Combank questions Flashcards
(139 cards)
1
Q
Disease characterized by destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts, portal inflammation and scarring.
A
Primary biliary cirrhosis (anti-mitochondrial antibodies)
2
Q
Characterized by asthmatic wheezing, flushing, diarrhea, right sided heart dysfunction, can sometimes be mistaken for IBD
A
Carcinoid syndrome
3
Q
This drug in TB treatment regimen is associated with red-green colorblindness
A
Ethambutol
4
Q
Labs for Wilson’s Disease
A
Copper increased
Ceruloplasmin decreased
5
Q
Craniosacral flexion the sacrum moves…
A
posterior
6
Q
This cranial technique is known for increasing the CRI
A
CV4 technique
7
Q
This nucleus receives auditory input from the superior olive and inferior colliculus
A
Medial geniculate body
8
Q
3 causes of non-anion gap acidosis
A
diarrhea, hyperchloremia, renal tubular acidosis
9
Q
Causes of anion-gap acidosis (MUDPILES)
A
Methanol, uremia, DKA, propylene glycol, isoniazid, lactic acidosis, ethanol/ethylene glycol, salicylates
10
Q
How is McArdle disease managed?
A
Oral ingestion of sucrose before exercise
11
Q
antidote for TCA abuse
A
sodium bicarbonate
12
Q
Essential thrombocytosis presents with these 3 symptoms
A
Headache, Lower extremity pain, GI bleeds
13
Q
Right vagus affected: uvula deviates to the
A
left
14
Q
gastritis w/ watery diarrhea in kids <2
A
Rotavirus
15
Q
Kluver Bucy syndrome
A
bilateral amygdala lesions, hypersexuality, hyperorality, docile
16
Q
DOC in initial HTN with coexisting DM
A
ACE inhibitor
17
Q
Dermatological manifestation of Celiac disease
A
Dermatitis herpeteformis (knees, buttocks, neck)
18
Q
1st phenotypic sign of puberty in females is
A
thelarche (breast bud)
19
Q
Calculation for renal plasma flow
A
RPF= (Urine PAH)(urine flow rate) / plasma PAH
20
Q
Calculation for renal blood flow
A
RBF= RPF / 1- Hct
21
Q
Pancreatic tumor causing copious diarrhea
A
VIP-oma
22
Q
Brain structure injured in alcoholic Wernicke’s encephalopathy
A
Mammillary bodies
23
Q
Cranial torsion occurs about what axis?
A
A-P axis
24
Q
1 cause of mitral valve stenosis
A
Rheumatic fever
25
Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by:
1. RVH
2. Pulmonic stenosis
3. Overriding aorta
4. VSD
26
Direction of shunt causing cyanosis
R-->L
27
Direction of shunt causing pulmonary HTN
L-->R
28
The dura moves cephalad during what cranial movement?
Flexion
29
Heart murmur associated with carcinoid syndrome
Tricuspid regurgitation
30
Volume of air in lungs before you take a breath
FRC
31
Teichoic acid, which induces IL-1 and TNF alpha is specific for this type of bacteria
Gram +
32
Nerve tested by the Tredelenburg test
Superior gluteal : medius and minimus
33
Two types of receptors on the pupil and what happens during stimulation of them?
M3 and alpha 1
Stimulation of M3: miosis
Stimulation of alpha 1: mydriasis
34
Medulla is formed from the
myelencephalon
35
Midbrain is formed from the
mesencephalon
36
cerebellum and pons are formed from the
metencephalon
37
Androgen deprivator given in advanced prostate CA
Flutamide
38
Myocarditis, achalasia, megacolon are symptoms of
Chagas disease
39
Muscle of mastication that opens the mouth
Lateral pterygoid
40
Muscles of mastication that close the mouth
Masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid
41
Diameter of a positive TB test in the general population
>15 mm
42
Diameter of a positive TB test in immigrants, healthcare workers, IVDU, prisons, kids <4
>10 mm
43
Diameter of positive TB test in HIV, TB, transplants, immunosuppressed
>5 mm
44
Charcot leyden crystals, eosinophils, "loeffler syndrome" are seen in
Ascaris lumbricoides
45
Bacteria with anti-erythrocyte antibodies
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
46
A cranial lateral strain occurs about what axes?
2 vertical axes
47
Tx for H. pylori
PPI + 2 Abx (metronidazole, clindamycin/tetracycline)
48
Can you detect Legionella in urine samples?
Yea mannn
49
Lack of mature B cells and opsonization
Bruton's agammaglobulinemia
50
Baby can't have formula, need fructose free diet
Hereditary fructose intolerance: deficiency of aldolase B
51
EKG pattern of progressively longer PR intervals until there is a dropped QRS
Mobitz I (wenkebach)
52
EKG pattern of dropped QRS with no change in PR intervals
Mobitz II
53
Which way will the trachea deviate in a tension pneumothorax?
opposite to the pneumothorax
54
Benign buildup of unconjugated bilirubin due to decreased activity of glucouronyl transferase
Gilbert's disease
55
Buildup of conjugated bilirubin, jaundice after fasting states. Decreased ability to transport bilirubin into bile canaliculi
Rotor syndrome
56
Blood type A is associated with what GI disorder?
Gastric carcinoma
57
Blood type O is associated with what GI disorder?
Peptic ulcer disease
58
Kyphoscoliosis, nystagmus, hammer toes, pes cavus, GAA repeats
Friedrich ataxia
59
Signs of acute tubular necrosis
hematuria, edema, tea-colored urine, granular casts, tubular cells
60
Rotator cuff muscles that externally rotate the arm
infraspinatus and teres minor
61
Rotator cuff muscle that internally rotates the arm
subscapularis
62
PTH increases calcium absorption in what part of the nephron?
distal convoluted tubule
63
3 drugs proven to increase survival in CHF
Beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, Spironolactone
64
Type 1 hyperlipidemia is characterized by a deficiency in this enzyme:
lipoprotein lipase; thus there is an increase in chylomicrons, VLDL and trigs. Decrease in LDL and HDL. These patients are at risk for pancreatitis.
65
Type III hyperlipidemia, aka familial dysbetalipoproteinemia, is characterized by a deficiency in what?
ApoE; thus there are increased chylomicron remnants, VLDL, IDL and LDL. HDL is normal. Increased risk of CAD
66
Type IIa hypercholesterolemia is due to a defect in what receptor?
LDL receptor on hepatocytes
67
Type IIb hypercholesterolemia is due to a defect in what protein?
Apo B100
68
Hyperglycemia, anemia, venous thrombosis and necrolytic migratory erythema are all characteristics of what type of tumor?
Glucagonoma
69
Tx for SIADH that can consequently cause nephrogenic DI
demeclocycline
70
plane of motion the AA moves in
Horizontal plane
71
EKG changes in DKA
Peaked T waves, wide QRS and flat P waves
72
In Down Syndrome, what happens to AFP, HCG, and inhibin A levels?
Decreased AFP, Increased HCG and increased inhibin A
73
Is Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome due to decreased compliance or elastance?
Compliance
74
anastomoses seen in esophageal varices
Left gastric and esophageal
75
Skin cancer with the best prognosis
Basal cell carcinoma
76
V/Q is high or low at the base of the lungs?
low at base (less than 1.0)
77
V/Q is high or low at the apex of the lungs?
high at base (greater than 1.0)
78
Membranous nephropathy is associated with what histological finding?
spike and dome IgG
79
Following a viral URI, this finding includes abdominal pain, hematuria, arthritis. Kids 3-15, there are IgA deposits in mesangium.
Henoch Schonlen purpura
80
Elevated dopamine occurs in what psychiatric disease?
Schizophrenia
81
Immune disease in kids with albinism, pyrogenic infections, neurologic abnormalities and coagulation defecits
Chediak Higashi syndrome: abnormal fusion of phagosome to lysosome
82
REM sleep is initiated and decreased by these neurotransmitters
Initiated: acetylcholine
Reduced: Norepinephrine
83
Disease with Anti-Jo 1 antibodies
polymyositis
84
Birth defects caused by phenytoin
skull, face abnormalities, hypoplasia of fingers and toes
85
Broca's aphasia is located in which region of the brain?
left Frontal lobe
86
Wernicke's aphasia is located in which region of the brain?
left Superior temporal lobe
87
If the left MCA infarcts you get aphasias; what happens if the right MCA infarcts?
left neglect syndrome
88
Brown sequard (hemisection) does what to tough/vibration/proprioception?
Defect is ipsilateral
89
Brown Sequard hemisection affects what side for pain/temp?
Defect is contralateral
90
Brown sequard hemisection causes spastic paralysis on what side?
ipsilateral below the injury
91
GAA repeats, nystagmus, pes cavus, hammer toes, hypertropic cardiomyopathy
Fredriech ataxia
92
Sidebending-rotation cranial motion occurs about what axis?
1 AP axis and 2 vertical axes
93
An increase in hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's space is caused by what?
Post-glomerular obstruction
94
receptor on chylomicrons that recognizes LDL
ApoB48
95
X linked recessive disease characterized by thrombocytopenia, ezcema, infections
Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
96
nerve that innervates and pierces pronator teres
median nerve
97
Mental retardation, hamartomas in retina, cardiac rhabdomyomas, seizures, facial angiofobromas, "ash leaf" spots
Tuberous sclerosis
98
Why is neisseria more susceptible to membrane attack complex?
LOS instead of LPS
99
MEN 1: (3P)
Pancreatic, pituitary and parathyroid tumors.
| Sx: ulcers, kidney stones, headaches, vision changes
100
Hereditary angioedema is a deficiency in what part of complement?
C1-inhibitor
101
MEN 2A:
Medullary thyroid, pheochromocytoma, parathyroid tumors
102
MEN 2B:
Medullary thyroid, pheochromocytoma, Marfan's
103
This drug is responsible for Placental Abruption and causes IUGR
Cociane
104
This type of colon polyp is most concerning for a malignancy
Villous type
105
Hereditary spherocytosis is characterized by a deficiency in what protein?
Spectrin
106
Cervical intraepithelial neoplastic changes most often occur where?
Basal layer of the squamocolumnar junction
107
Acute tublar necrosis results in what EKG change?
Peaked T waves
108
These physiologic states can increase digoxin toxicity
Hypercalcemia and Hypokalemia
109
Myotonic dystrophy is a repeat of this nucleotide and is caused by this genetic event
CTG repeats
| Caused by instability during maternal meiosis
110
EKG changes seen with Hyperkalemia
Flat P waves, Wide QRS, Peaked T waves
111
EKG changes seen in Hypokalemia
Flat or inverted T waves, U waves, ST depression
112
What cardio effect can macrolide abx have?
Prolonged QT
113
MOA of curare and its derivatives like rocuronium
competitive antagonist at acetylcholine receptors
114
MOA of the drug treating pulm HTN, bosentan
competitively antagonize endothelin 1 receptors
115
DOC for cryptococcus meningitis
Amphotercin B (binds to ergosterol to form pores in membranes)
116
Birefringence patterns of gout and pseudogout respectively
Gout=negative; pseudogout=positive
117
First sign of magnesium toxicity
decreased deep tendon reflexes
118
Dose limiting side effect of chlozapine
Agranulocytosis
119
Benzodiazepine that is safe in liver failure because it is not metabolized there
Lorazepam
120
Serotonin is the primary NT in this area of the brain
raphe nucleus
121
NE is the primary NT in this area of the brain
locus ceruleus
122
tx oculogyric dystonic crisis caused by antipsychotic use
Diphenhydramine, benztropine or amantadine
123
What is Courvosier's sign and what does it indicate?
enlarged palpable painless gallbladder, can be in presence of jaundice. Assoc with Pancreatic Ca
124
how do you diagnose pancreatic cancer?
Ca 19-9 and CT
125
lesion in subthalamic nucleus gives you what sx?
contralateral hemiballismus
126
what do macrolides do to p450?
inhibit
127
what does rifampin do to p450?
induce
128
parathyroid hyperplasia, pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid carcinoma. Hypercalcemia, osteopenia, high calcitonin
MEN 2A
129
CCK acts through what kind of receptor
Gq --> phospholipase C
130
eosinophilic hyaline inclusion bodies are AKA?
Mallory bodies (alcoholic hepatitis)
131
what structure connects the lateral and the 3rd ventricle?
foramen of monro
132
what structure connects the 3rd and 4th ventricles?
aqueduct of sylvius
133
what is medicare part A responsible for?
Hospital, skilled nursing, hospice, home health
134
what is medicare part B responsible for?
outpatient care, dr offices, physical and occupational therapy
135
what is medicare part D responsible for?
Drugs.
136
Raising the threshold for a positive screening test (i.e. making a + glucose test 130 instead of 126) has what effect?
Increases specificity (creates more positives, meaning fewer false positives. Will actually decrease the sensitivity because more people will test negative)
137
Croup (parainfluenza) causes what type of infection and what is the Xray sign?
Laryngotracheobronchitis and Steeple sign on x-ray (subglottic narrowing)
138
Von willebrands is characterized by what lab values?
prolonged bleeding time and prolonged PTT. NORMAL PT
139
where does the MMA exit through the skull?
foramen spinosum
