Common Core

Question 1

Conditions that led to the formation of the Navy

Answer 1

America’s first based offensive to cut off British resupply lines during the revolutionary war

Question 2

Qualities that characterize the navy/marine corps team as instruments to support national policies

Answer 2

Readiness
Flexibility
Self sustainability
Mobility

Question 3

Navy’s Birthday

Father of the Navy

Answer 3

October 13, 1775

John Paul Jones

Question 4

What were the conditions that led to the creation of the Seabees?

Answer 4

During WWII armed construction workers were critically needed in combat

Question 5

Significance of March 5, 1942 (Seabees)

Answer 5

Seabees name was granted
Bureau of yards and docks
Created by Admiral Ben moreell
Birthday of the Seabees

Question 6

Battle of Coral Sea

Answer 6

May 6-8, 1942, battle fought entirely by aircraft launched from carriers, the two fleets never saw each other
Purpose was to stop invasion of Australia
USS Lexington was sunk

Question 7

What carriers were involved in the battle of coral sea?

Answer 7

USS YORKTOWN
USS LEXINGTON

UN SHO HO
UN SHO KAKU
UN ZUI KAKU

Question 8

Invasion of Normandy

Answer 8

June 4, 1944
Largest amphibious operation in history
Completed landings successfully and eventually pushed on into Germany

Omaha beach 
Utah beach 
Juno beach 
Sword beach 
Gold beach

Question 9

Battle of midway

Answer 9

June 4-7, 1942
The turning point of the war in the pacific
USS Yorktown and USS Hammann sunk

Question 10

The 6 first frigates and commission date

Answer 10

Constellation 
Constitution 
Congress
Chesapeake 
President 
United States 
March 27, 1794

Question 11

What do the 3 stars on the Coxswain pin mean?

Answer 11

The 3 operations of the Vietnam War
Market Time TF115
Game Warden TF116
Mobile Riverine Force TF117

Question 12

Who is the father of the brown water navy

Answer 12

Admiral Elmo R Zumwalt jr
Launched the sealords
October 8, 1968

Question 13

Conditions that led to the creation of navy explosive ordnance and divers

Answer 13

During WWII first volunteers trained with British UN-exploded ordinance (UXO) teams
1941-1945-19 classes graduated and were deployed throughout the pacific
Originally named Mobile Explosive Investigative Units (MEIU)
Handles, defuses and disposed of ammunition and explosives

Question 14

SECNAV

Answer 14

Conducts recruiting, organizing, supplying, equipping, training, and mobilizing and demobilizing
Oversees the construction, outfitting and repair of naval ships, equipment and facilities
Formulates and implements policies and programs that are consistent with the national security policies and objectives established by the president and the secdef

Question 15

CNO

Answer 15

Responsible to the SECNAV for the command, utilization of resources and operating efficiency of the operating forces of the navy and of the navy shore activities assigned by the secretary
A member of the joint chiefs of staff the CNO is the principal naval advisor to the president and to the SECNAV on the conduct of war and is the principal advisor and naval executive to the secretary on the conduct of the activities of the department of the navy

Question 16

MCPON

Answer 16

Senior enlisted person in the navy, serves as the senior enlisted leader of the navy and as an advisor to the CNO and to the chief of naval personnel in the matters dealing with enlisted personnel and their families
An advisor to the many boards dealing with enlisted personnel issues, is the enlisted representative of the department of the navy at special events may be called upon to testify on enlisted personnel issues before congress and maintains a liasion with enlisted spouse organizations

Question 17

Fleet master Chief

Answer 17

The navy’s fleet force CNO directed and command master Chief program is a valuable asset, which stimulates free flowing communications and ensures the highest standards of professionalism are upheld at all levels within the chain of command.
Fleet M/C, Force M/C, CNO directed command M/Cs and command M/C strengthen the chain of command by keeping the commander/commanding officer aware of existing or potential situations as well as procedures and practices which affect the mission, readiness, welfare and moral of sailors in the command

Question 18

Force master Chief

Answer 18

Report directly to their respective commanders/commanding officers. They participate in formulating and implementing policies concerning morale, welfare, job satisfaction, discipline, utilization, and training of navy enlisted personnel by reporting directly to their commanders
Keep their chain of command aware and informed of sensitive and current issues

Question 19

Commanding Officer

Answer 19

As set forth in US navy regulations, the CO is charged with the absolute responsibility for the safety, wellbeing, and efficiency of his or her command.

Question 20

Executive Officer

Answer 20

The XO is the direct representative of the commanding officer. The XO shall be primarily responsible under the CO for the organization, performance of duty and good order and discipline of the entire command. He will recognize the right and duty of a head of department to confer directly with the CO on matters specifically relating the his department

Question 21

CMDMC

Answer 21

The CMDCM is the enlisted advisor to the command on the formulation and implementation of the policies pertinent to the morale, welfare, job satisfaction, discipline, utilization and training of all enlisted personnel and as such the CMC has direct access to the CO.

Question 22

N1

Answer 22

Observe and report to the XO on the effectiveness of an administrative policy, procedures and regulations of the command

Question 23

N3

Answer 23

Reports to the CO concerning operations, intelligence and tactical employment of the unit and assigned aircraft.
Reports to the XO for the administration of the operations department

Question 24

N4

Answer 24

Under the CO, responsible for OPTAR funds, material items and COSAL inventory

Question 25

N6

Answer 25

Operates and administers the end segments or operator positions of the radio and landline facilities at the communication activity

Question 26

7 NECC commands

Answer 26

Coastal riverine force Maritime civil affairs and training command Explosive ordinance disposal Naval construction force Naval expeditionary intelligence command Naval expeditionary logistics Expeditionary combat readiness command

Question 27

Development of the navy safety and occupational health program

Answer 27

Navy historically maintained SOH program to protect its people and property Navy safety program includes: explosives safety, nuclear safety, aviation safety, acquisition and system safety, traffic safety and off duty safety Chief of naval operations special assistant for safety matters has traditionally managed the overall SOH program Safety and occupational health (SOH)

Question 28

What is the purpose of ORM

Answer 28

Decision making tool used by personnel at all levels to increase effectiveness by identifying assessing and managing risks OPNAVINST 3500.39C

Question 29

3 types of ORM

Answer 29

Time critical -mental and oral review of situation Deliberate- brainstorm to identify hazards and develop controls In-depth - deliberate process involving thorough risk assessment

Question 30

5 steps of ORM

Answer 30

``` I- identify hazards A- asses hazards M- make risk decisions I- implement controls S- supervise ```

Question 31

4 principles of ORM

Answer 31

Accept risk when benefits outweigh the cost Accept no unnecessary risk Anticipate and manage risk by planning Make risk decisions at the right level

Question 32

Hazard severity codes

Answer 32

Category 1- loss of mission capability, unit readiness or asset, death Category 2- significantly degraded mission capability or unit readiness, severe injury or damage Category 3- degraded mission capability or unit readiness, minor damage to equipment Category 4- little or no impact to mission capability or unit readiness, minimal injury or damage

Question 33

Mishap probability codes

Answer 33

Subcategory A- likely to occur: immediately or within a short period of time Subcategory B- probably will occur in time: expected to occur several time to an individual item or person Subcategory C- May occur in time: can reasonably be expected to occur sometime to an individual item or person Subcategory D- unlikely to occur: not impossible

Question 34

Hazard Severity

Answer 34

An assessment of the potential consequence that can occur as a result of a hazard and is defined by the degree of injury, illness, property damage, loss of assets (time, money,personnel) or effect on the mission or task. Consideration must be given to exposure potential

Question 35

Mishap probability

Answer 35

As assessment of the likelyhood that a potential consequence may occur as a result of a hazard and is defined by assessment of such factors as location, exposure (cycles or hours of operations) affected populations, experience, or previously established statistical information

Question 36

Hierarchy or preferred control measures for fall hazards

Answer 36

Elimination-removing hazard Prevention- isolating hazard Engineering controls- design change Administrative controls- implementing workplace practices

Question 37

What is the purpose of the hazmat program

Answer 37

Identifies safety and occupational health functions and defines requirements and responsibilities for shore activity and region Hazardous material control and management, focuses on preventing, minimizing or eliminating the introduction of hazardous materials Safety handling and disposing of hazardous waste

Question 38

Safety and occupational health training requirements

Answer 38

``` Safety orientations Hearing conservation Asbestos hazards Respiratory protection Lead Exposure monitoring Hazardous material Confined space entry Ergonomics Weight handling PPE ```

Question 39

Purpose of safety standdown

Answer 39

Summer months Winter months Trends in command Promotes safety by covering topics mishaps (Drugs, alcohol, motorcycle, stress.. etc)

Question 40

Mishap Classifications

Answer 40

Class A- resulting in total cost of property damages in an amount of 1 million or more or an injury or illness, result in a fatality or permanent disability Class B- resulting in total cost of property damage in 200k or more but less than 1million. An injury or illness resulting in partial disability or when 3 or more persons are hospitalized Class C- total cost of damages is 20k or more but less than 200k, an event involving one or more persons that results in one or more days away from work

Question 41

Globally harmonized system

Answer 41

``` standard phrases assigned to a hazard class and category that describe the nature of the hazard. The symbols, signals words and hazard statements have all been standardized and assigned to specific hazard categories and classes as appropriate Hazard pictograms convey health, physical and environmental hazard information ```

Question 42

At what decibel is single hearing protection requires

Answer 42

85-96 decibels

Question 43

At what decibel is double hearing protection required

Answer 43

96 decibels and above

Question 44

What are the risk factors of work related musculoskeletal disorders (WMSD)

Answer 44

``` Force Repetition Awkward or static posture Vibration Contact stress ```

Question 45

Palletization

Answer 45

The prevent damage to a units cargo and equipment during movement, it is essential to use proper palletizing techniques as listed in military standard 174D, palletized unit loads. Each pallet must be able to withstand inclement weather and rough handling.

Question 46

Weighing and marking cargo

Answer 46

To correctly move equipment, it must be prepared, marked and labeled correctly. There are two main divisions; vehicle and general cargo UIC Marking NATO Embarkation boxes, crates & pallet boards Hazmat ID labels, chemical/safety Hazmat label (generic shippers declaration) and out on 3 sides of container SOLID 5 POINT BLACK STAR= used by NATO is to identify US military vehicles

Question 47

Shoring

Answer 47

Shoring and dunnage May be required when loading cargo and equipment on all modes of transportation. The unit owning or presenting the equipment for shipment is responsible for purchasing and providing the shoring and dunnage required for movement

Question 48

4 types of shoring

Answer 48

Sleeper Rolling Parking Approach

Question 49

Joint inspection

Answer 49

JI Joint inspection is recorded on form DD-2133, joint airlift inspection record All equipment must be properly prepared and documented before it can be loaded on any aircraft. Must be approved that equipment is safe and ready to fly

Question 50

463L Pallet System

Answer 50

Aluminum shell with soft wood core framed on all sides by aluminum rails 22 tie down rings each of 7500lb restraint capacity 88x108x96in (84x104in usable) Empty weight 290, 355 with cargo netting Max load with the use of a complete set of nets is 10,000lbs of cargo If loads exceeds the limit, shoring must be used to spread the load over a large area

Question 51

C-130 Hercules

Answer 51

Primary use- intra theater 6 pallets, 90 passengers, 62k gallons fuel Tactical airlift, provides airdrop and air land support to forward operating locations. Typical missions include moving cargo from main theater staging bases to the front lines Can take off on shorter distance and land on uneven ground

Question 52

C-17 globemaster

Answer 52

Primary use-intra theater 18 pallets, 102 passengers, 184k gallons Typical mission: tactical airlift of outsized items of cargo to small austere airfields at or near the battle area, be aerial delivery or air land methods

Question 53

C5 galaxy

Answer 53

Primary use inter theater 36 pallets, 344 passangers, 332,500 gallons of fuel Strategic airlift of outsized cargo Typical mission: moves cargo such as large helos, tanks and communications vans. Largest plane, opens from the front and back.

Question 54

KC10 Extender

Answer 54

Primary use inter theater 22 pallets. 75 passengers, 356k gallons of fuel Strategic airlift Typical mission is for refueling

Question 55

Calculating Center of balance for Cese equipment

Answer 55

Weigh all axles (combined weight of axle), establish a reference datum line (RDL) at the front axel, measure distance from RDL to all axels (to center of dual axels) compute moments for all axels or combines axels divide total movements by total weight to determine CB. Mark each axel weight, center balance, and gross weight. Moment equation from a reference datum line (RDL) (front line) Weight x distance = moment

Question 56

Time phased force deployment data (TPFDD)

Answer 56

The TFPDD is both a force requirements and a prioritized transportation movement document. The TFPDD defines the combatant commanders time-phases lift requirements for supplies, equipment and replacement personnel needed to sustain the forces specified during force planning

Question 57

3 phases of TFPDD

Answer 57

Concept Plan development Review

Question 58

Military sealift command mission

Answer 58

The mission of the MSC is to provide ocean transportation of equipment, fuel, supplies, and ammunition to sustain US forces worldwide across the romo for as long as operational RQMTs dictate. MSC provides the sea transportation component for USTRANSCOM. MSC operates ships that provide combat logistics support to USN

Question 59

Military sealift command strategies

Answer 59

Sustainment of sealift capability Preposition assets at strategic locations Surge sealift capability of critical weapons and equipment

Question 60

Maritime pre-positioning force (MPF) (13)

Answer 60

Marines, Seabees, HMs Deploys MAGTF (marines air-ground task force) Locations- Rota, Diego Garcia, Guam Afloat prepositioning force(APF) (over 30)

Question 61

Op Funds

Answer 61

OPTAR funds are derived from the activity’s projected expenditures based on the amount used during the previous 12 months and their operating schedule for the next 12 months. The activity submits it’s budget request to their type commander who then consolidates until it makes its way to the POTUS. He then send Congress a budget. They then pass appropriation bills into law. Those funds are then distributed back through commands.

Question 62

Army supply Class I

Answer 62

Rations- food, free health and comfort items

Question 63

Army supply Class II

Answer 63

Expendables- individuals equipment, tentage, organizational tool sets and kits, hand tools, unclassified maps, administrative and housekeeping supplies and equipment

Question 64

Army Supply Class III

Answer 64

POL- petroleum, oil and lubricants: petroleum, fuels, lubricants, hydraulic and insulating oils, preservatives, liquids and gases, bulk chemical products, coolants, driver and antifreeze compounds and additives of petroleum and chemical products and coal

Question 65

Army supply Class IV

Answer 65

Construction materials, including installed equipment and all fortification and carrier materials

Question 66

Army supply Class V

Answer 66

Ammunition of all types, bombs, explosives, mines, fuses, detonators, pyrotechnics, missiles, rockets, propellants and associated items

Question 67

Army supply Class VI

Answer 67

Personal demand items Health and hygiene products, soaps, toothpaste, writing materials, snack food, beverages, cigarettes, batteries, alcohol, cameras

Question 68

Army supply Class VII

Answer 68

Major end items such as launchers, tanks. Mobile machine shops, and vehicles

Question 69

Army supply Class VIII

Answer 69

Medical material, equipment and consumables including repair parts to peculiar medical equipment.

Question 70

Army supply Class IX

Answer 70

Repair parts and components to include kits, assemblies and sub assemblies required for maintenance support of all equipment

Question 71

Army supply Class X

Answer 71

Material to support nonmilitary programs such as agriculture and economic development

Question 72

Army supply Miscellaneous

Answer 72

Water, salvage, captured material

Question 73

Purpose of Table of allowance (TOA) TA77

Answer 73

An equipment allowance document which prescribed basic allowances of organizational equipment and provides the control to develop, revise or change equipment inventory data

Question 74

Government commercial purchase card

Answer 74

Intended to streamline small purchase methods, minimize paperwork, eliminate petty cash, streamline payment process and simplify the admin effort associated with purchases of supplies and services

Question 75

What is the purpose of shipper declaration of dangerous goods

Answer 75

Document hazardous cargo Use a generic shippers declaration for dangerous foods format Describe hazmat Provides handling information Units are required to have MCO P4030.19H readily available (Preparing hazardous materials for military air shipments )

Question 76

Cargo containers

Answer 76

``` Side opening container Flat rock loader Half-height container (halfcon) PALCON quadruple container Triple container ISO ISU ```

Question 77

Embarkation ACL

Answer 77

Allowable cabin/cargo load | Amount of the passengers/cargo that may be transported by a specific aircraft

Question 78

Embarkation CRE/CRT

Answer 78

Contingency response element | Contingency response team

Question 79

Embarkation Marshaling

Answer 79

Process by which units move equipment, cargo, and personnel to temporary staging area near embarkation points

Question 80

Embarkation AACG

Answer 80

Arrival airfield control group | Responsible for receiving all airlifted items and movement from airfield to deployment site

Question 81

Embarkation DACG

Answer 81

Departure airfield control group | Responsible for controlling the flow of personnel, cargo, and equipment from the marshaling area to the aircraft

Question 82

How many types of shoring are used during embarkation operations?

Answer 82

4 Sleeper- under the frames of vehicles over 20k with balloon tires. Protects vehicles from bouncing Rolling- protects aircraft parking ramp and cargo from cleated treads Parking- 3/4” disperses weight Approach- decreases the approach angle of loading ramps

Question 83

Convoy troop leading procedures

Answer 83

``` receive the mission Issue warning order Make a tentative plan Initiate movement Reconnoiter Complete the plan Issue the convoy brief Supervise ```

Question 84

Additional factors for convoy planning

Answer 84

Gun trucks Use of forward security element Maintain OPSEC Destruction plan

Question 85

How does the operating target (OPTAR)/budget impacts your department

Answer 85

Funds for administrative and housekeeping items, forms, routine maintenance tools not specifically related to but which may be used in, the repair equipment and other items having a limited shelf life such as lubricants, boiler compound and bilge cleaner

Question 86

DD FORM 1348-6

Answer 86

The DD FORM 1348-6 is recommended for requisitioning material that is not identified by a national stock number (NSN) or NICN

Question 87

NAVCOMPT 2276

Answer 87

Reimbursable work order

Question 88

NAVSUP 1250-2

Answer 88

General MILSTRIP requisitioning forms- will be used only when facilities are not available to the requisitioning activity to enable automated transmission of documents or the requisition coding structure does not provide sufficient data to assist the supply source in making supply decisions

Question 89

DD FORM 448 (MIPR)

Answer 89

Interdepartmental purchase request is a method for transferring funds by one military organization to another to procure purchases of supplies or equipment for the requiring service. The MIPR May be accepted on a direct citation or reimbursable basis

Question 90

SF44

Answer 90

Purchase order/ invoice voucher A pocket size multipurpose purchase order form designed primarily for on the spot over the counter purchases of supplies and non personal service. It is a purchase order, receiving report, invoice and public voucher

Question 91

DD FORM 1155

Answer 91

Fuel purchases- used to document all fuel purchases from commercial sources

Question 92

SF30

Answer 92

Modification of change of price

Question 93

DD FORM 200

Answer 93

Survey is the expenditure of material when it is lost, damaged, unserviceable or non-ready for issue (NRFI) and is not economically repairable

Question 94

Table of allowance

Answer 94

An equipment allowance document that prescribes basic allowances of organizational equipment and provides the control to develop, revise, or change equipment authorization inventory data

Question 95

Joint acquisition review board

Answer 95

The MNC-I joint acquisition review board is a review system to ensure the command is make good financial decisions

Question 96

Joint facilities utilization board

Answer 96

A joint board that evaluates and reconciles component requests for real estate, use of existing facilities, inter-service support and construct to ensure compliance with joint civil military engineering board priorities AKA JFUB

Question 97

Procedure for gardening vehicles

Answer 97

Cover the cargo bed of troop carrying vehicles with at least a double interlocking layer of sandbags. Cover the cab floor of all vehicles with a double layer under the driver seat. Place a heavy rubber or fiber mat over the sandbags to reduce danger from fragments of sand/metal parts. Sandbags May also be placed on the good, fuel tank and fenders

Question 98

Convoy commander/ ACC

Answer 98

The leader charger with responsibility for the planning, preparation, execution and tactical employment of a convoy The ACC is prepared to assume the duties of CC and responsible for logistics and maintenance of vehicles, weapons, communications and other key equipment support of the convoy

Question 99

Lead vehicle commander

Answer 99

Performs convoy navigation duties, communicates checkpoints, turns, danger areas, maintains convoy speed/interval as seen from their location or via radio

Question 100

Vehicle commander

Answer 100

Responsible for standard equipment requirements (ammunition, food, water, fuel, etc) As well as organizing and rehearsing crew drills of assigned vehicles

Question 101

Diver/ A driver

Answer 101

Primary duty is to drive, scan assigned sector of observation, is prepared to return fire in extreme situations. Can be rotated out when required

Question 102

Crew served weapons operator

Answer 102

Responsible for primary and alternative sectors of fire, targets greatest threat along the route

Question 103

Designated marksman

Answer 103

The purpose of the designated marksman is to facilitate precision fires

Question 104

Medic

Answer 104

Render medical treatment and supervise evacuation of casualties

Question 105

Littler team

Answer 105

ARE personnel that are responsible for providing. Buddy aid, preparation of casualties for movement and or evacuation

Question 106

Landing zone team

Answer 106

The LZ team consists of a minimum of two personnel responsible for establishing and marking the Liz for possible MEDEVAC or other required support provided by air

Question 107

Assault team

Answer 107

Personnel with the convoy to act as an assault element in the event the convoy encounters heavy enemy action requiring the convoy to halt

Question 108

Recovery team

Answer 108

Maintenance recovery personnel and vehicles should be designated to assist with maintenance and recovery of convoy assets along the route

Question 109

Security personnel

Answer 109

All other personnel participating in the convoy

Question 110

File formation

Answer 110

Best used with inexperienced or foreign drivers Simple, usable at night but interval will have to be compress Minimizes IED blast effects Disadvantages- weak left flank security, reduced field of view, reduced headlight coverage at night

Question 111

Staggered formation

Answer 111

Used only on multi lane roads Allows for all around security, greater flexibility Permits ease of maneuver during contact, greater headlight coverage at night Disadvantages- requires more command and control and driver experience, more vulnerable to IED blast effects

Question 112

Offset formation

Answer 112

Used to block third party traffic and assists in changing lanes Combines flexibility of stagger with the ease of the file formation Allows COnvoy commander to control third party traffic Disadvantages- vulnerable to IED blast effects, difficult to command and control

Question 113

Inverted T formation

Answer 113

Used on multi lane roads, convoy runs the centerline if their lanes limits third party vehicle infiltration Disadvantages- requires experienced drivers, weak left flank security Difficult to command and control without sufficient communications

Question 114

Diamond formation

Answer 114

Used on multi lane roads Limits third party vehicle infiltration Disadvantages- requires experienced drivers, difficult to command and control without sufficient communications

Question 115

Downed driver

Answer 115

Vehicle commander gains control of steering wheel- if possible third person pulls driver out of drivers compartment and vehicle commander moves into drivers seat

Question 116

Bailout

Answer 116

Crew on the cold side dismounts, assumes hasty position to the rear of the vehicle and returns fire Hot side returns fire until clear to dismount on the cold side. C moves to the front of the vehicle. Assumes firing positions using the vehicle as cover Establish 360 degree security Look for indicators of enemy presence

Question 117

Hasty vehicle recovery

Answer 117

Use a strap, cable, or chain. Position the tie downs beforehand After fire superiority is obtained, recovery vehicle moves forward. Driver stays in vehicle while VC ties onto disabled. VC gets into disabled vehicle to steer/work on brakes. Recovery vehicle moves and pulls disabled Recovery vehicle moves to rally point to reconfig to more stable towing. If unable to get in front of disabled vehicle, push through is an option. Premounting a used tire on the front of the vehicle assists in push through

Question 118

In stride hasty vehicle recovery

Answer 118

If vehicle is disabled, the driver and VC extend the strap from both the disabled and recovery vehicle. Recovery vehicle moves alongside disabled vehicle. VC and driver attach connecting device and release straps Recovery vehicle continues to move forward slowly taking up the slack and pulling the vehicle out.

Question 119

Dismount/remount procedures

Answer 119

Dismount is called by the VC Dismounts do not get in between any vehicles but protect space between vehicles. Dismounts use buddy teams to over watch each other. They already maintain line of sight with the buddy. Rear security is the only one behind a vehicle but should stay off to the side. If necessary dismounts use hand motions and verbal commands to motion civilians back. If that fails they use weapons at port arms to to motion civilians back. If more force is required dismounts ensure actions taken are in accordance with ROE. Remount given by CC

Question 120

React to contact- Blow through

Answer 120

Speed up Signal, visual signal to indicate general direction of enemy Return fire, proportional and accurate fires within the ROE Send a report Move to a rally point away from site based on SOP and METT-TC Establish 360 degree security Send ACE report Continue the mission

Question 121

React to contact, recovery, no obstacle

Answer 121

Convoy is forced to stop. Dismount and establish 360 degrees of security. Maintain sector of scan/fire. Look for indications of enemy presence. Achieve fire superiority. Report to higher and request assistance if needed. Recover casualties from cold side. Recovery vehicle executes hasty recovery. Convoy continues movement to rally point, establishes 360 security. CC sends ACE report and convoy continues mission

Question 122

React to contact- recovery- obstacle

Answer 122

Crowd or other impediment prevents movement and convoy is forced to stop. VC and other personnel in vehicles dismount. drivers and CSW operators remain on vehicle and remain ready to react. Establish 360 security, maintain sector, scan for enemy presence, achieve fire superiority. Dismounts recover casualties from cold side CC assessed situation, establishes a hasty defense and awaits QRF or directs escorts force to assault through ambush using fire and maneuver

Question 123

Hasty attack

Answer 123

Gun trucks, designated marksman, assault force suppress identified threat with accurate fires Gun trucks maneuver to suitable position to protect convoy and cutoff enemy egress route by fire

Question 124

Sectors of observation and fields of fire in a convoy

Answer 124

Sector of observation is comprised of the entire area visible to the crew member Drivers sector of observation is from 9 o’clock to 1 o’clock VCs sector is from 11 o’clock to 3 o’clock Sector of fire is the area that be covered with direct fire Drivers sector of fire is from 9 to 11 o’clock VC sector of fire is from 1 to 3 o’clock

Question 125

Convoy communications

Answer 125

Vehicle internal Vehicle to vehicle External to convoy

Question 126

Characteristics of IED/VBIED

Answer 126

Constructed using mortar shells, mines, diesel fuel, rockets Can be hidden in pot holes, dead animals, on poles, vehicles Disguised as trash, buckets, bags, cans Command detonated, victim detonated, timed Dropped or attached to things Enemy will usually have line of sight to kill zone IEDs can be daisy chained.. one sets off all

Question 127

5 Cs (IED)

Answer 127

``` Confirm Clear Cordon Control Check ```

Question 128

Purpose of first aid

Answer 128

To save lives and prevent further injury

Question 129

Asphyxiation

Answer 129

Drowning, choking, exposure to poisonous fumes Treatment: maintain open airway, head tilt chin lift/ jaw thrust maneuver, remove individual from the hazardous environment

Question 130

Hemorrhage

Answer 130

Loss of blood from the circulatory system due to gun shots, stab wounds, punctured and IED Treatment: direct pressure/ compression, elevation and pressure points

Question 131

Cardiac arrest

Answer 131

Irregular beating of the heart, lower chambers | Treatment- CPR, AED, higher medical care

Question 132

Fractures

Answer 132

A break in a bone or cartilage due to blunt force trauma, falls, auto accident or weak bones Treatment- control bleeding if present, splint as found, seek higher medical attention

Question 133

Burns

Answer 133

Caused by sun, electricity, chemical agents and scalding heat Treatment- remove from source, remove constricting clothes, treat for shock, control bleeding, and loose apply moist dressing

Question 134

Shocks

Answer 134

Result from trauma, blood loss, heat stroke and allergic reaction Treatment- keep casualty warm and calm, treat any life threatening injury, transport to higher medical care

Question 135

2 types of fractures

Answer 135

Simple(closed) a simple fracture is one in which the injury is entirely internal Treatment-splint,do not move casualty until injury has been splinter unless necessary to save life or prevent further injury Compound (open) an open fracture is where the bone protrudes through the flesh Treatment- stop bleeding by direct pressure, treat wound then fracture

Question 136

Arterial bleed

Answer 136

Bright red blood spurts from the wound

Question 137

Venous bleed

Answer 137

Dark red blood flows from the wound

Question 138

Capillary bleed

Answer 138

Bleeding is slow oozes from the wound

Question 139

Bleed control techniques

Answer 139

Direct pressure- first and most effective Pressure dressing- aid in blood clotting and compress the open blood vessel Indirect pressure- in conjunction with direct pressure and elevation Tourniquet- last resort

Question 140

Systems of shock

Answer 140

``` Anxiety Nausea Weak pulse Thirst Pale skin Shallow breathing Enlarged pupils ```

Question 141

Treatment of shock

Answer 141

``` Maintain open airway Control breathing Keep warm Elevate legs Give nothing by mouth Request medical assistance ```

Question 142

Rule of 9s

Answer 142

Of greater importance that the depth of the burn in evaluating the seriousness of the condition is the extent of the burned area. A first degree burn over 50% of the body surface area may be more serious than a third degree burn over 3%. The rule of 9s is used to give a rough estimate of the surface area affected

Question 143

Thermal burn

Answer 143

``` Caused by fire Hot objects Hot liquids Gases Nuclear blast it fireball ```

Question 144

Electrical burn

Answer 144

Caused by electrical wires, current or lighting | Treatment- monitor basic functions, CPR, treat for shock, cover entrance and exit wounds, transport to medical facility

Question 145

Chemical burn

Answer 145

Contact with wet or dry chemicals or white phosphorus Treatment- quickly flush the area with water, remove all clothing, neutralize any chemical remaining on affected area, flush again with water, pat dry and move to medical facility

Question 146

First degree burn

Answer 146

Slight redness, mild swelling, tenderness and painful at sight

Question 147

Second degree burn

Answer 147

Skin blisters, fluid plasma loss at the surface, severe pain and redness at sight

Question 148

Third degree burn

Answer 148

Extends through all layers of the skin, skin may look white or charred. Skin, muscle and even bone may be destroyed

Question 149

Chest wounds

Answer 149

Stop the bleeding, seal wound on both sides, give nothing by mouth, monitor and treat for shock

Question 150

Abdominal wounds

Answer 150

Stop the bleeding. Keep exposed intestines moist and covered with abdominal dressing, treat for shock, place casualty in most comfortable position tolerable, do not push intestines back into body

Question 151

Head wounds

Answer 151

Give no medications, lightly wrap injury, monitor away, lie victim down and maintain C-spine precautions, treat for shocks, seek higher medical care

Question 152

Eye injury

Answer 152

Cover one or both eyes, seek higher medical care

Question 153

Facial wounds

Answer 153

Maintain airway, remove any obstructions such as teeth, place victim into a recover position to prevent choking in blood or other items that may induce vomiting. Give nothing by mouth.

Question 154

Hypothermia

Answer 154

Abnormally low body temperature, due to a prolong exposure to the cold elements Shivering, drowsiness, troubled breathing, eyes glossy, weak or absent pulse Treatment- remove from environment, observe airway, CPR if needed, treat other injuries, remove wet clothing, warm by water or skin to skin, treat for shock

Question 155

Frost bite

Answer 155

Ice crystals form in tissue Reddens, numbness, hard to touch, loss of feeling in toes and fingers Treatment- remove wet clothing, warm thawed extremities, do not rub, sterile gauze between tors and fingers

Question 156

5 methods to transporting a victim

Answer 156

``` Stokes stretcher Blanket drag Fireman carry Arm carry Pack strap carry ``` **move casualty feet first

Question 157

Heat stroke

Answer 157

Extremely high body temperature 104 degrees or more Headache, nausea, dizziness, or weakness, flushed, dry and hot, pupils will constrict and pulse fast and strong Move casualty to cool area, remove as much clothing as possible, douse with cool water, apply ice packs to head, neck, arm outs, groin and ankles, IV fluids Move to higher medical care

Question 158

Heat exhaustion

Answer 158

Signs similar to shock Temperature 99-103.9 degrees Ashen gray, skin is cool, moist and clammy and the pupils may be dilated Most common heat related injury Treat as if in shock, give cool water, loosen clothing and apply wet clothes to head, maxilla, groin and ankles

Question 159

Heat cramps

Answer 159

Move victim to cool place and gently massage muscles to relieve spasms, give cool water: salt (1 tsp/quart water) Excessive sweating can lead to pain cramps in the muscles in the abdomen, legs and arms. Heat cramps may also result from drinking too much ice water or other cold drinks or drinking them too quickly

Question 160

Tactical casualty combat care (TCCC) triage

Answer 160

Immediate- require lifesaving surgery Delayed- in need of time consuming surgery Minimal- relatively minor injuries, can care for self Expectant- wounds so extensive; survival would be unlikely; provide comfort measures for these casualties

Question 161

TCCC Care under fire

Answer 161

1. Expect casualty to stay engaged as a combatant if appropriate 2. Return fire as directed or required 3. Try to keep yourself from being shot 4. Try to keep casualty from sustaining additional wounds 5. Airway management is generally best deferred until tactical field care phase 6. Stop any life threatening external hemorrhage

Question 162

TCCC Tactical field care

Answer 162

1. casualties with an altered mental status should be disarmed immediately 2. airway management 3. breathing 4. bleeding 5. IV 6. Fluid resuscitation 7. Inspect and dress known wounds 8. check for additional wounds 9. Analgesia as necessary 10. Sprint fractures and recheck pulse 11. Antibiotics: for all open wounds 12. Communicate with patient .. 13. CPR

Question 163

TCCC tac-evac

Answer 163

1. airway management 2. breathing 3. Bleeding 4. IV 5.fluid resuscitation 6. Prevent hypothermia 7. Penetrating eye tra 9. inspect and dress known wounds 10. Check for additional wounds 11. Provide analgesia 12. reassess fractures and recheck pulses 13. Antibiotics 14. The pneumatic anti-shock garment (PSAG) May be useful for stabilizing pelvic fractures and controlling pelvic and abdominal bleeding 15. Documentation of care

Question 164

What special gauze is used in the field to aid in the control of bleeding?

Answer 164

Combat gauze- used on extremities only, applied with at least 3 minutes of direct pressure

Question 165

What does most stand for?

Answer 165

M- mechanism of injury I- injuries or illness S- symptoms and vital signs T- treatment given Given after a 9 line MEDEVAC

Question 166

What are the 3 methods of communications in areas where oral communication is not reliable?

Answer 166

Whistle signals Special signals (horn, klaxon, Siren, pistol, rifle) Arm and hand signals

Question 167

What is the comms plan?

Answer 167

The primary purpose of tactical communication is to enable and support C2. Communications planning must be detailed enough to provide clarity, but also flexible enough to respond to the chaos inherent in the battle space and during the conduct of military operations

Question 168

Command and control

Answer 168

Enables the naval commander to understand the situation in his battle space As defined in joint publication 142 command and control is “the exercise of authority and direction by a properly designated commander over assigned and attached forces in the accomplishment of the mission

Question 169

Process of command and control

Answer 169

Plan , directing, coordinating, and controlling of forces and operations from a high level It’s a continuous cyclical process called the decision and execution cycle AKA the OODA loop (observe, orient, decide, act) Command and control allows a commander to make effective decisions and direct the successful execution of military operations

Question 170

What are the 3 levels of intelligence

Answer 170

Strategic Operational Tactical

Question 171

What is the purpose of naval intelligence

Answer 171

Intelligence is the product resulting from the collection, exploitation, processing, integration, analysis, evaluation and interpretation of available information concerning foreign countries or areas

Question 172

What are the 5 principles of intelligence

Answer 172

``` Know the adversary Ensure unity of intelligence effort Commanders needs are paramount Plan for combat Use an all source approach ```

Question 173

7 key attributes of intelligence

Answer 173

``` Timeliness Objectivity Usability Availability Thoroughness Accuracy Relevance ```

Question 174

What are the 5 steps of the intelligence cycle

Answer 174

``` Planning and direction Collection Processing Production Dissemination ```

Question 175

OPLAN

Answer 175

Operation plan- detained statement of a course to be followed to accomplish a future mission

Question 176

OPORD

Answer 176

Operation Order- OPORD puts the OPLAN in effect, it is a formal statement issued by the senior commander to subordinate commanders that outlines the coordinated execution of a future operation in the field

Question 177

WARNORD

Answer 177

Warning order- a brief statement outlining the patrols general or special organization, specific uniforms, ammo, weapons, equipment, chain of command, time schedule

Question 178

FRAGO

Answer 178

Fragmentary order- an abbreviated form of an operation order issued as needed after an operation order to change or modify that order or the execute a branch or sequel to that order

Question 179

EXORD

Answer 179

Execution order- initiates supply personnel and admin procedure required for a unit movement

Question 180

DEPORD

Answer 180

Deployment order- May be contained in a warning order. Is a change to alert status of units and movement of selected forces to preposition for impending operations

Question 181

CONOPS

Answer 181

Concept of operations- a doctrine, defined as being the “a verbal or graphic statement that clearly and concisely expresses what the joint force commander intends to accomplish and how it will be done using available resources

Question 182

Message precedence

Answer 182

R- routine: 6 hours or less P- priority: 3 hours or less O- immediate: 30 minutes or less Z- flash: ASAP, objective less than 10 minutes

Question 183

Two-person integrity (TPI)

Answer 183

Two person integrity is the security measure taken to prevent single person access to COMSEC keying material and crypto maintenance manuals

Question 184

Access

Answer 184

The ability and opportunity to obtain knowledge of classified information

Question 185

Classification

Answer 185

The determination that official information requires in the interest of national security, a specific degrees of protection against unauthorized disclosure, coupled with a designation signifying that such a determination has been made FOUO, unclass, classified, secret, top secret

Question 186

Compromise

Answer 186

A security violation which has resulted in confirmed exposure of classified information or material to a person

Question 187

Need to know

Answer 187

A determination made by an authorized holder of classified information that a prospective recipient requires access to specific classified information

Question 188

Clearance

Answer 188

A formal determination that a person meets the personnel security standards and is thus eligible for access to classified information other than that protected in a special access program

Question 189

3 types of clearances

Answer 189

Confidential Secret Top secret

Question 190

EEFI codes

Answer 190

``` 01- position 02- capabilities 03- operations 04- electronic warfare 05- personnel 06- COMSEC 07- wrong circuit ```

Question 191

EEFI

Answer 191

Elements of friendly information, identify specific items of information which is revealed, transmitted immediately to and correlated with other information, which would degrade unit safety and security.

Question 192

Bead window

Answer 192

Real time procedure used to alert circuit operators that an unauthorized disclosure has occurred over a non-secured circuit

Question 193

HF radio Freq

Answer 193

High frequency | 3MHZ - 30MHZ

Question 194

VHF radio Freq

Answer 194

Very high frequency | 30MHZ - 300MHZ

Question 195

UHF radio freq

Answer 195

Ultra high frequency | 300MHZ - 3GHZ

Question 196

SATCOM radio freq

Answer 196

Satellite communications

Question 197

CEOI

Answer 197

Communications electronic operating instruction Instruction that contains your command and signal portion of your SMEAC, passwords and challenges, call signs, frequencies, crypto, circuits, phone directories

Question 198

What is he purpose of a day time group on a message?

Answer 198

For identification purposes | Day-time- time zone-month and year

Question 199

What is the purpose of an unexploded ordnance report?

Answer 199

Takes immediate action to prevent death, injury or damage to material, reported UXO hazard using the UXO spot report format

Question 200

OPCON

Answer 200

Operation control commanders at or below the combatant commander exercise OPCON as their command authority. OPCON is inherent in COCOM and is the authority to perform the functions of command over subordinate forces.

Question 201

TACON

Answer 201

Tactical control the CNIC uses TCON to limit the authority to direct the tactical use of combat forces. Normally limited to the detailed and specified local direction of movement and maneuvers of the tactical force to accomplish assigned task

Question 202

ADCON

Answer 202

Administrative control direction or exercise of authority necessary to fulfill military department statutory responsibilities for admin and support

Question 203

COCOM

Answer 203

Combatant commands commands authority authorized by title 10, us code, section 164 or as directed by the president. Provides full authority to organize and employ commands and forces as the combatant commander considers necessary to accomplish assigned missions

Question 204

OPREP 3, NAVY BLUE

Answer 204

Incidents of high level, US NAVY interest | Armed attack against navy vessel

Question 205

OPREP 3, UNIT SITREP

Answer 205

Incidents that do not meet the PINNACLE OR NAVY BLUE reporting criteria (DUI, Domestic violence)

Question 206

Factors that affect radio comms

Answer 206

Weather, terrain, antenna, power, location of radio Trying to communicate near man made objects (bridges/buildings) Static interference (near power lines/generators) Interference from other radio stations, bad weather or enemy jamming

Question 207

Dug in emplacements

Answer 207

Fighting positions provide cover and camouflage/concealment for personnel and physical assets. At the same time, fighting positions must allow soldiers/marines and their weapon systems to engage and destroy enemy forces from the position

Question 208

Survivability operations

Answer 208

Survivability is quality or capability of military forces which permits them to avoid or withstand hostile actions or environmental conditions while retaining the ability to fulfill their primary mission

Question 209

Individual fighting positions

Answer 209

Individual fighting positions protect one or more dismounted soldiers/marine armed with individual weapons intended to be operated by an individual rather than by a crew while supporting their ability to engage the enemy from the position Individual fighting positions are generally constructed in defense in generally rural areas, made as small as possible to present the smallest target to the enemy but wide enough to accommodate an mans shoulders and deep enough to use entrenching tools at the bottom

Question 210

Hasty

Answer 210

Dig up dirt in front and quick as possible

Question 211

One man fighting

Answer 211

Rifle length and width. | The height is up to the armpits. 30% angle for a genade sump, 10% angle for the water sump.

Question 212

Two man fighting

Answer 212

2 rifle length and one rifle width, the height is up to the shorted mans armpit, 30% angles for a genade sump, 10% angle for the water sump

Question 213

Three general rules for camouflage

Answer 213

Take advantage of all available natural concealment Camouflage by altering the for , shadow, texture, and color of objects Camouflage against both ground and air observation

Question 214

Utilizing BAMCIS, describe the planning process for issuing a five paragraph order

Answer 214

Troop-leading steps (BAMCIS) The troop leading steps are a sequence of events which unit leaders use in most tactical operations. These steps do not always occur in a specific order, many times two or more may occur concurrently. The troop leading steps are simply a tool which aids leaders in formulating initial plans and time schedules upon receipt of a mission

Question 215

BAMCIS | - B

Answer 215

Begin planning The receipt of a mission triggers the entire BAMCIS cycle, however, tactical planning is anticipatory and continuous. To make effective use of available time, the leader issues a warning order to his subordinates.

Question 216

BAMCIS | - A

Answer 216

Arrange for reconnaissance If possible the unit leader arranges for a physical reconnaissance of his objective, route or defensive position. He considers the route, security, subordinates to accompany him and the time for available for reconnaissance. If a physical reconnaissance is impossible the commander should at least use a map, aerial photo or visual reconnaissance from a vantage point in order to conduct his leaders reconnaissance.

Question 217

BAMCIS | - M

Answer 217

Make reconnaissance The commanders recon will either confirm his plan or cause him to make adjustments. On a physical reconnaissance selected subordinate leaders normally accompany him. The personnel accompanying the leader will vary according to the tactical situation. The leader should take as many subordinate leaders as the situation requires, while other subordinate leaders supervise the preparations necessary for the upcoming mission

Question 218

BAMCIS | - C

Answer 218

Complete the plan After updating his estimate of the situation (METT-T) with information gained during his reconnaissance, the leader makes his decision as to how he will accomplish the mission and completes his operation order

Question 219

BAMCIS | - I

Answer 219

Issue the order The leader issues his order orally to his subordinate leaders. Combat orders introduces operation orders and order issuing techniques

Question 220

BAMCIS | - S

Answer 220

Supervise The leader ensures that his plan is adhered to by listening to his subordinate leaders as they issue orders by inspecting marines and their equipment and by observing them as they conduct rehearsals. He also ensures adherence to any established time line. If any changes to the original plan are required due to recent changes in the situation. The commander must adjust his plan accordingly

Question 221

2 tapes of compass

Answer 221

Lensatic | M2

Question 222

Lad Nav requires what

Answer 222

Map Compass Pace count

Question 223

Grid system utilized on all military maps

Answer 223

The military grid reference system is the geo coordinate standard used by NATO militaries for locating points on earth

Question 224

Land nav Intersection

Answer 224

The location of an unknown point by successively occupying at least two, preferably the known positions and sightings on the unknown point. It is used to locate features not depicted on the map or not readily identifiable.

Question 225

Land nav Resection

Answer 225

Is the location of the users unknown position by sighting on two or three known features that are identifiable on the map

Question 226

SALUTE

Answer 226

``` S-size A-activity L-location U-unit T-time E-equipment ``` When observed activities of the enemy do not pose a threat

Question 227

SPOT

Answer 227

S-size P-position O-observation T-time Modified salute report Rapid way to inform COC of the vital information and should be followed up with a salute report

Question 228

Security Patrol

Answer 228

Concerned with defensive combat

Question 229

Reconnaissance Patrol

Answer 229

Information gathering patrols

Question 230

Twelve Patrol and planning and preparation steps

Answer 230

1. Study Mission 2. Plan the used time 3. Study terrain and situation 4. Organize Patrol 5. Select equipment/personnel 6. Issue warning order 7. Coordinate 8. Make recon 9. Complete detail plans 10. Issue Patrol order 11. Supervise 12. Execute

Question 231

Organization of a Patrol for movement

Answer 231

The patrols task organization establishes the elements and teams needed to accomplish the mission in the objective area to and from the objective. The patrol leader determines the formation in which the patrol moves to the objective area

Question 232

What is the purpose of combat hand and arm signals?

Answer 232

Communicate without sound. Short and to the point

Question 233

What are the 4 Fire team formations

Answer 233

Column Wedge Skirmishers Echelon

Question 234

Fire team formation | Column

Answer 234

Permits rapid, controlled movement favors fire and maneuver to the flanks Vulnerable to fire from the front and provides the least amount of fire to the front

Question 235

Fire team formation | Wedge

Answer 235

Permits good control Provides all around security Formation is flexible Fire is adequate in all directions

Question 236

Fire team formation skirmishers

Answer 236

Maximum firepower to the front | Used when the location and strength of the enemy are known, during the assault, mopping up and crossing short open areas

Question 237

Fire team formation echelon

Answer 237

Provides heavy firepower to front and echeloned flank | Used to protect an open or exposed flank

Question 238

Article 1 code of conduct

Answer 238

I am an American, fighting in the forces which guard my country and our way of life. I am prepared to give my life in their defense

Question 239

Article II of code of conduct

Answer 239

I will never surrender of my own free will. If in command, I will never surrender the members of my command while they still have the means to resist.

Question 240

Article III code of conduct

Answer 240

If I am captured I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and to aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy.

Question 241

Article IV code of conduct

Answer 241

If I become a prisoner of war, I will keep faith with my fellow prisoners. I will give no information or take part in any action which might be harmful to my comrades. If I am Senior I will take command. If not, I will obey the lawful orders of those appointed over me and will back them up in every way.

Question 242

Article V code of conduct

Answer 242

When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give name, rank, service member and date of birth. I will evade answering further questions to the utmost of my ability. I will make no oral or written statements disloyal to my country and its allies or harmful to their cause.

Question 243

Article VI code of conduct

Answer 243

I will never forget that I am an American, fighting for freedom, responsible for my actions and dedicated to the principles which made my country free. I will trust in my god and in the United States.

Question 244

Procedures for handling detainees/ enemy prisoners of war

Answer 244

``` Never attack those who surrender Never kill, torture 9or mistreat prisoners Never take personal property Do not violate their civil rights You may have to relocate civilians You may not use poison or poison weapons ```

Question 245

What are the 6 S and T of Enemy prisoner of war

Answer 245

``` Search Secure Silence Segregate Safeguard Speed Tag ```

Question 246

Firing techniques Pieing

Answer 246

The weapon is aimed at a sector of a window, doorway, corner or hallway and slowly moved at different angles, sectoring off the window, doorway, corner, or hallway until each sector is cleared of any threat. As soon as a hostile threat is seen, immediate, accurate fire can be placed on the threat.

Question 247

Firing techniques Aim quick fire

Answer 247

As the rifle is brought up the firing eye looks through or just over the rear sight aperture and the front sight post is used to aim at the target. The marine fires two quick shots. Focus remains on the front sight post throughout the aiming process

Question 248

Firing techniques Pointed quick fire

Answer 248

When a target appears the marine will keep both eyes open, concentrating intensely on a small specific focal point near the base of the target mass. The rifle is brought simultaneously to the hollow of the shoulder. The head is held high, stock welded to the jaw. The eyes are 2-3 inches over the top of the sights, staring intently at the Target. As soon as the rifle is brought to the shoulder, two quick shots are fired. Focus on the target is not broken during the interval between seeing the target and discharging the rifle.

Question 249

Firing techniques Instinctive shooting

Answer 249

If possible the marine should engage the threat by using the tip of the front sight post. However, speed may be more important. The marines weapon and body are quickly pointed and the target is engaged. It is important that the body be turned with the weapon in order to achieve a natural point of aim.

Question 250

Trajectory

Answer 250

Path of a projectile through the air

Question 251

Burst of fire

Answer 251

The number of shots in a burst of fire is limited by several factors, including the size and shape of the target, ground formation and ammunition supply.

Question 252

Cone of fire

Answer 252

When a burst is fires, the vibrations of the gun and tripod, variations in ammunition and conditions of the atmosphere give each bullet a trajectory differing slightly from that of the others. The resulting group of trajectories is known as the cone of fire.

Question 253

Beaten zone

Answer 253

the area on the ground which the cone of fire falls

Question 254

Dead space

Answer 254

An area within the maximum range of a weapon which cannot be covered by fire or observation from a particular position because of intervening obstacles, the nature of the ground, the characteristics of the trajectory or the limitations of the pointing capabilities of the weapon

Question 255

Danger spaces

Answer 255

The area from the muzzle of the gun, out to and including the beaten zone, where a standing man will be hit, somewhere on his body by some part of the cone of fire.

Question 256

Point targets

Answer 256

Targets having a width or depth no greater than the beaten zone for the ground in which they are located are considered as point targets and are engaged by fixed fire

Question 257

Wide targets

Answer 257

When a pair of guns engage frontal targets which are 100 miles or less in width for the heavy gun and 50 miles or less in width for the medium gun and are also less than the length of the beaten zone in depth, the normal traversing Method is used

Question 258

Oblique targets

Answer 258

Using a squad of guns, oblique targets are engaged with combined traversing and searching fire

Question 259

Area targets

Answer 259

Targets which cannot be covered by either traversing fire or searching fire alone or by combined traversing and searching fire are called area targets. The area which can be covered effectively by a squad of guns or by a selection of four guns is small because of time and ammunition required by this type.

Question 260

Moving targets

Answer 260

The fundamentals used to hit loving targets are the small as those needed to hit stationary targets. However, the procedures to engage moving targets vary as the angle, speed, and range of the target vary. Targets moving directly at the gunner are engaged the same as the stationary target. There is no change in the application of the fundamentals. Fast moving targets are varying ranges and angles do require changes in the application of steady position and aiming.

Question 261

Sectors of fire and fire discipline

Answer 261

Lateral limit- line of sight | Forward limit- firing range

Question 262

Elements of mission planning

Answer 262

``` Mission analysis COA development COA war game COA comparison and development Order development ```

Question 263

Elements of a mission plan | SMEAC

Answer 263

``` S- situation M- mission E- execution A- administration and logistics C- command and signal ```

Question 264

METT-TC

Answer 264

``` M- mission analysis E- enemy forces T-terrain/weather another analysis T- troop and support available T- time available C- civilian consideration ```

Question 265

KOKOA

Answer 265

``` K- key terrain O- observation C- cover and concealment O- obstacles of approach A- avenue of approach ```

Question 266

SAFE

Answer 266

S- secure area A- automatic weapons F- fields of fire E- entrenchments

Question 267

DRAW-D

Answer 267

``` D-defend R-re-enforce A-attack W-withdraw D-delay ```

Question 268

METOC

Answer 268

Meteorological and oceanographic | Provides detailed data on topography and environmental parameters

Question 269

FPCON Normal

Answer 269

General threat

Question 270

FPCON Alpha

Answer 270

Increased threat

Question 271

FPCON Bravo

Answer 271

More predictable threat

Question 272

FPCON Charlie

Answer 272

Intel indicates or an actual event occurs

Question 273

FPCON Delta

Answer 273

Area in which an attack has occurred

Question 274

Antiterrorism and force protection plan

Answer 274

Specific measures and procedures to protect critical assets, capabilities, infrastructure and personnel. Based on terrorist threat level, assets critical to the mission, ability to execute mission of attacked, risk of attack and capability to penetrate physical security systems.

Question 275

Assessment zone

Answer 275

Assessment zone around the ECP includes the visual range of the base gate guard, pier watch or quarterdeck watch. It is within the assessment zone that active and passive security measures are employed to identify, detect, classify and assess possible threats

Question 276

Warning zone

Answer 276

The warning zone at an ECP is a physically separated area closer to the critical asset than the assessment zone where unknown and authorized personnel are inspected and identified. In this zone, IDs and access lists are checked and the purpose of the visits is confirmed.

Question 277

Threat zone

Answer 277

The area past the ECP standoff zone to the protected asset or area. No unauthorized personnel should be allowed in this area. All watch standers should clearly understand authorized used of force in the threat zone.

Question 278

Performing a vehicle search

Answer 278

``` Note time of inspection Walk completely around vehicle Tap drivers side front tire Tap passengers side front tire Tap passengers side rear tire Tap drivers side rear tire Check trunk Close trunk Look in exhaust pipe ```

Question 279

Deadly force

Answer 279

Force that a person uses causing or that a person knows or should know would create a substantial risk of causing death or serious bodily harm

Question 280

8 circumstances for deadly force

Answer 280

1. Inherent right of self defense 2. Defense of others 3. Assets vital to national security 4. Inherently dangerous property 5. National critical infrastructure 6. Serious offense against persons 7. Arrest or apprehension 8. Escape

Question 281

Escalation of force

Answer 281

``` Presence Verbal Soft control Hard control Intermediate weapons Deadly force ```

Question 282

What is the purpose of SROE?

Answer 282

To provide implementation guidance on the application of force for mission accomplishment and the exercise of the inherent right of self defense per joint chief of staffs

Question 283

Combatant

Answer 283

Armed forces: uniformed/armed; participating directly in armed conflict during hostilities

Question 284

Non-combatants

Answer 284

``` Civilian populace, non-uniformed/unarmed Includes: Medical officers Corpsmen Chaplains Technical representative Civilian war correspondents ```

Question 285

Examples of violations of the LOAC

Answer 285

Offenses against non-combatants, wounded, sick, POWs, deliberate attacks on medical transports and unlawful destruction and pillaging of public and private property

Question 286

Open fire

Answer 286

Gunners are clear to open fire assuming a clear field of fire exists

Question 287

Cease fire

Answer 287

Gunners cease fire immediately while keeping positive control of their weapons

Question 288

Check fire

Answer 288

Gunners stop firing to check the effect of rounds fired

Question 289

Response to commands

Answer 289

Gunners depart all orders given by coxswain

Question 290

MHE

Answer 290

Material handling equipment | Forklifts

Question 291

WHE

Answer 291

Weight handling equipment | Cranes

Question 292

9-11240/13

Answer 292

Operators inspection guide, trouble report | Record of discrepancies

Question 293

DD 1970

Answer 293

Motor equipment utilization record or an activity generated trip ticket, shall be employed as the basic document for information concerning the utilization of motor vehicles and shall be prepared in accordance with instructions on the back of the form

Question 294

Organic CESE

Answer 294

Basic allowance of equipment approved by CNO and published twice a year as a naval facilities engineering command notice On our TOA(table of allowance) Identify with blue triangle and white writing

Question 295

Augment CESE

Answer 295

Requested when an assigned project requires more equipment then the organic allowance supplies Not on out TOA(table of allowance) has to import equipment from another source Identify with opposite of organic equipment. White triangle with blue writing

Question 296

Standard form 91 mishap report

Answer 296

Detailed statement of incident, record damage to government motor vehicles 5Ws

Question 297

P-300

Answer 297

Provides administrative and technical instructions to be used by all people concerned with the administration, operation, and maintenance of automotive vehicles, construction and railway equipment referred to as CESE

Question 298

P-307

Answer 298

Provides requirements for the maintenance, inspection, test, certification, repair, alteration and/ or use of cranes under the technical cognizance of the naval facilities engineering command

Question 299

OF/346

Answer 299

Standard government motor vehicle license. This form is carried when operating a government vehicle on and off base. It lists the types of vehicles the individual is licensed to operate. Good for 3 years

Question 300

11260/2

Answer 300

Construction equipment license. Maintained by the license examiner and kept in the operators record Good for 2 years Gives proper authority to operate the equipment

Question 301

Class A assigned CESE

Answer 301

Continuing assignments, full-time assignment of a specific nonstandard vehicle to an individual billet

Question 302

Class B assigned CESE

Answer 302

Recurring dispatch assignments, automotive vehicle authorized in writing by the local commander to an organizational unit of the command or a tenant activity on a regular or continuous basis for conduct of official business

Question 303

Class C assigned CESE

Answer 303

Pool vehicles, all DOD vehicles not designated as class A or class B, pooled for performance of services on an on call basis

Question 304

Security zones

Answer 304

Established to provide protection to HVAs and to control civilian/ commercial vessel traffic in a designated area. DOD has authority over security zones outside US government. USCG has authority over security zones within areas of Us government

Question 305

What are the 3 security zones

Answer 305

React Intercept Assessment

Question 306

React

Answer 306

Ideally zone extends 1000yds from HVA, distance for this zone may be based on FPCON in effect for AO

Question 307

Intercept

Answer 307

Ideally zone extends 1000yds from the other boundary of react, distance for this zone may be based on the FPCON in effect for that AO, physical characteristic of terrain, activity and corresponding threat analysis

Question 308

Assessment

Answer 308

Outermost security zone from HVA, extends to reach of organic and inorganic sensors, establishing authorities will specify procedures and limits of zone in appropriate OPORD or directive for operational area

Question 309

What are the factors that determine navigability of waterways

Answer 309

``` Currents Depth of waterways Water levels Natural obstacles Manmade obstacles ```

Question 310

SITREP

Answer 310

Report of a situation, disposition and status of forces including overview, intelligence, operations, logistics, communications, personnel and commanders assessment

Question 311

high seas AT/FP

Answer 311

Provides comprehensive approach in addressing terrorist threats Ships and aircrafts are sovereign diplomatic clearance for entry in foreign areas

Question 312

Waterborne threat | Small craft

Answer 312

Personnel armed with small arms could injury personnel and cause equipment casualties, also assualts by explosives or RPGs

Question 313

Waterborne threats | Aircraft

Answer 313

Determining hostile intent and engagement can be difficult, warning zones, broadcasts and procedures must be established that are consistent with ROE/RUF

Question 314

Waterborne threats | Deep draft vessels

Answer 314

Block major port/waterways, cause closure of key ports, tankers, container ships, merchant ships can be used as a bomb transport vehicles

Question 315

Waterborne threats | Subsurface threats

Answer 315

Come in the form of swimmers/divers, submerged delivery vehicles, mines; low cost and simple

Question 316

Waterborne threats | Swimmers/divers

Answer 316

Used to insert recon and saboteur teams, mines or torpedos, summers will take advantage of night divers may use breathing apparatus/ bubble free rebreather equipment

Question 317

Waterborne threats | Mines/IED

Answer 317

Can cause serious damage to shipping and block ports

Question 318

SCOF Level 1

Answer 318

``` Show presence Hail by radio, warn to remain clear Verbal hail Sound siren/5 horn blasts/ flash lights Hand movements Man weapon stations Use ambiguous warning device Aggressively maneuver between COI and HVA to encourage COI change of course Herd contact to change to desired direction ```

Question 319

SCOF Level II

Answer 319

Use of flares or other authorized visual/audible warning devices Shines spotlight on COI pilothouse Blocking the COI by positioning boat to counter the COIs heading Shouldering/ herding the COU to cause course change in desired location Train weapons on COI

Question 320

SCOF level III

Answer 320

``` Warning the COI it will be fired upon Warning shots (across bow) ```

Question 321

SCOF Level IV

Answer 321

Use disabling fire | Use directed destruction fire

Question 322

Waterborne defense in depth

Answer 322

Established by creating assessment, warning and threat zones. Should be created large enough to determine hostile intent and to engage small boat threat as far as possible from HVA

Question 323

SLIST chemical protective ensemble

Answer 323

Service lightweight integrated suit technology Provides protection against liquid, solid and/or vapor CB agents and radioactive alps and beta particles. It is a lightweight garment and it can be laundered up to 6 times for personal hygiene

Question 324

What is the shelf life of the SLIST chemical protective ensemble?

Answer 324

5 years

Question 325

How long can the SLIST chemical protective ensemble last when opened?

Answer 325

45 days

Question 326

How long can a SLIST chemical protective ensemble last while contaminated?

Answer 326

24 hours

Question 327

What do you do after laundering the SLIST chemical protective ensemble?

Answer 327

Mark the tag after washing

Question 328

What does NAAK stand for?

Answer 328

Nerve agent antidote kit

Question 329

What does NAAK contain?

Answer 329

3 atropine injections | 3- 2 Pam chloride

Question 330

What are the 3 types of anti-personnel agents?

Answer 330

Chemical Biological Radiological

Question 331

Chemical agents

Answer 331

Chemicals intended for military operation to kill, seriously injure or incapacitate personnel

Question 332

Biological agents

Answer 332

Is the use of biological agents (pathogens or toxins) as a weapon

Question 333

Radiological agents

Answer 333

Is when radiation (nuclear bomb) is used as a weapon

Question 334

Effects of biological agents

Answer 334

Biological operations use living organisms to cause death or disease. They act on living matter only. Most organisms that produce disease enter the body of the victim and grow in the human tissues. Some organisms produce toxins in food and water and the poison causes disease after the victim eats or drinks it

Question 335

Effects of nuclear weapons

Answer 335

Nuclear weapons produce explosions of great force and heat and release nuclear radiation. The primary purpose is the mass destruction of property and personnel. Their effects are divided into 3 categories, blast, heat, And nuclear radiation

Question 336

What are he 4 categories of radiological warfare?

Answer 336

Blast Thermal radiation (heat) Nuclear radiation Electromagnetic pulse (EMP)

Question 337

Blast

Answer 337

Extremely high temperature and pressure generated by a nuclear burst immediately converts all material in the fireball into hot compressed hard. The gases expand rapidly in all directions, creating a shock wave in the surrounding medium. Pressure increases sharply producing overpressure which is a crushing force with accompanying winds

Question 338

Thermal radiation (heat)

Answer 338

Thermal energy is actually a form of electromagnetic radiation. As such it travels at the speed of light and it reaches the ship before most other weapon effects. The temperature reaches tens of millions in degrees

Question 339

Nuclear radiation

Answer 339

Variable forms of emissions from both the detonation process and residual radioactive debris that result in subatomic rearrangement of matter or the formation of ion particles

Question 340

Electromagnetic pulse (EMP)

Answer 340

An intense electromagnetic field that builds up to maximum strength within fractions of a second after a nuclear explosion. It can damage unprotected electrical and electronic equipment by inducing strong electric currents into the circuitry (similar to lightning)

Question 341

What are the 3 types of nuclear explosions

Answer 341

Air burst Surface burst Sub-surface burst

Question 342

Air burst

Answer 342

The shockwave that produces in the air by explosion

Question 343

Surface burst

Answer 343

Detonation is above the surface of the earth. Fireball touches the surface of the earth, producing air blast, thermal radiation and electromagnetic pulse

Question 344

Sub-surface burst

Answer 344

Detonation is below the surface of water, produces underwater shock

Question 345

What are the four types of nuclear radiation

Answer 345

Alpha Beta Gamma Neutrons

Question 346

Alpha particles

Answer 346

Only travels a few centimeters, they cannot penetrate even a thin sheet of paper

Question 347

Beta particles

Answer 347

Can travel several feet, they cannot penetrate a sheet of aluminum but they can penetrate a uniform

Question 348

Gamma rays

Answer 348

A form of EM radiation that can travel great distances in air. Pure energy, not easily stopped; penetrates every region of the body, most damaging from initial blast.

Question 349

Neutrons

Answer 349

Greatest penetrating power, most prevalent during initial blast. Does not affect most materials in any visible manner, but radioactive contamination is hazardous to personnel

Question 350

What is MOPP

Answer 350

Mission oriented protected posture system It’s a flexible system for protection against chemical agents Facilitated mission accomplishment in chemical warfare

Question 351

MOPP 0

Answer 351

Mask carry

Question 352

MOPP 1

Answer 352

Mask carry | Suit is worn

Question 353

MOPP 2

Answer 353

Mask carry Suit Boots

Question 354

MOPP 3

Answer 354

Mask worn Suit Boots Hood

Question 355

MOPP 4

Answer 355

``` Mask worn Suit Boots Hood Gloves ```

Question 356

M8 chemical agent detector paper

Answer 356

``` Detects liquid nerve or blister agents Hazard areas determines, through a color change of the paper comparison on the M8 booklet Red H and L blister Yellow G series nerve Green VX nerve ```

Question 357

M9 chemical agent detector tape

Answer 357

A tape that detects liquid chemical agents by color changes. Sense spots can be various shades of red, blue, yellow, green gray or black spots are not from a liquid chemical agent, these are false positives

Question 358

M256 chemical agent detector kit

Answer 358

Used to detect and identify blood, blister and nerve agents present either as liquid or vapor. May be used to determine when it is safe to unmask, to locate and identify chemical hazards also to monitor decontamination effectiveness.

Question 359

What is in an M256 chemical agent detector kit?

Answer 359

Booklet of M8 paper 12 disposable sampler detectors individually sealed in a plastic laminated foil envelope and a set of instruction cards attached by a lanyard to the plastic carrying case

Question 360

2 categories of chemical warfare

Answer 360

Chemical agents | Chemical compounds

Question 361

2 classifications of biological warfare

Answer 361

Pathogens | Toxins

Question 362

Radiological marker sign

Answer 362

White with black atom marking

Question 363

Biological marker sign

Answer 363

Blue with red bio marking

Question 364

Chemical marker sign

Answer 364

Yellow with red gas marking

Question 365

Chemical minefield marker sign

Answer 365

Red with yellow gas mines marking with yellow strip under the marking

Question 366

M291 skin decontamination kit

Answer 366

Used to decontaminate exposed skin in a chemical environment and prior to entering the contamination control area.

Question 367

M296 individual equipment decontamination kit

Answer 367

M295 kit allows personnel to decontaminate their individual equipment through physical removal and sorption of chemical agents

Question 368

What are the three types of chemical warfare agents?

Answer 368

Casualty agents Incapacitating agents Harassing agents

Question 369

Casualty agents

Answer 369

Highly poisonous and are intended to kill someone

Question 370

Incapacitating agents

Answer 370

Interferes with mental processes that control bodily functions (shock or fatigue)

Question 371

Harassing agents

Answer 371

Tear and vomiting gases that cause temporary disability

Question 372

What are the 4 types of casualty agents?

Answer 372

Blister agents Blood agents Choking agents Nerve agents

Question 373

When and where was the first large scale use of chemical weapons in a war?

Answer 373

April 22, 1915 Leper, Belgium Used several types of chemical weapons including mustard gas, resulted in 90k deaths and over 1 million casualties during the war

Question 374

What are the SECNAVS operational energy goals and desired outcomes?

Answer 374

By 2020 50% of total energy consumption will come from alternative sources DON will produce at least 50% off shore based energy requirements from alternative sources. 50% of DON installations will be net zero

Question 375

What are our units operational energy goals

Answer 375

Reduce fuel consumption by 15% when compared to FY 2008 baseline by changing how equipment is used. Increase fuel efficiency of end items by 15% when compared to the baseline

Question 376

What is the first step that has to be established in regards to measuring fuel usage

Answer 376

NECC fuel data architecture AS IS and TO BE model will be developed to understand the gaps between current methods to capture fuel use. The two options to capture fuel usage data manually and by the use of sensors

Question 377

What are the top five energy consumers in the table of allowance

Answer 377

``` MTVR 36% Construction Equipment, MHE, and motor transport group 31% Watercraft group 17% Generator group 10% ECU Group 5% ```

Question 378

What are the five initiatives to increase energy efficiency

Answer 378

More efficient environmental control units Improved energy efficiencies for CESE insulated shelters Highly efficient portable water generation capability LED lighting

Question 379

what is DODs 3 fold approach to meeting operational energy goals

Answer 379

More flight, less fuel- reduce the demand for energy in military ops More options, less risk- expand and secure supplies for military More capability, less cost- build energy security into the future force

Question 380

What are the most common types of alternative energy sources

Answer 380

Renewable energy- wknd and solar Alternative fuels- biofuels and fu derived from coal Fuel cells

Question 381

PMS

Answer 381

Planned maintenance system

Question 382

MDS

Answer 382

Maintenance data system

Question 383

MRC

Answer 383

Maintenance requirement card

Question 384

MIP

Answer 384

Maintenance index page

Question 385

LOEP

Answer 385

Lost of effective pages

Question 386

FR

Answer 386

Force revision

Question 387

EGL

Answer 387

Equipment guide list

Question 388

TGL

Answer 388

Tag guide list

Question 389

CSMP

Answer 389

Current ships maintenance project

Question 390

CASREP

Answer 390

Casualty report

Question 391

JSN

Answer 391

Job sequence number

Question 392

EVS

Answer 392

Equipment validation sheet

Question 393

FTSC

Answer 393

Fleet technical support center

Question 394

What instructions cover 3M

Answer 394

OPNAVINST 4790.4C 3M manual OPNAVINST 4790.4D 3M navy policy manual OPNAVINST 5100.23G Navy occupational safety and health program ashore

Question 395

When do you use a danger tag?

Answer 395

Prevent death or serious bodily harm and severe damage to equipment

Question 396

When do you use a caution tag

Answer 396

It is used for giving temporary special instructions, prevent minor damage or injury

Question 397

What information is on the MRC

Answer 397

``` Hazmat/ MSDS Man hours Steps for maintenance actions Tools required Tag out requirements ```

Question 398

How do you verify an MRC?

Answer 398

MRC to MIP MIP to LOEP LOEP to change page (FR)

Question 399

What does the W-1 and A-1 indicate of the MRC periodic code?

Answer 399

W- weekly | A- annually

Question 400

What maintains the 13 week report?

Answer 400

The work center sup

Question 401

Why is the 13 week report maintained?

Answer 401

Maintained for a record of personal accountability of PMS accomplishment

Question 402

Who is the 3m manager?

Answer 402

The XO

Question 403

What is the function of the 3 M coordinator?

Answer 403

The functional manager of the 3m program and is responsible to the XO

Question 404

What is 3m

Answer 404

A management tool that provides efficient and uniform methods for conducting and recording preventative, alterative and corrective maintenance. Ensures the extended life and operation of naval equipment and assets

Question 405

What are the 3 types of maintenance

Answer 405

Preventive Alterative Corrective

Question 406

What is IEM

Answer 406

Inactive, Equipment Maintenance

Question 407

What is IEM status I and II

Answer 407

Status I- used if Equipment is in a nonuse status for prolonged amount of time Status II- used when Equipment is down and in need of repair and awaiting parts/ corrective action, or when being removed from station/shipped out

Question 408

When are periodicity checks for 3m

Answer 408

``` Daily Weekly Monthly Quarterly Semiannual Annual Every 24 months Situational/ when required Layup Start up ```

Question 409

What are the non calendar checks?

Answer 409

R- situational/when required LU- layup SU- start up

Question 410

What document provides your work center with a list of active and cleared tag outs?

Answer 410

Tag out index and record of audit sheet

Question 411

What situations would require you to tag out the equipment

Answer 411

Operating the equipment would place personnel in harms way | Turning on the equipment could damage the equipment

Question 412

What is the first step in tagging out a piece of CESE

Answer 412

Obtaining the authorizing officers permission

Question 413

What functions is a tag out index and record of audit sheet is used for?

Answer 413

Assist in auditing tagouts Ensure that tags are issued sequentially by serial #s Provide a list of archives and cleared tagouts

Question 414

What document lists all MIPS applicable to the workcenter

Answer 414

LOEP

Question 415

What is the basic list of all MRCs for a piece of equipment

Answer 415

Maintenance index page

Question 416

What block of the MEC would contain caution notes

Answer 416

Safety precaution

Question 417

What block on the MRC includes info on where the equipment is stowed

Answer 417

Location block

Question 418

Who fills in the serial and date blocks of the category A&B feedback report

Answer 418

3M coordinator

Question 419

What feedback report is submitted via naval message

Answer 419

Urgent

Question 420

What feedback report do you submit in clarification of 3M instruction and other matters related to PMS administration

Answer 420

Category A, non technical

Question 421

What PMS board forms the basis for long term scheduling

Answer 421

Cycle board

Question 422

How often is the quarterly schedule updated

Answer 422

Once a week

Question 423

What schedule identified actual task when they’re due

Answer 423

Weekly

Question 424

What status is assigned to equipment that is inactive for 30days or longer and is directly subject to corrective maintenance, overhaul or removal for safe storage/replacement

Answer 424

Status II

Question 425

What type of actions are accomplished on a recurring basis during the inactive period to prevent equipment deterioration

Answer 425

Periodic maintenance

Question 426

Who’s responsibility is it to notify the WCS when a maintenance requirement cannot be accomplished

Answer 426

Maintenance person

Question 427

Who assists the 3MC in managing multiple work centers

Answer 427

3MA

Question 428

What document in the workcenter PMS manual would tell you the proper tools and procedures?

Answer 428

MRC

Question 429

What periodicity code is used for every 2nd day

Answer 429

2D

Question 430

What periodicity code is used for every 5 months

Answer 430

5M

Question 431

How is a fully completed maintenance task annotated on the weekly schedule

Answer 431

X

Question 432

What status is assigned to equipment that will remain onboard, will be inactive for 30 days or longer and is not scheduled for corrective maintenance or overhaul?

Answer 432

Status I

Question 433

What is used to ensure that the equipment validation is performed correctly

Answer 433

equipment validation sheet

Question 434

What is expeditionary forces goal for finishing all equipment validation

Answer 434

18 months

Question 435

What are camp fundamentals

Answer 435

Sufficient space for command dispersion Concealment from ground and air observations Protection from bombing and staffing attacks Protection from mechanized attack

Question 436

What are the key features to consider in site selections

Answer 436

``` Control of access site Access to seaport and airport Electric power availability Source of quality of portable water Adequacy of sewage disposal facilities Potential environmental health hazards Communication equipment and radio frequency availability and capability ```

Question 437

What are some considerations to take upon arrival to theater

Answer 437

Establish contact with the higher adjacent authority (host nation) Liaison with the host nation or other adjacent forces Decide if you want to have tactical convoy or admin Establish safety/ORM Plan immediate action drills Arrange HAS (higher adjacent support)

Question 438

What are the four types of camp?

Answer 438

Base Logistical Unit Expeditionary

Question 439

What are the 5 phases of camp setup

Answer 439

``` Planning Site survey/ security Establishment Maintenance Rear down ```

Question 440

What are the four ways to dispose of sewage?

Answer 440

Burn Bury CAT hole Diesel fuel

Question 441

What is the setup used in an initial camp site

Answer 441

Security of the space- setup security before digging in Automatic crew serve weapons- set up weapons oriented to most likely avenue of approach Fields of fire- clear field of fire Entrenchment-emplacement fighting position

Question 442

What are the campsite plans

Answer 442

``` Berthing plan Physical security plan Heavy weather plan Medical/MEDEVAC procedures Fire bill Watch quarter and station bill Camp rules and regulations ```

Question 443

What is the difference between a fire bill and fire plan

Answer 443

Fire bill is the emergency fire fighting procedures and fire evacuation plan Fire plan establishes gun mounts and fighting positions throughout camp

Question 444

What are camp services

Answer 444

``` Berthing Messing Sanitary facilities Power production and lighting distribution Medical Transportation Trash disposal Fuel (storage and distribution) Hazmat ```

Question 445

How many feet between the food and the bathroom

Answer 445

300ft

Question 446

How many feet from food to billeting

Answer 446

200ft

Question 447

How many feet between billeting to bathroom

Answer 447

200ft

Question 448

How many feet from gray water to food?

Answer 448

200ft

Question 449

How many feet from generator to billeting

Answer 449

50ft

Question 450

How many feet from bathroom/ billeting and food to the road?

Answer 450

50ft

Question 451

How many feet from bathrooms/ billeting and food to fuel?

Answer 451

300ft

Question 452

What are the 3 types of work orders?

Answer 452

Emergency/service work Specific job order work requests Standing job orders

Question 453

Emergency/ service work order

Answer 453

Requires less than 16hrs, less than 100 dollars

Question 454

Specific job order work requests

Answer 454

Requires more than 16hrs, more than 100 dollars

Question 455

Standing job orders

Answer 455

Requires 40hrs or more (repetitive in nature)

Question 456

What are the priority work classifications

Answer 456

Safety Function Preventive Appearance

Question 457

What is a leach field

Answer 457

Used to dispose sewage and gray water into the ground Constructed of 4-6in perforated pipe Pipes are 5-10 feet apart, laid out in a herringbone pattern

Question 458

Chlorination

Answer 458

Drain and filter through the semi-permeable membrane | Application of chlorine (2parts per million) to make water potable

Question 459

Super chlorination

Answer 459

Used to disinfect the water containers Application of chlorine (100 parts per million) Not safe to drink

Question 460

Base tent

Answer 460

12 person max | 10 for comfort with full gear

Question 461

ECP setup

Answer 461

5 barriers Always have a 50cal gun mount watch Have secondary ECP

Question 462

Weapons safety rules

Answer 462

Treat every weapon as if it were loaded Never point a weapon at anything you do not intend to shoot Keep finger straight and off the trigger until you are ready to fire Keep weapon on safe until you intend to fire Know target, backstop and what lies beyond

Question 463

Hero safe ordnance

Answer 463

An ordnance item sufficiently shielded or protected to make it immune to adverse effects from radio frequency fields, when used in it’s expected shipboard radio frequency field environment

Question 464

Hero susceptible ordnance

Answer 464

Ordnance containing electro explosive devices proven by tests to be adversely affected by radio frequency field energy to the point that safety or reliability may be in jeopardy when the ordnance is used in the radio frequency field environment

Question 465

Hero unreliable ordnance

Answer 465

Any electrically initiated ordnance item including those having a HERO SAFE or HERO SUSCEPTIBLE classification whose performance is degraded when exposed to the radio frequency environment

Question 466

Hero unsafe ordinance- any electrically initiates ordnance item that becomes unsafe when:

Answer 466

It’s internal wiring physically exposed Test being conducted on the item require additional electrical connections to be made EEDs having exposed wire leads are present, handles or loaded The item is being assembled or disassembled The item is in a dissembled condition The item contains one or more EEDs and has not been classified as HERO safe or susceptible by either a test or design analysis

Question 467

How many feet is the safe separation distance for radio and cell phone communications to HERO ordnance

Answer 467

Minimum 10 feet from any transmitting antenna

Question 468

International rules of the road

Answer 468

Specific rules for all vessels on the high seas and in connecting waters navigable by seagoing vessels.

Question 469

Inland rules of the road

Answer 469

Applies to all vessels upon the inland waters of the US and to vessels of the US on the Canadian waters of the Great Lakes to the extent that there is no conflict with Canadian law

Question 470

What 3 environmentals effect small boats

Answer 470

Seas Winds Current

Question 471

How to determine safe speed

Answer 471

``` State of visibility Traffic density Stopping distance and turning ability Night Wind, sea and current Limitations of the radar equipment Effect on radar detection of the sea state, weather Ice and other floating objects may not be detected by radar ```

Question 472

Plan of intended movement | PIM

Answer 472

A charred course for boats movement including waypoints, distance, time, true and magnetic north, speed and destination

Question 473

Line of position | LOP

Answer 473

If the bearing is taken on a single object, the line drawn is called a bearing LOP. The observed bearing direction must be corrected to magnetic or true direction and plotted. The compass rose can be used to provide the direction. A single observation gives an LOP, not a position

Question 474

Dead Reckoning

Answer 474

Determination of estimated position of a craft by adding to the last fix the crafts course and speed for a given time and

Question 475

Compass bearing

Answer 475

Compass bearing of an object is its direction from the boats compass north measured in degrees

Question 476

Relative bearing

Answer 476

Relative bearing of an object is its direction from the boats bow at 000 degrees, measured clockwise through 360 degrees

Question 477

Fix

Answer 477

A fix is the point of intersection of two or more simultaneously obtained LOPS indicating your ships exact position on the chart. The accuracy of a fix obtained from two LOPS is almost always questionable. Since we have already stated that accuracy is of the utmost importance in piloting. You must always strive to obtain theee or more lines of position for an accurate fix

Question 478

IALA-B bouy system

Answer 478

North and South America, Japan, South Korea and the Philippines Green bouys to port Starboard, red right returning (when entering from seaward)

Question 479

IALA-A bouy system

Answer 479

Europe, Africa, Australia, New Zealand, most of Asia Port-red bouys Starboard- green bouys

Question 480

What are the elements of a contact report

Answer 480

``` Bearing Position angle Target angle Range estimation Speed estimation ```

Question 481

Overtaking a vessel

Answer 481

Any vessel overtaking any other shall keep out of the way of the vessel being overtaken. A vessel shall be deemed to be overtaken when coming up with another vessel from a direction more than 22.5 degrees abaft her beam, that is, in such a position with reference to the vessel she is overtaking, that at night she would be able to see only the stern light of that vessel but neither or her sidelights.

Question 482

Head on

Answer 482

Unless otherwise agreed, when two power driven vessels are meeting on reciprocal or nearly reciprocal courses so as to involve risk of collision each shall alter her course to starboard so that each shall pass on the port side of each other

Question 483

Crossing

Answer 483

When two power driven vessels are crossing so as to involve risk of collision, the vessel which has the other on her starboard side shall keep out of the way

Question 484

High tide

Answer 484

The maximum height of the water resulting from the rising tide

Question 485

Low tide

Answer 485

The minimum height of the water resulting from the outgoing tide

Question 486

Mean high water

Answer 486

Is a tidal datum that is the average of all the high water heights observed over the national tidal datum epoch (19 year average)

Question 487

Mean low water

Answer 487

Is the tidal datum that is average of all the low water heights observed over the national tidal datum epoch (19 year average)

Question 488

Spring tide

Answer 488

Tides that occur as a result from both solar and lunar influences. When these two bodies are in line with earth their combined effect causes high tides to be higher than average and low tides to be lower than average

Question 489

Neap tide

Answer 489

When the direction of the sun and moon are 90 degrees apart, as when the moon is in the first and last quarter, the gravitational effect of the sun counteracts that of the moon enough that both high and low tides are lower than normal

Question 490

Flood current

Answer 490

The horizontal motion of water toward the land caused by a rising tide

Question 491

Ebb current

Answer 491

The horizontal motion away from the land caused by a rising tide

Question 492

Slack water

Answer 492

The period that occurs while the current is changing direction and has no horizontal motion

Question 493

Set

Answer 493

The direction toward which the water is flowing. A ship is set by the current. A southerly current and a north wind are going in the same direction. Measured in degrees (usually true)

Question 494

Drift

Answer 494

The rate/speed at which a vessel moves due to the effects of wind, wave, current, or the accumulative effects of each, usually expressed in knots

Question 495

Restricted visibility

Answer 495

Any condition in which visibility is restricted by fog, mist, falling snow, heavy rain, sandstorm or any similar causes

Question 496

Vessel constrained by draft

Answer 496

A power driven vessel which because of her draft in relation to the available depth and width of navigable water is severely restricted in her ability to deviate from the course she is following

Question 497

Vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver

Answer 497

A vessel engaged in laying, servicing or picking up a navigation mark, submarine cable or pipeline Engaged in dredging, surveying or underwater ops Replenishment, or transferring persons, provisions or cargo while underway Launching or recovering aircraft Mine clearance ops Towing operation such as severely restricts the towing vessel and get tow their ability to deviate from their course

Question 498

Vessel not under command

Answer 498

A vessel which through some exceptional circumstance is unable to maneuver as required by these rules and is therefore unable to keep out of the way of another vessel

Question 499

Power driven vessel

Answer 499

Any vessel propelled by machinery

Question 500

Sounding

Answer 500

The nautical chart water depth is measured downward from sea level at low water. A chart describes the bottom characteristics to a boat operator. This is accomplished through the use of combinations of numbers, color codes, underwater contour lines and a system of symbols and abbreviations