College Network Flashcards
(145 cards)
1
Q
Homologous
A
Fundamentally similar in structure and function
2
Q
Sex cells are called __________ and are produced by ________.
A
Gametes
Gonads
3
Q
What are the 3 stages of adolescence and their corresponding ages?
A
Early: 11-14
Middle: 15-17
Late: 18-20
4
Q
Increase in adrenal gland activity just before puberty.
A
Adrenarche
5
Q
Average time between breast development and menarche.
A
2.3 years
6
Q
Female external genitals
A
Vulva
7
Q
Border between female internal and external genitals.
A
Introitus
8
Q
From inside to out, name the three layers of the uterus.
A
Endometrium
Myometrium
Parietal peritoneum
9
Q
Another name for foreskin
A
Prepuce
10
Q
Which testicle typically hangs lower due to a longer spermatic cord?
A
Left
11
Q
What are the 2 hormones responsible for stimulating spermatogenesis?
A
FSH - follicle stimulating hormone
LH - Luteinizing hormone
12
Q
What is the mature follicle being released from the ovary called?
A
Graafian follicle
13
Q
What are the 2 phases of the ovarian cycle?
A
Follicular phase - immediately following menses thru ovulation.
Luteal phase - ovulation to menses
14
Q
Cessation of reproductive function
A
Climacteric
15
Q
Sensate exercises
A
Learning to enjoy touch without sexual intercourse, such as massage.
16
Q
What are the 4 type of female sexual dysfunction?
A
- Orgasmic dysfunction: inability to have an orgasm
- Vaginismus: involuntary closing of the vaginal muscles before sex.
- Dyspareunia: pain during intercourse due to inadequate lubrication
- Vulvodynia: chronic genital pain
17
Q
Infibulation
A
A form of genital mutilation involving stitching the laboria major together to prevent intercourse.
18
Q
Contragestion
A
Prevention of implantation
19
Q
What are the 4 phases of “Rape Trauma Syndrome”?
A
- Acute Phase (disorganization)
- Outward Adjustment Phase (denial)
- Reorganization
- Integration and Recovery
20
Q
What are the 3 parts of a nursing diagnosis?
What are the 2 parts of a “risk” diagnosis?
Readiness diagnosis?
Syndrome diagnosis?
A
Diagnosis, related to, as evidenced by.
Risk for, related to.
Readiness statements and syndrome statements are stand alone statements.
21
Q
What is the best time during a woman’s cycle to perform BSE?
A
1 week after their menstrual cycle starts.
22
Q
When is the best time for men to perform TSE?
A
1x per month after a hot shower or bath.
23
Q
An infertility evaluation should be considered after ___ months of attempting to get pregnant without success?
A
9-12 months
24
Q
What is a vital nutrient during pregnancy that can be found in leafy greens and prenatal vitamins?
A
Folic acid
25
What types of vaccines should not be given during pregnancy.
No live virus.
26
How is the beginning of pregnancy calculated?
The beginning of the last menstrual cycle.
27
What is "quickening" and when is it typically experienced?
Fetal movements felt by the mother.
| Approx. 20 weeks
28
Gestation
Number of weeks since the beginning of the last menstrual period.
29
Premature labor
20-37 weeks
30
Post-term labor
After 42 weeks
31
Para:
Gravida:
Para: number of vaginal births
Gravida: number of pregnancies
e.g. primigravida - 1st pregnancy
32
How long after ovulation can the ova be fertilized?
About 24hrs
33
The ovum's hard outer layer is called the _________?
zona pellucida
34
The process of the blastocyst implanting into the uterine wall.
nidation
35
What hormone do pregnancy tests check for?
HCG - human chorionic gonadotropin
36
How many veins/arteries in the umbilical cord and which direction are they traveling?
1 vein transporting to the baby
| 2 arteries transporting from the baby
37
A special connective tissue called ___________ surrounds the umbilical cord preventing it from compression while in utero.
Wharton's jelly
38
What are the 3 positive signs of pregnancy?
1. Fetal heart rate detected (120-160 is normal)
2. Fetal movements palpable by a trained examiner
3. Ultrasound
39
A probable sign of pregnancy - a softening of the cervix due to pelvic congestion.
Goodell's sign
40
A presumptive sign of pregnancy - violet-bluish color of the vaginal mucus membrane.
Chadwick's sign
41
Pre-pregnancy uterine capacity =
| Full term capacity =
10ml
| 5000ml
42
How much % increase of maternal blood volume?
45%
43
What would be expected in the hematocrit of a pregnant woman?
What is this termed?
Slightly lower, as the red blood cell increase is not as great as the plasma increase.
Physiologic anemia of pregnancy
44
Why is it not unusual to see glucose in the urine during pregnancy?
Due to increased glomerular filtration and the inability of the kidneys to reabsorb all of the glucose.
45
Urinary frequency is experienced in which trimesters?
1st and 3rd
46
What is the term for when fathers experience some of the pregnancy symptoms such as weight gain and nausea?
Couvades
47
Enlarged gestational body
Fetal macrosomia
48
An infant born to an HIV positive mother may initially test positive, but it may be false. Why?
HIV tests detect antibodies. The infant HIV test may be detecting maternal antibodies. It may take 15-18 months to clear the maternal antibodies.
49
What are the TORCH infections that can be serious if contracted during pregnancy?
```
Toxoplasmosis
Other (hepatitis and varicella)
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes Simplex
```
50
This disease is caused by a Protozoa and can be contracted by eating undercooked meat or contact with cat feces.
Toxoplasmosis
51
A pregnant woman is found to have insufficient titer levels of rubella during her 1st trimester. Should she receive the vaccination?
No, as it is a live vaccine.
52
Maternal hypertension prior to 20 weeks gestation or persisting after 12 weeks post-partum.
Chronic hypertension
53
Mild hypertension without proteinuria or signs of pre-eclampsia.
Gestational hypertension
54
New onset hypertension with proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation
Pre-eclampsia
55
With eclampsia, HELLP may occur. What does HELLP stand for?
Hemolysis
Elevated Liver enzymes
Low Platelets
56
What is the only cure for preeclampsia?
Delivery
57
Labor between 20-37 weeks
Preterm or premature
58
If preterm labor is suspected, what should vaginal secretions be tested for?
Fetal fibronectin
59
The use of medications to stop labor
Tocolysis
60
Name 3 drugs that may be used to treat preterm labor.
Mag sulfate
Indomethacin
Nefedipine
61
Placenta Previa is unlikely to occur before ____ weeks.
20 weeks
62
Painless dilation of the cervix without contractions.
Incompetent cervix
63
Abnormal proliferation of trophoblast tissue with no viable fetus.
Gestational trophoblastic disease (molar pregnancy)
64
What medication is given to an RH negative mother with an RH positive fetus, to prevent sensitization.
RhoGAM
65
What is considered a normal value for glucose tolerance test of a pregnant woman?
Below 140
66
This test evaluates the fetus heart rate when the mother moves. A normal response is an increased heart rate.
Non-stress test
67
The only absolute maternal contraindication for mag sulfate.
Myasthenia gravis
68
What is docusate sodium (colace) used for?
Constipation
69
What is Nagele's rule for calculating estimated delivery date?
1. LMP
2. Add 1 year
3. Subtract 3 months
4. Add 7 days
70
What is McDonald's method of determining estimated delivery date?
Measuring fundal height (distance in centimeters from top of pubis symphysis to top of uterine fundus).
e.g. @26 weeks the fundal height should be 26cm
71
What are striae gravidarum?
Stretch marks
72
What is chloasma?
Brown pigmented facial areas during pregnancy.
73
What should be the minimum prenatal and pregnancy folic acid intake?
400mcg
74
What is the recommended prenatal visit frequency?
Every 4 weeks Thru 28 weeks
Every 2 weeks 28-36 weeks
Weekly after 36 weeks
75
At the end of the 3rd trimester, the baby settles, or lowers into the mother's pelvis.
Lightening
76
Describe the 3 stages of labor.
Stage 1: beginning of true labor to full dilation
Stage 2: complete dilation through birth of infant
Stage 3: from birth of infant through birth of placenta
77
What are the 3 phases of the 1st stage of labor?
Latent
Active
Transition
78
Artificial rupture of membranes.
Amniotomy
79
What are the 6 "Cardinal movements" of labor and delivery?
1. Descent
2. Flexion (of the head)
3. Internal rotation
4. Extension
5. External rotation
6. Expulsion
80
Placental separation usually occurs within how long after birth?
A placenta is considered retained if not delivered within?
5 minutes
| 30 minutes
81
Vertex presentation
Babies occiput is pressing on the cervix with each contraction
82
Type of baby position where 2 parts are presenting such as an arm with the head.
Compound presentation
83
Difficult labor
Dystocia
84
Failure of cervical dilation and hypotonic uterine dysfunction.
Primary uterine inertia
85
Uterine contractions that are too weak or far apart to be effective.
Hypotonic uterine dysfunction
86
Stillbirth at 20 weeks or later
Fetal death in utero
87
Disorder in which Chorionic villi attach directly to the muscular wall of the uterus. Maternal hemorrhage and failure of the placenta to detach may be complications.
Placenta accreta
88
What is dinoprostone (prepadil, cervadil) used for?
Softening and effacement of the cervix.
89
Caput succedaneum
Scalp edema and bruising
90
What type of c-section is more likely to be performed in an emergency situation? Low transverse, or vertical (classical)?
Vertical are easier to deliver and more likely to be used in an emergency setting. They do take longer to heal.
91
Method of birth that encourages home birth for healthy pregnancies.
Kitzinger method
92
Light stroking over the abdomen to relieve mild to moderate pain.
Effleurage
93
The rapid reduction in size of uterus, following birth.
Involution - approx. a 3 week process
94
Uterine debris from birth
Lochia
95
RDA of protein for lactating mother the 1st 6 months.
65 grams
96
Recommended additional caloric intake for nursing mothers.
500 calories/day
97
RDA of calcium
| RDA of calcium while nursing
800mg
| 1200mg
98
RDA of vitamin C during lactation
95mg
99
Infection of the reproductive tract resulting from birth that occurs anytime up to 6 weeks post partum.
Puerperal infections
100
What does the Direct Coombs test test for?
Tests cord blood for antibodies (such as RH factor)
101
What is Methergine used for?
Stimulating the uterus postpartally, to reduce blood loss.
102
Normal infant weight loss can be up to ____ %
5%
103
Average weight gain the 1st year.
7kg
104
Similar to fetal alcohol syndrome, this is due to maternal exposure to other illicit substances during pregnancy.
Neonatal abstinence syndrome
105
Disease of excessive accumulation of phenylalanine and abnormal metabolism.
PKU
| Phenylketonuria
106
Hyperbilirubinemia is defined as how much?
Above 12mg/dl
107
From birth to 2 months, how often and how much should the bottle fed infant feed?
6-8 feedings/ 24hr period, 2-4 ounces each
108
What are the signs of sepsis in an infant?
Can be vague.
| Hypothermia and neurological deficits.
109
What muscles are being contracted during Kegel exercises?
pubococcygeus muscles
110
What is Honan's sign?
Calf pain when dorsiflexing feet.
| Could be an indication of thrombophlebitis.
111
What is pyloric stenosis and what gender experiences it more frequently?
Obstruction of the pyloric sphincter.
| Males
112
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy only occurs in which gender?
Males
113
Tay-sach's disease occurs most commonly in which population group?
Jews
114
How does tetralogy of Fallot affect pulmonary blood flow?
Decreases it
115
What does the ductus arteriosis connect?
Aorta and pulmonary artery
116
This congenital disorder leaves an opening between left and right ventricles.
Ventricular Septal Defect
117
What is believed to be the cause of clubbing?
Chronic polycythemia due to chronic hypoxia
118
This medication may be used to increase cardiac output in the pediatric chf patient.
Digoxin
119
What is a common symptom of digoxin toxicity?
Bradycardia
120
What is the drug spironolactone?
A diuretic - may be used to treat CHF
121
Do one or both parents need to pass on sickle cell trait in order for the child to have the disease?
Cystic fibrosis?
Both. One parent can cause the child to be a carrier though.
Both diseases are autosomal recessive genetic disorders
122
What organ, besides the lungs, does cystic fibrosis affect?
Pancreas
123
A pavlik harness is used to treat?
Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)
124
What is the most common form of club foot?
```
talipes equinovarus
(Toes pointed down and foot inverted)
```
125
Duchenne's muscular dystrophy - what gender does it occur in most commonly?
It only occurs in males because it is an X-linked disorder
126
Life span of someone with muscular dystrophy
Usually not past 30 due to heart or respiratory failure
127
Cleft lip and cleft palate occur more frequently in which population groups?
Native American and Asian
128
What is biliary atresia?
Inflammation of bile ducts leading to stenosis and blockage. Usually fatal by age 2 if not treated.
129
This disease is characterized by decreased motility of the intestine related to the absence of ganglion cells in parts of the colon.
Hirschsprung's disease
130
No identifiable anus opening?
Imperforate anus
131
Atresia
Absence or abnormal narrowing of an opening or passage in the body
132
What is hypospadias and epispadias?
Congenital disorders in which the urethral opening is not at the tip of the penis.
133
This disease only occurs in females and is the result of a missing X-chromosome in all of their cells.
Turner syndrome
134
This disorder only occurs in males and is the result of one or more additional X-chromosomes.
Klinefelter's syndrome
135
What is the primary blood test used to check for Cushing's syndrome?
Dexamethasone suppression test
136
What effect does hyperparathyroidism have on calcium levels?
Increased serum calcium (hypercalcemia)
137
A surge in which hormone stimulates ovulation?
LH - Luteinizing hormone
138
What are typical temperature changes surrounding ovulation?
Slight drop before, slight increase after
139
Minimum sperm count per ml
20 million
140
Uterine prolapse that is visible outside the vagina.
procidentia
141
An instrument placed in the vagina to support the uterus, rectum, or bladder.
A pessary
142
Protrusion of the intestinal wall into the vagina.
Enterocele
143
Widening of cervical canal and scraping of endometrium.
Dilation and curettage (D&C)
144
Accumulation waste products in the blood
Azotemia
145
Failure of the testes to descend into the scrotum
Cryptorchidism
