism is classified as:
refractive surgery
344
A popular technique for correcting refractive errors using laser technology is:
Laser-Assisted in Situ Keratomileusis (LASIK)
345
Which of the following does not involved creating a corneal flap?
a - epi-LASIK
b - photorefractive keratomy (PRK)
c - Laser-Assisted Subepithelial Keratomileusis (LASEK)
d - LASIK
b - photorefractive keratomy (PRK)
346
Which laser is most commonly used in refractive surgery?
a - Yttrium-Aluminum-Garnet (YAG)
b - argon
c - krypton
d - excimer
d - excimer
347
Anesthesia for laser refractive surgery is usually:
a - local
b - general
c - topical
d - not needed
c - topical
348
A person with esotropia might have what kind of surgery?
recession and resection
349
The purpose of extraocular muscle (EOM) surgery as a child might include all of the following except:
a - prevention/resolution of amblyopia
b - cosmetics
c - correction of anisometropia
d - establish stereo vision
c - correction of anisometropia
350
A cataract is a:
lens opacity
351
Symptoms of a cataract include:
a - becoming more nearsighted
b - becoming more farsighted
c - early presbyopia
d - discharge
a - becoming more nearsighted
352
Symptoms of a cataract include:
a - halos
b - floaters
c - flashes
d - foreign-body sensation
a - halos
353
Symptoms of a cataract include:
a - ghost image
b - vertical diplopia
c - stabbing pains
d - lid twitch
a - ghost image
354
Symptoms of a cataract include:
a - tearing
b - ptosis
c - increased contrast sensitivity
d - change in color vision
d - change in color vision
355
Symptoms of a cataract include:
a - granulated eyelids
b - looking through a fog
c - dull ache
d - pressure sensation
b - looking through a fog
356
The most common cause of cataract is:
a - smoking
b - aging
c - hypertension
d - eye strain
b - aging
357
Cataracts can be caused by all of the following except:
a - exposure to ultraviolet light
b - injury
c - open-angle glaucoma
d - diabetes
c - open-angle glaucoma
358
A cataract that occurs due to some other condition or medication is known as:
a - secondary
b - subcapsular
c - congenital
d - lenticular
a - secondary
359
Current, accepted treatment of cataract is:
a - "eye vitamins"
b - laser ablation
c - homeopathic eye drops
d - surgical extraction
d - surgical extraction
360
Your patient says his neighbor had her cataracts removed with a laser and wants to know if his will be taken off the same way. You tell him:
"No, she is probably referring to the way we use ultrasound to break the cataract into tiny pieces. It's not actually a laser"
361
The vision a patient may have after cataract surgery can be estimated with:
a - potential acuity meter (PAM)
b - brightness acuity tester (BAT)
c - pinhole
d - accurate refractometry
a - potential acuity meter (PAM)
362
Postoperative cataract surgery vision might not be substantially improved in a patient with:
a - ptosis
b - small pupils
c - macular degeneration
d - strabismus
c - macular degeneration
363
A preoperative B-scan might be required in which cataract patient?
a - diabetic retinopathy
b - macular degeneration
c - extremely dense cataract
d - pterygium
c - extremely dense cataract
364
Prior to cataract surgery, an A-scan is used to:
a - measure the length of the eye
b - establish postoperative vision
c - evaluate the corneal endothelium
d - evaluate retinal health
a - measure the length of the eye
365
Specular microscopy ("cell count") might be needed prior to cataract surgery is the patient has:
a - corneal dystrophy
b - Graves' disease
c - astigmatism
d - dry eye
a - corneal dystrophy
366
Which gives the most accurate idea of a cataract patient's visual disability?
a - pinhole vision
b - standard Snellen vision chart
c - PAM
d - BAT
d - BAT
367
A cataract is often removed when:
a - vision is reduced below 20/20
b - the cataract is "ripe"
c - the patient fails a color vision test
d - the patient notes impairment of daily living
d - the patient notes impairment of daily living
368
Symptoms of a posterior subcapsular opacity:
a - mimic those of a cataract
b - mimic those of angle-closure glaucoma
c - include flashes and floaters
d - can be alleviated with artificial tears
a - mimic those of a cataract
369
The term "secondary cataract" is a misnomer because:
a - most cataracts are congenital
b - once removed, a cataract cannot grow back
c - it actually occurs in the IOL implant
d - it actually is an opacity of the cornea
b - once removed, a cataract cannot grow back
370
A posterior capsule opacity is treated by performing a:
a - crying-capsulotomy
b - laser iridotomy
c - surgical capsulotomy
d - laser capsulotomy
d - laser capsulotomy
371
Insertion of a phakic IOL would be done for the purpose of:
a - cataract removal
b - correction of refractive error
c - preventing cataracts
d - intraocular medication
b - correction of refractive error
372
In which of the following surgical procedures might a drainage implant be placed in the eye?
a - cataract surgery
b - nasolacrimal surgery
c - strabismus surgery
d - glaucoma surgery
d - glaucoma surgery
373
The aim of most types of glaucoma surgery is to:
a - increase aqueous production
b - improve optic nerve health
c - increase aqueous outflow
d - avoid medication use
c - increase aqueous outflow
374
Laser treatment for primary/chronic open-angle glaucoma is a(n):
a - valve implant
b - iridotomy
c - iridectomy
d - trabeculoplasty
d - trabeculoplasty
375
A surgically created, conjunctiva-covered, external opening through which aqueous can drain is a:
a - bleb
b - seton
c - drainage implant
d - sebaceous cyst
a - bleb
376
Angle-closure glaucoma is most often treated by performing a:
a - surgical trabeculectomy
b - valve implant
c - laser iridotomy
d - surgical iridectomy
c - laser iridotomy
377
The removal of the jelly-like substance in the back of the eye is a(n):
a - centesis
b - vitrectomy
c - evisceration
d - enucleation
b - vitrectomy
378
Laser photocoagulation might commonly be used to treat all of the following except:
a - hypertensive retinopathy
b - hyphema
c - diabetic retinopathy
d - macular degeneration
b - hyphema
379
Laser, scleral buckle and intravitreal gas or air bubble are all treatments for:
a - diabetic retinopathy
b - retinal hemorrhage
c - retinal detachment
d - macular defeneration
c - retinal detachment
380
The intent behind intravitreal injections for macular degeneration is to:
a - inhibit the growth of new, abnormal retinal blood vessels
b - seal of leaking blood vessels
c - reattach the macula
d - create a drainage bleb
a - inhibit the growth of new, abnormal retinal blood vessels
381
Preoperative cataract surgery measurement of a patient's corneal curvature is known as:
a - keratometry ("K reading")
b - exophthalmometry
c - interferometry
d - tonometry
a - keratometry ("K reading")
382
Each of the following is used in intraocular lens implant (IOL) calculation except:
a - K reading
b - desired postoperative refraction
c - A-scan
d - intraocular pressure
d - intraocular pressure
383
Medications of concern for the preoperative cataract patient include all of the following except:
a - those containing aspirin
b - those for erectile dysfunction
c - estrogen-based hormones
d - blood thinners
c - estrogen-based hormones
384
Your patient wants to know if she will have stitches in her eye after cataract surgery. You tell her:
No, unless something changes during surgery
385
Currently, the most common used type of anesthesia for cataract surgery is:
a - topical
b - retrobulbar injection
c - intravitreal injection
d - general
a - topical
386
Reducing a cataract into small pieces by use of ultrasonic energy is termed:
a - can-opener method
b - open sky technique
c - phacoemulsification
d - intracapsular extraction
c - phacoemulsification
387
Which of the following are general restrictions immediately following cataract surgery?
a - no bathing
b - do not bend over or lift anything heavy
c - keep the eye patched at all times
d - keep the head elevated when reclining
b - do not bend over or lift anything heavy
388
The removal of the entire eyeball is an:
a - evisceration
b - exenteration
c - ectropion
d - enucleation
d - enucleation
389
In the event that the eyeball is removed, an implant is placed into the orbit. The purpose of this implant is to:
a - provide an attachment for electronic vision devices
b - maintain the shape of the orbit
c - cosmetically look like a natural eye
d - keep the eye shut
b - maintain the shape of the orbit
390
Diabetes is a condition resulting from:
a - increased thirst and urination
b - an imbalance in the insulin-glucose levels of the body
c - an imbalance in the calcium content of the blood
d - fluctuations in vision
b - an imbalance in the insulin-glucose levels of the body
391
When seeing a diabetic patient for a routine exam, it is important to know how stable her sugar level has been recently because fluctuations:
a - can change the refractometric measurement
b - can cause extraocular muscle palsies
c - can cause diplopia
d - can cause eye pain
a - can change the refractometric measurement
392
The hallmark of proliferative diabetic retinopathy is:
a - fluctuating vision
b - resistance to dilation
c - increased intraocular pressure
d - growth of new retinal blood vessels
d - growth of new retinal blood vessels
393
Diabetic retinopathy is currently treated with:
a - topical medication
b - oral medication
c - insulin injections
d - laser
d - laser
394
Hypertension mainly affects which eye structure?
the retina
395
Hypertension is when, most of the time, the blood pressure is equal to or greater than:
a - 140/90
b - 120/80
c - 180/95
d - 200/100
a - 140/90
396
Which of the following is most commonly used in the treatment of retinal disease caused by hypertension?
a - topical medications
b - periodic injections
c - conventional surgery
d - laser surgery
d - laser surgery
397
The main ocular concern in a patient with cancer is:
a - accelerated presbyopia
b - decreased blood supply to the eye
c - spread of cancer to the eye tissues
d - decreased nerve response
c - spread of cancer to the eye tissues
398
Atherosclerosis characterized by fatty deposits along the walls of the:
a - arteries
b - veins
c - capillaries
d - atrium
a - arteries
399
Which of the following can occur in the eye as a result of atherosclerosis?
a - posterior vitreous detachment
b - macula edema
c - central retinal artery occlusion
d - corneal dystrophy
c - central retinal artery occlusion
400
Leukemia and sickle cell disease both produce abnormal blood cells. These cells can:
a - clump together and clog retinal blood vessels
b - cause retinal detachment
c - cause spasms of extraocular muscles
d - interfere with nerve transmission
a - clump together and clog retinal blood vessels
401
All of the following are infections that can be present at birth except:
a - toxoplasmosis
b - herpes simplex
c - siderosis
d - gonorrhea
c - siderosis
402
Shingles is a systemic infection that can also affect the eye and is caused by:
a - toxocara canis
b - pseudomonas aeruginosa
c - herpes simplex
d - herpes zoster
d - herpes zoster
403
Herpes zoster occurs in patients:
a - who have had malaria
b - who have had a tetanus booster
c - who have had tuberculosis
d - who have had chicken pox
d - who have had chicken pox
404
One of the more common viruses seen in acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) patient is:
a - herpes simplex
b - herpes zoster
c - adenovirus
d - streptococcus
a - herpes simplex
405
All of the following are often seen in patients with AIDS except:
a - dry eye
b - recurrent blepharitis
c - xanthelasma
d - optic neuritis
c - xanthelasma
406
The most likely route of HIV infection from patient to ophthalmic medical personnel would be:
a - contaminated tears during applanation tonometry
b - needle stick during minor surgery
c - being in the same room with an HIV patient
d - shaking hands with the HIV patient
b - needle stick during minor surgery
407
Which of the following disorders is most commonly associated with dry eye?
a - hypertension
b - rheumatiod arthritis
c - osteoporosis
d - diabetes
b - rheumatiod arthritis
408
Smoking can cause all of the following except:
a - dry eye and tobacco amblyopia
b - ptosis, trichiasis and retinoblastoma
c - increased risk of diabetic and hypertensive retinopathy
d - increased risk of macular degeneration
b - ptosis, trichiasis and retinoblastoma
409
All of the following are usually noncancerous skin and lid growths except:
a - xanthelasma
b - molluscum contagiosum
c - milia (skin tags)
d - basal cell tumors
d - basal cell tumors
410
Sagging and eversion of the lower eyelid are termed:
a - entropion
b - ectropion
c - epiphora
d - trichiasis
b - ectropion
411
Entropion is termed as:
a - lids turned inward
b - lids that have inward-turned hairs
c - upper lids that droop
d - lids that can run outward
a - lids turned inward
412
Infection of the lash follicle is a:
a - chalazion
b - hordeolum
c - xanthelasma
d - blepharitis
b - hordeolum
413
A condition in which the lashes grow onward toward the eye is:
a - lash ptosis
b - blepharitis
c - trichiasis
d - keratitis
c - trichiasis
414
An infected Meibomian gland causes a(n):
a - blepharochalasis
b - obstructed nasolacrimal duct
c - chalazion
d - hordeolum
c - chalazion
415
Blepharitis is a common:
a - lid infection
b - corneal infection
c - lid droop
d - retinal disorder
a - lid infection
416
Which of the following refers to a drooping upper lid?
a - ptosis
b - exophthalmos
c - trachoma
d - blepharopasm
a - ptosis
417
Redundant skin of the lids is referred to as:
a - blepharoprosis
b - subluxation
c - entropion
d - dermatochalasis
d - dermatochalasis
418
Infection of the lacrimal sac is termed:
a - caniculitis
b - lacrimitis
c - lacrimal cystitis
d - dacryocustitis
d - dacryocustitis
419
The condition where the lacrimal glad slips down under the conjunctiva is known as a(n):
a - obstructed tear gland
b - conjunctival bleb
c - prolapse
d - pinguecula
c - prolapse
420
Which of the following is not a symptom of dry eye?
a - burning
b - epiphora (streaming tears)
c - gritty, foreign-body sensation
d - extreme itching
b - epiphora (streaming tears)
421
The standard test for diagnosis of dry eye is:
a - rose bengal test
b - schirmer's test
c - fluorescein
d - nasolacrimal irrigation
b - schirmer's test
422
A blockage of the nasolacrimal might result in any of the following except:
a - recurrent erosion syndrome
b - epiphora
c - chronic infections
d - testing in an infant
a - recurrent erosion syndrome
423
Your physician has told the patient that she has a subconjunctival hemorrhage (SCH) and has left you to educate the patient. You should:
a - warn her that she may have a retinal detachment
b - tell her to leave the pressure patch on for 24 hours
c - reassure her that it will dissipate in 1 to 3 weeks
d - impress her with the serious nature of the situation
c - reassure her that it will dissipate in 1 to 3 weeks
424
Slit-lamp evaluation of your patient reveals a yellowish nodule in the conjunctiva just outside of the cornea. Most likely this is a(n):
a - pyergium
b - xanthelasma
c - episcleritis
d - pinguecula
d - pinguecula
425
Blood in the anterior chamber (AC) of the eye is a(n):
a - hypopion
b - aqueous humor
c - rubeosis
d - hyphema
d - hyphema
426
Which of the following refers to a layer of inflammatory cells/pus in the AC?
a - hypopion
b - leuko-aqueous
c - hypophema
d - eosinophilosis
a - hypopion
427
Prior to dilating a patient, one should evaluate:
a - the space between the iris and the lens
b - iridocorneal angle
c - for cataracts
d - the cup-to-disc ratio
b - iridocorneal angle
428
An inflammation of the iris (only) is termed:
a - posterior uveitis
b - uveitis
c - iritis
d - retinitis
c - iritis
429
All of the following are common indications of viral conjunctivitis except:
a - photophobia
b - recent sore throat
c - moderate redness
d - yellow crusting
d - yellow crusting
430
All of the following are true regarding epidemic keratoconjunctivitis (EKC) except:
a - it is highly contagious
b - it is caused by a bacterium
c - the cornea is usually involved
d - it is also known as "shipyard eye"
b - it is caused by a bacterium
431
The type of conjunctivitis caused by constant irritation (such as a contact lens) is:
a - episcleritis
b - scleritis
c - uveitis
d - iritis
b - scleritis
432
Protrusion of the eyeball is known as:
a - exophthalmos
b - keratoconus
c - buphthalmos
d - ptosis
a - exophthalmos
433
A cream colored arc in the cornea at the limbus that may be related to cholesterol is:
a - toxic pemphigoid
b - keratoconus
c - drug reaction
d - arcus
d - arcus
434
neovascularization of the cornea is generally related to:
a - lack of blood supply
b - lack of adequate tears
c - enucleation
d - lack of oxygen
d - lack of oxygen
435
Trachoma, a leading cause of world blindness, is seen in populations with poor diet and hygiene. This devastating disease causes:
a - scarring of lids, conjunctiva and cornea
b - retinal detachment
c - hemorrhagic keratoconjunctivitis
d - sympathetic ophthalmia
a - scarring of lids, conjunctiva and cornea
436
On slit-lamp examination, a corneal lesion caused by herpes simplex typically appears:
a - as a small, round, ulcerated area
b - as a branched-looking erosion
c - as a raised red nodule
d - as a fleshy encroachment on the cornea
b - as a branched-looking erosion
437
Slit-lamp examination of your patient reveals bulging, centrally thinned corneas. Refractometry shows an increase in astigmatism. This patient probably has:
a - pathologic astigmatism
b - keratoconjunctivitis
c - keratoconus
d - exophthalmos
c - keratoconus
438
Your patient has an abrasion of the corneal epithelium. All of the following are true except:
a - the abraded area will be evident with fluorescein and blue light
b - there will likely be a corneal scar
c - it may heal as quickly as overnight
d - there may continue to be a foreign body sensation until fully healed
b - there will likely be a corneal scar
439
When asked about a previous eye surgery, your patient says that she once had "a piece of skin removed from the clear part of my eye". Most likely she is describing a:
Pterygium
440
You are eliciting the patient's chief complaint, and he says, "I wake up in the middle of the night and my eyelid seems stuck shut. Then, when I get it open, its like it pulled a part of my eye with it. My eye hurts, and I can hardly stand the light." An ocular condition that may cause these types of symptoms is:
a - recurrent erosion syndrome
b - keratoconus
c - corneal dystrophy
d - chemical splash
a - recurrent erosion syndrome
441
Which of the following indicates a risk for open-angle glaucoma?
a - pressure sensation in the eyes
b - red, painful eyes
c - a family history of glaucoma
d - halos around lights at night
c - a family history of glaucoma
442
Glaucoma is classically characterized by increased intraocular pressure, visual field loss, and:
a - pigment in the trabecular meshwork
b - headaches at bedtime
c - fluctuating visual acuity
d - optic nerve head damage
d - optic nerve head damage
443
Because of elevated intraocular pressure, a child born with glaucoma has:
a - buphthalmos
b - exophthalmos
c - proptosis
d - lid lag
a - buphthalmos
444
What are the symptoms of angle closure glaucoma?
Redness, pain, blurred vision, and halos around lights
445
Symptoms and signs for acute angle-closure glaucoma include all of the following except:
a - severe pain
b - decreased vision
c - vomiting/nausea
d - miotic pupil
d - miotic pupil
446
Secondary glaucoma can be caused by all of the following except:
a - trauma
b - extended use of topical steroids
c - blood in the AC
d - strabismus
d - strabismus
447
Risk factors for glaucoma include all of the following except:
a - rheumatoid arthritis
b - positive family history
c - African American heritage
d - ocular trauma
a - rheumatoid arthritis
448
All of the following are problems common to public glaucoma screening programs except:
a - air-puff tonometry, commonly used for screening, is not the most accurate method
b - a single, normal pressure reading does not necessarily indicate the absence of glaucoma
c - it generates public interest in the disorder and its treatment
d - some normal pressures register as high and some high pressures read as normal
c - it generates public interest in the disorder and its treatment
449
The most common type of glaucoma is:
a - congenital
b - secondary
c - open-angle
d - angle-closure
c - open-angle
450
The diagnosis of glaucoma may be based on which set of the following tests?
a - tactile pressures
b - slit-lamp exam, glare test, A-scan
c - tonometry, perimetry, ophthalmoscopy, central corneal thickness
d - slit-lamp exam, gonioscopy, peripheral corneal thickness, cup-to-disc ratio
c - tonometry, perimetry, ophthalmoscopy, central corneal thickness
451
Vision lost by glaucoma damage:
a - can be recovered if the intraocular pressure is brought under control
b - can be recovered if treatment is used
c - can be recovered with certain topical or oral medications
d - generally cannot be recovered
d - generally cannot be recovered
452
The appearance of halos around lights during an attach of angle-closure glaucoma is due to:
a - lens edema
b - corneal edema
c - vitreous hemorrhage
d - optic nerve damage
b - corneal edema
453
All of the following are true regarding open-angle glaucoma except:
a - the patient generally has no sensation of eye pressure
b - it can be cured
c - optic nerve damage cannot be reversed
d - it might be controlled with a single medication
b - it can be cured
454
The dangerous element of open-angle glaucoma is:
a - pain
b - rapid, irreversible vision loss,
c - lack of symptoms
d - lack of signs
c - lack of symptoms
455
In open-angle glaucoma:
a - the iris blocks off the angle structures
b - the pressure damages the ciliary body
c - the angle allows too much aqueous to drain out
d - the angle looks normal
d - the angle looks normal
456
A patient known to have open-angle glaucoma:
a - should not be dilated
b - should have his pressure checked with an air-puff tonometer
c - should be checked annually with confrontation fields
d - needs annual dilation, gonioscopy and formal visual fields
d - needs annual dilation, gonioscopy and formal visual fields
457
A patient in the end stages of open-angle glaucoma:
a - may have a small temporal island of vision
b - may have a small central island of vision
c - may have a small nasal island of vision
d - still has enough peripheral vision to get around
a - may have a small temporal island of vision
458
The patient should be told that the first step in applying any type of topical eye medication is to:
a - rinse the eyes with warm water
b - perform lid hygiene
c - wash the hands
d - occlude the punctum
c - wash the hands
459
Ophthalmic ointment is usually applied:
a - to the lower cul de sac
b - to the cornea
c - into the vitreous
d - to the eyelids
a - to the lower cul de sac
460
When using eye drops that patient should do all of the following except:
a - use 2 drops at the same time to ensure effectiveness
b - avoid touching the lids or eye to the bottle tip
c - allow several minutes between instilling different types of drops
d - avoid touching the bottle tip to the fingers
a - use 2 drops at the same time to ensure effectiveness
461
If someone else is to instill eyedrops for the patient, he can be told it is easiest to instill eye drops if the patient will:
a - close one eye
b - open both eyes and look up
c - hold her breath
d - focus on the dropper tip
b - open both eyes and look up
462
A glare test might be indicated in a patient with:
a - glaucoma
b - macular degeneration
c - hypertensive retinopathy
d - posterior capsular cataracts
d - posterior capsular cataracts
463
Your patient is a 10 year old boy who's mother thinks he is having problems with color vision. You evaluate him with Ishihara pseudochromatic plates, which test for:
a - red/green color vision defects
b - blue/yellow color vision defects
c - red/yellow color vision defects
d - green/blue color vision defects
a - red/green color vision defects
464
Usual symptoms of retinal detachment include all of the following except:
a - curtain over the vision
b - floaters
c - pain
d - light flashes
c - pain
465
A patient with open-angle glaucoma has missed an appointment for a pressure check. The practice should:
a - wait for the patient to call and reschedule, then emphasize the importance of IOP checks
b - inform the patient's relatives, and stress the importance of having IOP checks
c - have the pharmacist ask the patient to call the office when medication needs to be refilled
d - contact the patient to reschedule, emphasizing the importance of pressure checks
d - contact the patient to reschedule, emphasizing the importance of pressure checks
466
The total absence of a crystalline lens is termed:
a - phako-delocation
b - pseudoophakia
c - aphakia
d - phacoemulsification
c - aphakia
467
A dislocation of the crystalline lens is termed:
a - iridodonesis
b - phako-prolapse
c - lacrimation
d - luxated
d - luxated
468
Signs and symptoms of uveitis include all of the following except:
a - perilimbal redness
b - sensitivity to light (photophobia)
c - dizziness and nausea
d - smaller, sluggish pupil on the affected side
c - dizziness and nausea
469
Spontaneous retinal detachments are more common in patients with:
a - myopia
b - hyperopia
c - astigmatism
d - presbyopia
a - myopia
470
Most floaters and flashes are caused by:
a - posterior vitreous detachment (PVD)
b - retinal detachment
c - retinitis
d - vitreous hemorrhage
a - posterior vitreous detachment (PVD)
471
A progressive breakdown of the macular tissue usually associated with age is:
a - retinitis pigmentosa
b - presumed ocular histoplasmosis
c - cystic macular edema
d - macular degeneration
d - macular degeneration
472
The physician has asked you to educate a patient with macular degeneration regarding home care. This will most likely include:
a - instillation of eye drops and punctal occlusion
b - Amsler grid, UV protection and vitamin therapy
c - cleansing techniques and physical therapy
d - vision exercises and home color vision testing
b - Amsler grid, UV protection and vitamin therapy
473
Intravitreal injections and laser treatments may sometimes be used in which type of macular degeneration?
a - wet
b - dry
c - congenital
d - tobacco-related
a - wet
474
A patient has had a sudden, painless loss of vision. She should be seen immediately as an emergency because this is a symptom of:
a - intravitreal infection
b - sympathetic ophthalmia
c - endophthalmitis
d - retinal artery occulsion
d - retinal artery occulsion
475
All of the following are true regarding a retinal vein occlusion except:
a - the symptoms are easily distinguished from a retinal artery occlusion
b - it occurs most often in patients with hypertension
c - there is still blood flow into the retinal tissues
d - there may be a visual field change
a - the symptoms are easily distinguished from a retinal artery occlusion
476
Toxoplasmosis is a protozoan - caused infection that can damage the choroid and retina. It is most often passed to humans by means of:
a - contaminated water
b - heterosexual contact
c - contaminated drug paraphernalia
d - cat feces
d - cat feces
477
Histoplasmosis is a fungus-caused infection that can attach to the choroid. A human gets histoplasmosis by:
a - drinking contaminated water
b - eating contaminated meat
c - contact with dog feces
d - inhaling the spores
d - inhaling the spores
478
Which of the following is commonly seen in open-angle glaucoma?
a - optic nerve edema
b - optic neuritis
c - optic nerve pinching
d - optic nerve cupping
d - optic nerve cupping
479
An infection of the internal ocular tissues occurring after surgery or penetrating injury is:
a - retinitis
b - orbititis
c - endophthalmitis
d - cellulitis
c - endophthalmitis
480
A rate condition in which one eye is injured and the fellow, non injured eye develops an inflammation that can destroy the eye is:
a - endophthalmitis
b - blow-out
c - sympathetic ophthalmia
d - syncope
c - sympathetic ophthalmia
481
Treatment for sympathetic ophthalmia is:
a - enucleation of the inflamed, uninjured eye
b - enucleation of the injured eye
c - enucleation of both eyes
d - emergency lens extraction
b - enucleation of the injured eye
482
All of the following are hereditary except:
a - albinism
b - retinitis pigmentosa
c - trachoma
d - colomba
c - trachoma
483
The primary goal of the eye's components is to:
a - interpret what is seen
b - focus incoming light onto the lens
c - focus incoming light onto the retina
d - maintain intraocular pressure
c - focus incoming light onto the retina
484
The term for the eye socket, which consists of seven bones, is:
a - globe
b - orbit
c - bony chamber
d - orbital fissure
b - orbit
485
Most of the blood supply directly to the eye is supplied by:
a - internal carotid artery
b - external carotid artery
c - ophthalmic artery
d - ophthalmic vein
c - ophthalmic artery
486
How many extraocular muscles are attached to the eye?
a - 4
b - 5
c - 6
d - 7
c - 6
487
The "plate" of connective tissue that serves as the underlying structure of the eyelids is the:
a - tarsus
b - Tenon's capsule
c - conjunctiva
d - Meibomian glands
a - tarsus
488
Asians and some children have a small vertical fold of skin nasally between the upper and lower lids. This is called a(n):
a - ptosis fold
b - epicanthal fold
c - ectropion
d - entropion
b - epicanthal fold
489
The main lacrimal (tear) gland is located:
a - under the brow
b - near the nose
c - in the lower lid
d - in the conjunctiva
a - under the brow
490
Which of the following is not a component of the tear film layer?
a - musin
b - water
c - oil
d - plasma
d - plasma
491
What is the route of tears as they are drained off the eyes?
Tears drain off the eye through the punctum into the canaliculi. From there, they go into the lacrimal sac and out the nasolacrimal duct
492
Which tear film later acts to prevent or retard evaporation of tears from the eye?
a - lipid (oily) layer
b - aqueous (watery) layer
c - mucus layer
d - epithelium
a - lipid (oily) layer
493
The ocular media consists of:
a - the lens correction for amblyopia
b - contact lenses and intraocular lenses
c - the eyelid, sclera, uvea, and optic nerve
d - the tear film, cornea, aqueous, vitreous, and lens
d - the tear film, cornea, aqueous, vitreous, and lens
494
Which of the following is NOT part of the optical media?
a - cornea
b - aqueous/vitreous
c - lens
d - retina
d - retina
495
Which optical structure refracts light the most?
a - tear film
b - cornea
c - aqueous
d - lens
b - cornea
496
The average adult corneal diameter, in millimeters, is:
a - 12
b - 10
c - 15
d - 8
a - 12
497
Which corneal layer generally regenerates rapidly without scarring?
a - endothelium
b - stroma
c - Bowman's layer
d - epithelium
d - epithelium
498
Which corneal layer acts to limit corneal hydration (edema)?
a - endothelium
b - stroma
c - Bowman's layer
d - epithelium
a - endothelium
499
How many muscles make up the iris?
a - 1
b - 2
c - 3
d - each strand is a muscle
b - 2
500
Which of the following structures is responsible for aqueous production?
a - ciliary muscle
b - ciliary body
c - trabecular meshwork
d - islets of Langerhans
b - ciliary body
501
The hard, central core (nucleus) of the crystalline lens:
a - is present in its adult form at birth
b - is produced by the capsular envelope
c - is formed from the inside out as fiber layers are produced at the center
d - is formed as lens fiber layers are produced and compacted together
d - is formed as lens fiber layers are produced and compacted together
502
Which of the following is not true regarding the crystalline lens?
a - it lies behind the pupil
b - it is suspended by zonules
c - it lies in the anterior chamber
d - it is encased in a capsular bag
c - it lies in the anterior chamber
503
The physiologic process by which one focuses on a near object is:
a - phakomorphosis
b - accommodation
c - fixation
d - stereopsis
b - accommodation
504
Which of the following does NOT automatically occur when a patient focuses on a close-up object?
a - narrowing of palpebral fissure
b - pupils get smaller
c - eyes converge
d - lens thickens (accommodates)
a - narrowing of palpebral fissure
505
When a person looks at a near object, the ciliary muscle:
a - contracts, causing the zonules to relax, causing the lens to thicken
b - relaxes, causing the zonules to relax, causing the lens to thicken
c - contracts, causing the zonules to pull tight, causing the lens to thin
d - relaxes, causing the zonules to pull tight, causing the lens to thicken
a - contracts, causing the zonules to relax, causing the lens to thicken
506
Which of the following is NOT part of the uvea?
a - choroid
b - iris
c - retina
d - ciliary body
c - retina
507
Which of the following should always be prescribed safety glasses?
a - children and adults
b - postoperative care patients
c - health care workers
d - children and monocular patients
d - children and monocular patients
508
The thinnest allowable width for a general wear, impact resistant glass safety lens is:
a - 1.5 mm
b - 2.2 mm
c - 3.0 mm
d - 3.7 mm
b - 2.2 mm
509
The standard spectacle lens material used for safety in streetwear is:
a - impact-resistant glass
b - heat-treated glass
c - polycarbonate
d - aspheric
c - polycarbonate
510
Your patient is seeing 20/20, yet complains of "not being able to see". Which of the following tests might help in documenting the problem?
a - pinhole test
b - tonometry
c - color vision test
d - contrast sensitivity
d - contrast sensitivity
511
A test done to test how much of vision loss is due to cataracts and how much is to retinal disease is:
a - glare testing
b - brightness acuity test
c - potential acuity test
d - OCT
c - potential acuity test
512
Exophthalmometry reveals that your patient has bulging eyes. Which of the following is the eye care practitioner probably going to want tested?
a - cholesterol levels
b - heart function
c - glucose levels
d - thyroid function
d - thyroid function
513
Your diabetic patient has decreased vision, but says he or she does not want to be dilated. You tell the patient you will not do anything he or she does not want you to do, but:
a - you cannot get an accurate IOP without it
b - it is the best way for the doctor to get a good look at the back of the eye
c - you can take nonmydriatic fundus photos instead
d - the optic nerve is not visible without it
b - it is the best way for the doctor to get a good look at the back of the eye
514
Which of the following would be a way to explain a Schirmer's test to a patient?
a - This will help us learn what is causing your floaters
b - this will help us learn what is causing your eyes to feel so gritty
c - this will helps us learn if your cataract is ready to be removed
d - this will helps us learn why you are having headaches
b - this will help us learn what is causing your eyes to feel so gritty
515
A "dye test" to evaluate the retina's blood vessels is:
a - retinal photography
b - rose bengal angiography
c - fluorescein slit-lamp test
d - fluorescein angiography
d - fluorescein angiography
516
You are about to perform an A-scan on a patient with a suspected intraocular foreign body. You explain to the patient that:
a - the test involves the use of laser technology
b - the test uses a strong magnet to create an image
c - the test uses ultrasound waves
d - the test uses ultraviolet rays
c - the test uses ultrasound waves
517
The doctor has asked you to measure a patient's central corneal thickness. You might explain this to the patient using any of the following except:
a - corneal thickness can be related to how we interpret your IOP readings
b - this measurement uses ultrasound to measure your cornea
c - this reading is just one aspect in determining if glaucoma is present
d - this measurement is essential in fitting your contact lenses
d - this measurement is essential in fitting your contact lenses
518
They physician has ordered an OCT and left you in the room to explain the procedure to the patient. You tell her that the test:
a - uses ultrasound to image all of the eyes structures
b - is used to further evaluate the vision
c - shows the layers of the retina
d - determines aqueous flow
c - shows the layers of the retina
519
Your patient complains of foreign body sensation. Which of the following would be most useful:
a - tonometry
b - corneal topography
c - keratometry
d - topical fluorescein
d - topical fluorescein
520
Which of the following helps determine the cause of an eye infection?
a - biopsy
b - culture
c - rose bengal
d - A-scan
b - culture
521
An established patient returns every 6 months or so complaining of decreased vision. Refractometry has shown gradual increase of astigmatism. The most helpful test to determine the cause of this would be a(n):
a - keratometry
b - pachymetry
c - corneal topography
d - A-scan
c - corneal topography
522
Welders must wear safety glasses or shields that will protect them from:
a - chemical splashes
b - laser radiation
c - infrared radiation burns
d - ultraviolet radiation burns
d - ultraviolet radiation burns
523
To reduce systemic absorption of an eye drop, the patient should be instructed to:
a - use only half the prescribed dose and close his eye
b - avoid getting eye drops on his fingers
c - put pressure over the punctum after instilling drops
d - blink rapidly after instilling drops
c - put pressure over the punctum after instilling drops
524
A patient returns for a 2-year exam, and her vision today with glasses is 20/70. Two years ago, she was 20/25- with the same prescription. You performed a pinhole test, which improves her vision to 25/50+. This most likely indicates:
a - the glasses were filled incorrectly
b - a new refraction should improve her back up to 20/25-
c - she has dry eye
d - there is some type of ocular pathology present
d - there is some type of ocular pathology present
525
Each of the following tests is standard in determining the cause of red painful eye except:
a - pachymetry
b - pupil check
c - slit-lamp exam
d - IOP check
a - pachymetry
526
Your patient had 20/20 vision OD 9 months ago. Today it is 20/60, without pinhole improvement. In the absence of obvious pathology, the eye care provider may want which of the following tests to help diagnose the problem?
a - BAT
b - PAM
c - fluorescein angiogram
d - OCT of the macula
d - OCT of the macula
527
A patient complaining of floaters and flashes will need which of the following?
a - B-scan ultrasound
b - dilated fundus exam
c - specular microscopy
d - macular photostress test
b - dilated fundus exam
528
The procedure to help alleviate dry eye by keeping tests on the eye is:
a - tarsorrhaphy
b - exilarian
c - punctal occlusion
d - test inserts
c - punctal occlusion
529
The physiological process by which one focuses on a near object is:
a - phakomorphosis
b - accommodation
c - fixation
d - stereopsis
b - accommodation
